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Treatment > Cattle Diseases > Flashcards

Cattle Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Is papple shape abnormal for jersey cows?

A

No

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2
Q

What does a reverse D contour usually mean?

A

Bloat

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3
Q

What does a pear contour usually mean?

A

Ascites or intestinal obstruction

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4
Q

What does a papple contour usually mean?

A

Abomasa impaction

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5
Q

What does beef BCS go to?

A

1-9

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6
Q

What does dairy BCS go to?

A

1-5

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7
Q

If a dairy cow has a V from pin to hook what body condition score does that mean?

A

<3

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8
Q

If a dairy cow has a U from pin to hook what body condition score does that mean?

A

> 3.25

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9
Q

What nerve does spastic peresis affect?

A

Tibial nerve (common in calves)

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10
Q

If the dew claw is close to the ground on a functional leg, what does that mean?

A

Shows chronicity

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11
Q

What is the lameness score through?

A

1-5

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12
Q

What is 1?

A

Normal

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13
Q

What is 2?

A

Mild lameness
Standing - level back
Walking - arches back

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14
Q

What is 3?

A

Moderate lameness
Arches back standing and walking

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15
Q

What is 4?

A

Lame
Above + favors one or more feet

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16
Q

What is 5?

A

Severe lameness
3 legged lame

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17
Q

Which legs see the most lameness?

A

rear

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18
Q

Where is most the lameness?

A

90% in foot

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19
Q

What may teats pointing out indicate?

A

Rupture of suspensory ligament

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20
Q

What does a black plate test test for?

A

Clinical mastitis

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21
Q

What does CMT test for?

A

Subclinical mastitis

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22
Q

What should be the last part of the physical exam?

A

Usually the udder exam

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23
Q

What are 3 reasons to wear gloves when examining the udder?

A

Dont transfer staph
Easily clean gloves
Setting an example

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24
Q

How much reagent do you use for a CMT?

A

Equal milk and reagent

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25
Q

What are the 5 different scores for CMT?

A

Negative, trace, 1, 2, 3

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26
Q

When should CMT score be done?

A

At the beginning of milking

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27
Q

Is an exploratory laparotomy diagnostic or therapeutic?

A

Diagnostic (but can be both and prognostic)

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28
Q

What are the 7 (sorry) indications for exploratory laparotomy?

A

Abdominal pain
No feces for >24hrs
Abnormal abdominal contour
Low chloride
Blood in feces
Ping
High lactate

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29
Q

Can an RDA be fixed from the left flank? right flank?

A

Not from left
Yes from right

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30
Q

Can a RAV be fixed from the left flank? right flank?

A

Not from left
Yes from right

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31
Q

Can hardware disease be diagnosed from right?

A

Yes (not from left)

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32
Q

Basically, unless its an LDA, approach from the right flank for an exploratory

A
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33
Q

What bacteria is wooden tongue?

A

Actinobacillosis

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34
Q

What bacteria is lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomycosis

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35
Q

What can salivation (ptyalism) cause?

A

Acidosis

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36
Q

What can stomatitis be caused by?

A

Viral, physical, or chemical injury

Grasses with foxtails, cactus, etc

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37
Q

What is clinical sign of actinobacillosis ligneresii (wooden tongue)?

A

Tongue thickened, hard, protruding from mouth

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38
Q

How to treat actinobacillus ligneresii?

A

Penecillin G and sodium iodide

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39
Q

What is full name of actinomycosis (lumpy jaw)?

A

Actinomycosis bovis

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40
Q

What are clinical signs of actinomycosis bovis?

A

Hard, non-painful swelling of the bone

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41
Q

What causes actinomycosis bovis?

A

Damage to oral mucosa allowing access to deep tissue

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42
Q

How to treat actinomycosis bovis?

A

Penicillin and sodium iodide

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43
Q

What is another name for necrotic laryngitis?

A

Calf-diptheria

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44
Q

What is calf-diphtheria?

A

infection of laryngeal and tracheal mucosae and cartilage

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45
Q

What is the bacteria that causes calf diphtheria?

A

Fusobacterium necophorum

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46
Q

What is the age for calf diphtheria?

A

3-20m

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47
Q

T/F: Wooden tongue is associated with lesions of the tongue caused by consumption of scabrous feeds?

A

True

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48
Q

Wooden tongue is characterized by which of the following?

A

Initial cellulitis by development of pyogranulomas

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49
Q

The term ptyalism means which of the following

A

Excessive salivation

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50
Q

Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why cows with wooden tongue have difficulty swallowing?

A

Cows with wooden tongue are very painful due to swelling, inflammation and contraction of the muscles attached to the hyoid apparatus

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51
Q

Which of the following statements are true?

A

Wooden tongue responds to aggressive therapy whereas lumpy jaw does not

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52
Q

Atypical actinobacilloisis refers to cattle with infections in the?

A

Anywhere in the body except for th tongue

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53
Q

Lumpy jaw is characterized by which of the following?

A

A hard, non-painful swelling of the mandible

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54
Q

Caudal pharyngeal trauma is often the result of

A

Improper oral medication equipment
Consumption of foreign bodies
Poor quality hay with foxtails

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55
Q

Before evaluating a cow with a disease/disorder of the oral cavity which of the following should be ensured?

A

Ensure the cows head/neck are properly immobilized to prevent injury to you or the cow

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56
Q

Which of the following surgical approaches are most appropriate to with retropharygeal abscesses

A

Cow in lateral recumbence, place needle into abscess and dissect down the needle until you can open abscess and marsupialize it to skin

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57
Q

Calf diphtheria (necrotic laryngitis) is commonly associated with which of the following?

A

Recently weaned calf that calls for his mother constantly
Young calf recently infected with respiratory virus (IBR)
Calf that developed histophilus somnii septicemia and was bacteremic

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58
Q

The most appropriate approach to working up a necrotic laryngitis case is to?

A

Place tracheotomy tube, allow calf to relax, regain oxygenation and then restrain for endoscopic exam

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59
Q

Which of the common clinical signs listed below are associate with necrotic laryngitis (calf diphtheria)

A

Fever

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60
Q

You are asked by a producer to provide input into a young beef heifer with hand, swollen tongue that started 42 hr ago. They would like to know what treatment is most effective with the shortest withdraw time. Which of the following would be most effective in this case?

A

Sodium iodide IV. Withdraw 14 days

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61
Q

What are the most common things to cause chock in cows?

A

Hedge apples

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62
Q

What is the most serious/life threatening complication with choke?

A

Free gas bloat

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63
Q

What is a major risk with rumen trocar?

A

Peritonitis

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64
Q

What are 3 things that lead to primary rumenoreticular dysfunction (indigestion)?

A

Poor quality feed
Spoiled feed
Acidosis

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65
Q

How many contractions are in a cow’s contraction cycle?

A

2

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66
Q

What is a primary contraction?

A

1/minute.
Runs caudally from reticulum through dorsal then ventral rumen sacs

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67
Q

What is a secondary contraction?

A

Runs caudal to cranial to push gas cap into cardia

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68
Q

What are 4 inhibitory inputs for primary contractions?

A

High tension in reticulum
Tension in abomasum
Epithelial VFA receptors in rumen
Pain

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69
Q

What is an important excitatory input?

A

Buccal receptors in mouth that respond to chewing

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70
Q

What does vagal indigestion mean?

A

A group of motor disturbances that hinder passage of ingests from the rumenoreticulum or abomasum or both

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71
Q

Which branch of the vagus nerve is the rumen innervated by?

A

Dorsal branch

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72
Q

Which branch of the vagus nerve innervates the omasum and abomasum?

A

Ventral branch

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73
Q

What is omasal transport failure?

A

Vagal indigestion from an empty omasum and abomasum

Rumen has poor water absorption leading to hypovolemia even though cows will continue to drink

Leads to “L” or “papple” shape

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74
Q

What is pyloric functional stenosis?

A

Accumulation of ingesta in omasum and abomasum

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75
Q

What is caused by pyloric functional stenosis?

A

Internal vomiting causing increased rumen chloride

76
Q

What is rumen drinking?

A

When a neonate has a large disruption in the esophageal groove causing rank rumens

77
Q

What are the 3diseases within hardware disease?

A

traumatic reticulitis
Traumatic reticuloperitonitis
Traumatic reticulopericarditis

78
Q

Avoid breaking down adhesions unless they are a problem

79
Q

What is a good antibiotic to use with hardware disease once hardware is removed?

80
Q

What is difference between bloat and rumen distention?

A

Bloar will have reverse D because air goes high on the left side and pushed up

Rumen distension is just a full rumen and will push out (papple)

81
Q

What is bloat caused by (simply)

A

Inability to eructate, not too much gas production

82
Q

What are 2 types of bloat?

A

Free gas bloat
Frothy bloat

83
Q

What is something that can cause free gas bloat?

A

Vagal indigestion
(a lot of other things too)

84
Q

How do you differentiate free gas bloat from frothy bloat/

A

Passage of NG tube

85
Q

What is frothy bloat?

A

Gas bubbles trapped in abnormally viscous rumen fluid

86
Q

What diet enhances frothy bloat?

A

Lush (legume) or high concentrate diets (cereal)

87
Q

What is pasture bloat?

A

Lush legume fields

88
Q

What is feedlot bloat?

A

High concentrate diets

89
Q

Cereal grains in feedlots are easily digestible because they are small and more bacteria can bind to them

90
Q

What does the high proliferation of streptococcus bovis in cereal grains cause?

A

Slime/biofilm

91
Q

When does feedlot bloat most commonly occur?

A

During the first few weeks of the diet

92
Q

Is feedlot or pasture bloat more severe?

A

Pasture bloat

93
Q

Is adding ionophores to decrease strep or lactobacillus an option?

94
Q

What causes pasture bloat?

A

Ingestion of highly digestible, high protein forages

95
Q

What plant has the highest risk of pasture bloat?

96
Q

How is frothy bloat treated?

A

Poloxalene (surfactant)

97
Q

What is the cutoff for rumen acidosis?

98
Q

What is the cause of acute acidosis?

A

Accidental ingestion of large amounts of grain

99
Q

What are the 2 players in the maintanence of rumen pH?

A

Salivary buffer (alkalosis)
VFAs

100
Q

What is SARA?

A

Sub acute ruminal acidosis

101
Q

What is the bacteria associated with SARA?

102
Q

What is the bacteria associated with acute luminal acidosis?

A

Lactobacillus

103
Q

Which type of lactate can be measured?

104
Q

What is wrong with D lactate?

A

Not metabolized efficiently

105
Q

Why does rumen sound very sloshy with acidosis?

A

A lot of water is pulled in to compensate for acidosis

106
Q

What happens to papilla during acidosis?

107
Q

What is the sequelae of blunted papilla?

A

Bacteria entering bloodstream

108
Q

What happens when bacteria enter bloodstream?

A

Liver abscesses
Endotoxemia
Laminitis

109
Q

What may happen with liver abscesses?

A

Caval syndrome

110
Q

What is cabal syndrome?

A

Bacteria enter liver and eventually into vena cava. Further bleeding into lungs

111
Q

What is clinical sing of cabal syndrome?

A

bilateral nose bleed

112
Q

Rumen microbiome is also disrupted from acidosis, what happens as a result?

A

Thiamine is not produced

113
Q

What happens with thiamin not being produced?

A

Polioencephalomalacia!

114
Q

What clinical signs associated with rumen motility are seen with SARA?

A

Decreased rumen motility

115
Q

What is the treatment for acidosis?

A

Correct dehydration
Use magnesium hydroxide!

116
Q

What is bad for acidosis?

117
Q

Cows with DAs like hay over grain!!

118
Q

What is are 2 ancillary tests to confirm a DA?

A

pH of fluid aspirated (liptack)
Abdominal ultrasound

119
Q

Why is type 1 abomasa ulcer

A

Subclinical

120
Q

What is type II abomasal ulcer

A

Bleeding abomasal ulcer

121
Q

What is type III abomasal ulcer?

A

Perforating and have local peritonitis

122
Q

What is type IV abomasal ulcer?

A

Perforating with diffuse peritonitis

123
Q

Should you stop feeding milk during calf diarrhea?

124
Q

What C. Perf type in calves often cause sudden death/?

A

Type C - Newport
Often blood

125
Q

What is C perf type D?

126
Q

What days are calves affected with Rota?

127
Q

What are clinical signs of Rota?

A

Large volume diarrhea
High morbitdity, low mortality

128
Q

What days are calves affected with corona?

129
Q

Is there blood in feces for crypto?

130
Q

What is #1 cause of economic loss in calves <1?

A

Coccidiosis

131
Q

Where do ostertagia type II live?

132
Q

When do cows get Ostertagia type I?

A

First grazing season

133
Q

When do cows get type II?

A

2nd grazing season

134
Q

What is found on necropsy for ostertagia?

A

Moroccan leather GI

135
Q

INFECTION DOES NOT EQUAL DISEASE

136
Q

When do clinical signs arise in Ohio for ostertagia?

A

Late winter / early spring

137
Q

What are 3 clinical signs of ostertagia

A

Bottle jaw
Weight loss
Liquid diarrhea

138
Q

What is treatment for ostertagia?

A

Ivermectin

139
Q

How is ostertagia diagnosed?

A

Increased abomasa pH
Plasma pepsinogen >3000
Negative of low # of strongyles

140
Q

What is the agent that causes Johnes?

A

Mycobacterium avian paratuberculosis (MAP)

141
Q

What is incubation of Johnes?

142
Q

When are animals infected with Johnes?

A

Most at birth

143
Q

What percent of dairies have Johnes?

144
Q

Can you detect Johnes on fecal culture or serology <2 years of age?

145
Q

What are the clinical signs of Johnes?

A

Weight lost, normal appetite
Decreased milk production
Intermittent diarrhea

146
Q

Johnes cows will have protein losing enteropathy!

A

Potential triggering agent for Chrohn’s disease in susceptible individuals

147
Q

What is shedding site of salmonella?

A

Gall bladder

148
Q

Will salmonella calfs have bloody diarrhea?

149
Q

What can you give a salmonella cow?

150
Q

How do you diagnosis johns?

A

Fecal culture, PCR, serology

151
Q

What is treatment for Johnes?

A

Euthanasia

152
Q

What is chorioallantois

A

Vacular fetal membrane

153
Q

What is amnion?

A

Fetal membrane that surrounds the fetus

154
Q

How is the bovine placentone shape?

A

Multicotyledonary

155
Q

How do you describe ruminant placentation?

A

Coyledonary and synepitheliochorial

156
Q

What is embryonic death?

A

Prior to 42 days

157
Q

What is most common cause of embryonic death?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

158
Q

What is fetal death?

159
Q

What is a stillbirth?

A

Delivery of a fully formed dead neonate

160
Q

What is an abortion

A

Expulsion of the products of conception from the uterus before the fetus is viable

161
Q

What is mummification?

A

No bacteria

162
Q

What is maceration?

A

Bacterial infection

163
Q

How do you get a mummified neonate out?

164
Q

What are 5 routes of infection?

A

Respiratory
Oral
Transvaginal
Vector
Hematogenous

165
Q

Fix it. Fridgerate it. Freeze it. Or Fro it away

166
Q

What usually causes hydroallantois?

A

Inadequate number of caruncles

167
Q

What causes hydramnios?

A

Fetus doesn’t swallow enough

168
Q

When do IBR abortions occur?

A

mid to late gestation

169
Q

what are the 2 types of BVD?

A

Non-cytopathic
cytopathic

170
Q

What type causes PI cows?

A

Non-cytopathic

171
Q

When do BVD cows abort?

A

up to 100 days

172
Q

When are PI cows formed?

173
Q

Brucellosis is zoonotic! and causes abortion

174
Q

How can you identify a brucellosis cow?

A

Not translucent placenta

175
Q

How is campylobacter usually transmitted?

176
Q

What does campylobacter look like?

A

Spots on the liver

177
Q

Lepto is another cause of abortion

178
Q

How is aspergillus infected in cattle?

179
Q

What does the placenta of aspergillus abortions look like?

A

Thick and leathery

180
Q

What cause major abortion storms?

A

Neospora caninum

181
Q

How is tritrichomonas transmitted?

182
Q

What makes tritrichomonas abortions unique?

A

Abortions are early

183
Q

How do you diagnose tritrichomnas?

A

InPouch TF

184
Q

How do you test for tritrichomonas in a bull?

A

Insert pipette tester into urethral of bull

Treatment (11 decks)

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