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Treatment > Block 2 More > Flashcards

Block 2 More Flashcards

1
Q

What is most common cause of sub fertility?

A

Endometritis

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2
Q

What are the 3 anatomical barrier to protect against endometritis?

A

Vulva
v-v sphincter
Cervix

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3
Q

how is endometritis diagnosed?

A

Uterine cytology via double guarded swab and brush

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4
Q

On diagnosis of endometritis, what must you order?

A

Both culture AND cytology

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5
Q

When do you treat endometritis?

A

Treat during estrus or induce estrus (PGF) at start of treatment

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6
Q

What are the 3 approaches to treating endometritis?

A

Correction of anatomical defects
Avoid reinfection
Mechanical removal of microorganisms

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7
Q

What type of antibiotics do you give to treat endometritis?

A

Systemic

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8
Q

What antibiotic do you use to treat fungal endometritis (they’re worse)

A

Fluconazole

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9
Q

What percent of intact females develop pyometra by 10?

A

23%

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10
Q

What are the 3 criteria that ensures its the uterus, not the ureters?

A

Blood supply is parallel to tube
Does it bifurcate at body of uterus
Does it have an ovary

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11
Q

IS there an increase in risk doing an ovariectomy for pyos as compared to ovariohisterectomies?

A

NO!!

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12
Q

What is a complete hysterectomy?

A

Removal of uterine horn and cervix but leaves ovaries.

Saves hormones
Still risk of stump pyo and mammary tumors

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13
Q

Disadvantages of complete hysterectomy

A

Continued heat cycles
False pregnancies
Ovary tumors

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14
Q

What 4 things increase the risk for RFM?

A

Abnormal deliveries
Infectious diseases
Twins
Induced parturition

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15
Q

When is a placenta considered retained in a cow?

A

8-12 hours

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16
Q

This is a long one but:
What is the sequelae of RFM?

A

Delayed uterine involution
>Prolonged time to 1st service
>Decreased pregnancy rates
>Increased services per conception
>Increased days open

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17
Q

When is considered RFM in a horse?

A

3 hours
Clinical signs in < 8

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18
Q

What is a large sequelae of equine RFM?

A

Endotoxemia leading to laminitis

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19
Q

How many units of oxytocin should a horse be give?

A

2-5 units

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20
Q

What systemic therapies can be given to a horse? (4)

A

Antibiotics
NSAIDs
Laminitis prevention
Uterine lavage (2x/day)

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21
Q

When do sheep and goat most commonly have RFM?

A

With brucella infection

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22
Q

What is endometritis?

A

Inflammation of lining of uterus (prepartum)

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23
Q

What is metritis?

A

Inflammation in all layers of uterus (post partum)

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24
Q

What is pyometra

A

Pus filled uterus

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25
Q

What are the 3 bacteria of toxic metritis?

A

Trueperella pyogenes
Fusobacterium
Bacteroides

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26
Q

What is the treatment for toxic metritis?

A

Systemic antibiotics

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27
Q

What are 3 hallmark signs of metritis in small animals?

A

Red
Watery
Rank

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28
Q

What is SIPS

A

Subinvolution of placental sites

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29
Q

What occurs in SIPs?

A

Vulvar discharge in postpartum bitch 6-12 weeks after calving (not smelly)

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30
Q

Is SIPS ok?

A

Yeah, just annoying

31
Q

What may be seen in SIPS?

A

Trophoblastic cells

32
Q

What percentage of body weight is blood volume?

A

8%

33
Q

What are the normal physiological compensation mechanisms to hypovolemia?

A

Increased HR

34
Q

How much oxygen is extracted from each hemoglobin in a horse at rest?

A

3%

35
Q

What biomarkers fall with whole blood loss? Which one increases?

A

Decreased proteins
Increased lactate

36
Q

What percent of blood loss is concerning?

A

30%

37
Q

What do you do before 30% blood loss?

A

Give shock dose of crystalloid @ 20mL/kg

38
Q

What are the 2 treatments fr lepto?

A

Penicillin and doxycycline

39
Q

Which antibiotic does not eliminate the carrier state?

A

Penicillin (ampicillin)

40
Q

Which antibiotics do eliminate the carrier state?

A

Doxy and erythromycin

41
Q

How long should treatment continue?

A

4 weeks

42
Q

What type of bacteria is pyelonephritis usually caused by?

A

Gram-negative

43
Q

How long should treatment continue continue with pyelonephritis?

A

4-6 weeks
(Urine taken 3-7 days after stopping treatment)

44
Q

What antibiotic is contraindicated in puppies ad why?

A

Doxy for turning teeth yellow

45
Q

What can be given if there is gastric reflux?

A

Proton pump antagonists

46
Q

What is a common secondary disease associated with AKI?

A

Pancreatitis

47
Q

What is really important in managing AKI?

A

Feeding (enteral feeding may be necessary)

48
Q

When should hypertension associated with AKI be treated?

A

Above 180

49
Q

What is a good drug to reduce the hypertension?

A

Amlodipine

50
Q

What type of drugs are avoided during AKI due to decreased renal perfusion?

A

ACE and ARB

51
Q

Hyperkalemia can occur with AKI but usually when oliguric or anuric

A
52
Q

What is mild hyperkalemia?

A

6.5-7

53
Q

What is moderate hyperkalemia?

A

7-8

54
Q

What is severe hyperkalemia?

A

> 8

55
Q

Action potentials are ____ to generate with hypokalemia

A

Harder

56
Q

_____ affects resting potential

A

Potassium

57
Q

______ affects threshold

A

Calcium

58
Q

After treatment for hyperkalemia, what is it that needs to be done to return potassium to normal levels (not just intracellular/extracellular levels)

A

Urine production
Even a small amount will get it within normal limits

59
Q

What can severe azotemia cause to the mucous membranes?

A

xerostomia

60
Q

What should you do if you suspect over hydration?

A

Furosemide

61
Q

How much is lost in respiratory losses?

A

22 mL/kg/day

62
Q

How much fluid is lost in urine?

A

1-2mL /kg/hr

63
Q

How do you calculate fluid based on % dehydration?

A

% dehydration x kg

64
Q

How fast should you rehydrate something?

A

Over 6-12 hours

65
Q

What is the maintanece fluid therapy?

A

66 mL/kg/day
OR
Dog: 140 x kg^0.75
Cat: 80 x kg^0.75

66
Q

How do you make a fluid plan?

A

Correct the dehydration + Provide maintenance + replace on-going losses (V, D, polyuria)

67
Q

DONT FORGET TO DIVIDE BY 24 FOR THE HOURS IN THE DAY!!

A
68
Q

What does a cat with pyuria, bacteruria, and azotemia have?

A

Pyelonephritis

69
Q

What vomit center is activated with AKI?

A

Central

70
Q

Why is it centrally mediated?

A

Uremic toxins!

71
Q

What does c/d diet stand for?

A

Cystitis diet

72
Q

What does k/d diet stand for?

A

Kidney diet (phosphate and protein restricted. Increased Omega 3)

73
Q

What does mertazepine do in dogs and cats?

A

Appetite stimulant

74
Q
A

Treatment (8 decks)

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