Block 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 categories of osteoarthritis management?

A

Nonpharmacological
Pharmacological
Complementary and alternative
Surgery

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2
Q

Within pharmacological, what are 3 methods?

A

Weight management
Activity modification / PT
Husbandry

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2
Q

What is primary OA?

A

Septic

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3
Q

What is secondary OA?

A

All other types

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4
Q

What is the goal of weight loss with OA?

A

Reduction in clinical signs

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5
Q

What 2 things play into a weight loss program for dogs with OA?

A

Client eduction (diet)
Exercise regime

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6
Q

What is a diet that can be used for OA?

A

Complete diet with Omega 3 FAs

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7
Q

What is a common reason for euthanasia with OA?

A

Cats urinating/deficating outside litterbox because it hurts to step in

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7
Q

What is important about exercise with OA?

A

Need to find happy medium. Too much will hurt joints

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8
Q

What are examples of husbandry changes for OA?

A

Bedding, stairs/ramps, litterbox adjustments

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9
Q

What is an example of symptom-modifying?

A

NSAIDs

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10
Q

What are 2 broad categories of drugs used for OA management?

A

symptom-modifying
structure-modifying

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11
Q

What are 3 types of joint injections for OA?

A

Cortcosteroids
Hyaluronic acid
Biocushions

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12
Q

What is the downside to corticosteroids?

A

Potential harmful on articular cartilage

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13
Q

What is the preferred corticosteroid?

A

Triamclinolone

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14
Q

What is the data on biocushions?

A

No objective data

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15
Q

What are the 2 broad categories of complementary?

A

Orthobiotics
Physical therapy/rehab

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16
Q

What are the 2 types of orthobiotics?

A

Platelet rich plasma (PRP)
Stem-cells

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17
Q

What type of stem cells are used to stem-cell therapy?

A

mesenchymal stem cells

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18
Q

Which of the orthobiotics has more objective efficacy?

A

PRP

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19
Q

What are 5 physical therapy/rehab methods?

A

Shock wave
Photobiomodulation (laser)
Acupuncture
Chiropractic
Ultrasound

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20
Q

What are the 4 surgeries that can be performed for OA?

A

Resurfacing
Joint replacement
Arthrodesis
Excision (FHO)

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21
Q

What is the best surgery for low motion joints?

A

Arthrodesis

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22
Q

How do you treat septic arthritis?

A

Antibiotics (ceflesporin)

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23
Q

How long do you treat a septic arthritis?

A

Minimum of 28 days

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24
Q

How often do you retap a septic joint?

A

Monthly until normal cytology is returned

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25
Q

What is the MOA of NSAIDs?

A

Inhibit COX (decrease prostaglandins)

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26
Q

What are 3 adverse effects of NSAIDs?

A

GI, hepatic, renal

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27
Q

What is the only NSAID labeled for cats?

A

Onsior

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28
Q

What is a non-NSAID option that acts similarly?

A

Grapiprant (galliprant)

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29
Q

What is the MOA of galliprant?

A

non-COX-inhibiting prostaglandin receptor antagonist

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29
Q

What receptor does grapiprant block?

A

EP4

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30
Q

What are adverse side effects of galliprant?

A

GI?

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31
Q

What is MOA of gabapentin?

A

mimics GABA
Inhibits Ca flow to halt release of excitatory neurotransmitters

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32
Q

What is MOA of tramadol?

A

weak mu-opioid action
Acts on noradrenergic and serotonergic systems

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33
Q

What are 5 side effects of tremadol?

A

Sedation
constipation
excitation
tremors
seizures

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34
Q

What is MOA of amantadine?

A

Antiviral
NMDA inhibitor

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35
Q

How long does amantadine take to become fully effective?

A

3-6 weeks

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36
Q

Amantadine is her 2nd choice to NSAIDs

A
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37
Q

What are teh 2 types of monoclonal antibody therapy?

A

Librela (dog) Solensia (cat)

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38
Q

What is the general MOA of monoclonal antibodies?

A

Decreased signal transduction in cell types involved in pain

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39
Q

What should be kept in mind with using librela in dogs?

A

Possible progression of OA, potentailly a progression of neurological disorders. Better for end stage dogs

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40
Q

What are 2 other supplements that may help with OA?

A

Glucosamine and chondroitin

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41
Q

What is the only supplement that has been proven to help with inflammation?

A

Omega 3

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42
Q

What needs to be considered when prescribing adequan?

A

Made from bovine trachea, beware of food allergies

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43
Q

What is a unique adverse side effect of cartrophen?

A

Coagulation issues (may improve subchondral and synovial membrane blood flow)

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44
Q

How do you treat an OCD lesion?

A

Arthroscopic or open open arthrotomy

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45
Q

What does the open arthrotomy entail?

A

Debride flap and shave to healthy bone

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46
Q

What are 3 medical treatments of tendiopathies?

A

PT/rehab
shockwave
PRP

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46
Q

What does post-op care look like for OCD lesion?

A

Pain management
Activity restriction for 8-8 weeks

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47
Q

What are 2 options for tendiopathies?

A

Medical treatment
Surgical treatment

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48
Q

What are 2 main surgeries for tendiopathies of bicep?

A

Tenotomy (cut tendon)
Tenodesis (put tendon back where it was)

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49
Q

What is surgical treatment of supraspinatus?

A

Tendonectomy

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50
Q

What is treatment for a traumatic LATERAL shoulder luxation?

A

External support in spica splint for 2-3 weeks if lateral
NO Velpeau

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51
Q

What is treatment for a traumatic MEDIAL shoulder luxation?

A

Velpeau sling

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52
Q

What disease is often caused by FCP?

A

Medial compartment disease

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52
Q

What is coronoid disease?

A

FCP - fragmented coronoid process

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53
Q

What does surgery of FCP look like?

A

Arthroscopic removal of “pebble in shoe”

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54
Q

What is goal of medial compartment disease?

A

Load-shifting procedure. Takes pressure off the medial joint compartment.

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55
Q

What is UAP?

A

Ununited anconeal process

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56
Q

What are 3 surgical options for UAP?

A

Lag-screw fixation
Ulnar osteotomy
Fragment removal

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57
Q

What surgical procedure of UAP is needed with a short ulna?

A

Ulna osteOtomy

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58
Q

What surgical procedure is needed for long ulnas or short radius (FCP)

A

Ulna osteCtomy

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59
Q

What is needed for ALL elbow dysplasia cases?

A

on-going medical management

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60
Q

What is an arthrodesis?

A

Permanently join 2 joints

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60
Q

What are 2 options for traumatic elbow luxation?

A

Closed reduction (spica splint)
Open reduction (transarticular fixator 6-8 weeks)

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61
Q

What is the treatment if carpal hyperextension at the antebrachiocarpal joint?

A

Pancarpal arthrodesis

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62
Q

What is the treatment of carpal hyperextension at the middle carpal joint?

A

Partial carpal arthrodesis (preserves antebrachiocarpal joint)

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63
Q

What are the 4 steps to an arthrodesis?

A
  1. Removal of all articular cartilage
  2. Functional anatomical alignment
  3. Bone graft
  4. Rigid fixation and compression
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64
Q

What might you see if a partial carpal arthrodesis over time?

A

Breakdown requiring pancarpal arthrodesis

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65
Q

What can you do for a mild collateral ligament injury?

A

Splint for 4 weeks

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66
Q

What is surgery for collateral ligament injury?

A

Ligament reconstruction

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67
Q

How do you treat acute flexor tendon laceration?

A

Splint in flexion for 6-8 weeks with passive ROM

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68
Q

What should you NOT do with carpal laxity syndrome?

A

Splint it

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69
Q

What are some managements of carpal laxity syndrome?

A

Appropriate diet and good footing

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70
Q

What is medical management of sesamoid disease?

A

Rest (4-6 weeks)
Pain management
Injections

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71
Q

What is surgical management of sesamoid disease?

A

Debridement

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72
Q

What is IMPA

A

Immune mediated polyarthropathy

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73
Q

What range of joints are most commonly affected by IMPA?

A

Distal joints

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73
Q

What is a less obvious sign of IMPA?

A

Fever of unknown origin with no obvious lameness or joint swelling yet

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74
Q

What does CBC of IMPA look like?

A

Non specific

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75
Q

How many stages of FUO (fever of unknown origin) diagnosis is there

A

3

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76
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis of IMPA?

A

Arthrocentesis (multiple joints)

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77
Q

What is the normal WBC count of joint fluid?

A

<3000

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78
Q

What percent is normally neutrophils?

A

<10%

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79
Q

What are the 4 subgroups of IMPA?

A

I - absence of defined association
II - association with infection
III - Associationed with GI disease
IV - associated with neoplasia

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80
Q

What is the most common subgroup for IMPA?

A

I

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81
Q

What is the most common cause of fever of unknown origin in dogs?

A

IMPA!!!

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82
Q

What is max amount of pred per day!!!???

A

2 mg/kg/day

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83
Q
A
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84
Q
A
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85
Q
A
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86
Q

What is treatment of IMPA?

A

Pred (try to keep under 1mg/kg/day

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87
Q

What are 4 potential side effects of pred?

A

Polyurea/polydipsia/polyphagia
Muscle atrophy
Insulin resistance
Be cautious with HCM cats

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88
Q

If you dont use pred, what is the other option that should be considered?

A

Cyclosporine

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89
Q

What is the best way to monitor signs of IMPA?

A

Rectal temps

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90
Q

What is another way to monitor IMPA from blood?

A

C reactive protein

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91
Q

Do cats get IMPA?

A

Yeah, rare

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92
Q

What are 3 times to apply a bandage?

A

Soft tissue injury
Bone and joint injury
Surgical wounds

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93
Q

What is the first layer of a bandage?

A

Primary layer

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94
Q

When do you skip the primary layer?

A

If no wound

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95
Q

What is the purpose of the secondary layer?

A

Absorb and hold exudate
Immobilize and support

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96
Q

Can you place the secondary layer too tight?

A

No, it will rip before it’s too tight

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97
Q

What is the tertiary layer?

A

Outer, protective layer

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98
Q

***What is the Robert Jones bandage used for?

A

Immobilization DISTAL to ELBOW or STIFLE

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99
Q

What is Robert Jones used for?

A

Short term immobilization

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100
Q

What bandage is most commonly used?

A

Modified Robert Jones

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101
Q

You can use Modified Robert Jones for post-op surgical wounds, orthopedic injuries, and open wounds

A
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102
Q

What 3 things does modified robert jones provide?

A

Compression
Mild immobilization
limb support

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103
Q

Which direction do you wrap with robert jones

A

Distal to proximal

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104
Q

Should you include toes in the badange?

A

Yes!

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105
Q

Where do you cast an animal/

A

Distal to elbow or stifle

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106
Q

What are the two types of fracturs where a cast is indicated?

A

Incomplete fractures
Fractures with intact adjacent bone

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107
Q

Should you ever cast proximal to stifle/elbow

A

no…

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108
Q

What type of fractures are contraindicated for cast?

A

Complete oblique, spiral, avulsion, or comminuted fractures

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109
Q

What breeds are not great for casting?

A

Toy breeds

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110
Q

How thick should the bandage under a cast be?

A

Not too thick, the closer the cast is, the more resistant to forces it can be

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111
Q

When should an Ehmer sling be used?

A

Post hip reduction/surgery

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112
Q

How do you apply the Ehmer sling?

A

Figure 8 patter (NEVER OVER TIBIA)

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113
Q

What is the splica splint used for?

A

Immbolization of scapula, shoulder, humerus, elobow

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114
Q

What must be ensured with the splica splint

A

Patient can still breath

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115
Q

What is the velpeau sling used for?

A

Prevent weight baring on thoracic limb

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116
Q

How are the joints oriented in velpeau sling/

A

Carpus, elbow, shoulder in flexed position

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117
Q

How often do bandages need changed?

A

Open wounds - daily
Closed incisions - 3-7 days

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118
Q

How often do casts/splints need changed?

A

10-14 days

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119
Q

Sorry… What 7 things must be monitored and warrant a bandage change?

A

Toe swelling
Toes cold
Irritation above bandage
slippage
wet bandage
Patient licking at bandage
change in limb usage

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120
Q

What are the 5 forces on a fracture?

A

Bending
Torsion
Tension
Compression
Shear

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121
Q

What is bending?

A

force in middle of bone

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122
Q

What is tension?

A

pull bone apart

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122
Q

What is torsion?

A

twisting of bone

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123
Q

What is compression?

A

Obvious (crushing at fracture site)

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124
Q

What is shear?

A

Compression on oblique fracture line

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125
Q

What type of force are splints and casts best at reducing?

A

Bending
(Bad at all others)

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126
Q

What is the rule of thumb for casts at joints?

A

Extend a joint above and a joint below fracture

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127
Q

What are IM pins?

A

Intramedullary pins

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128
Q

What is the only force that IM pins reduce?

A

Bending force

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129
Q

What are 2 modifications to increase IM pin strength?

A

Stack pinning (more than one pin)
Interlocking nails (put nails through pin)

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130
Q

What forces do external fixaters neutralize?

A

Compression
Torsion compression

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131
Q

What do lag screws provide?

A

Compression

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132
Q

How can you make a external fixater stronger?

A

“Transfixation pin cast”
Basically gets all forces

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133
Q

What do positional screws provide?

A

Maintain the position of the 2 fragments

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134
Q

What direction are lag screws?

A

Perpendicular to the fracture

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135
Q

When should you not use lag screws?

A

When there are multiple fragmented pieces

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136
Q

What is the cis and what is the trans side of the bone?

A

Cis is near, trans is far

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136
Q

What do lag screws provide?

A

Interfragmentary compression

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137
Q

What sides do the positional screw engage?

A

Both cis and trans

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138
Q

**PLATES ARE STRONGER IN TENSION THAN COMPRESSION

A
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139
Q

What is a dynamic compression plate?

A

Holes in plate have tapered edge that function as inclined plane

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140
Q

What are locking plates?

A

Screw heads lock into place

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141
Q

What do locking plates function as?

A

Internal fixators

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142
Q

What is a locking compression plate?

A

Can act as both

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143
Q

What is the weight baring axis of the pelvis?

A

Acetabulum
Ilium body
Sacroiliac joint

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144
Q

Sorry again… What are the 7 indications of surgical fixations of pelvis?

A

Fracture along the 3 weight baring parts of axis
Articular fracture (acetabulum)
>50% narrowing of pelvic canal
Neuro compromise (sciatic or femoral nerve)
Bilateral involvement
Multiple limb fractures
Intended use of animal

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145
Q

Repair of fracture becomes much harder after 5 days

A
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146
Q

How do you diangose SI fracture-luxation?

A

Should be able to follow one contiguous line along inside of ilium into sacrum

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147
Q

How do you do surgery on SI fracture-luxation?

A

Lag screw using largest possible

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148
Q

Other than a lag screw for SI fracture-luxation, what is another option?

A

Bolt - larger surgical approach

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149
Q

Do all SI fracture-luxations need to be surgically addressed?

A

No

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150
Q

Do ilial wing fractures need surgically addressed?

A

No

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151
Q

What is the lateral approach of an ilial body fracture called?

A

Gluteal rull up

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152
Q

What is most commonly used to surgically treat the ilial body fracture?

A

Bone plate

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153
Q

What are 3 options for acetabular fracture repair

A

Primary
Femoral head and neck ostectomy (FHO)
Conservative treatment

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154
Q

What is most common in acetabular fracture repair?

A

Plates

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155
Q

What are indications for FHO for acetabular repair?

A

Money
Highly comminuted
Heavy arthritis after surgery

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156
Q

What should you do if sciatic nerve is severed?

A

Consider amputation

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157
Q

Will ischial fractures normally repair on their own?

A

Yes

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158
Q

How do you repair a pubic fracture?

A

Commonly left untreated

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159
Q

What does conservative management look like?

A

Cage rest for 6-8 weeks
Controlled exercise on all 4 limbs
ANALGESIA

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160
Q

What is the indication for surgical repair in pelvis?

A

Along 3 weight baring points

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161
Q

What is special about toy breed radius and ulna fractures?

A

ALWAYS surgical!

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162
Q

Why are they always surgical?

A

Blood supply to distal radius compromised compared to large breed dogs

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163
Q

What is a good rule about fixation of bone plates?

A

6 proximally and distally

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164
Q

What is goal of compression plating?

A

Compression at fracture site to assure contact of bone fragments

Primary bone healing

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165
Q

What type of fracture is necessary for compression plating?

A

Transverse fractures

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166
Q

What is the goal of a neutralization plate?

A

Neutralize disruptive forces at the fracture site

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167
Q

Where do you find neutralization plates?

A

Where you find lag screws or wires

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168
Q

What is the goal of buttress plating?

A

Bear entire functional load (no load sharing)
Indicated in non-reconstructable long bone fractures, lots of comminuted zones.

Focus on preserving blood flow

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169
Q

Prolonged casting causes DJD

A
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170
Q

What is the timeline for surgery of articular fracture repair?

A

1-2 days

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171
Q

What makes the size of a bone screw?

A

Diameter of screw with threads

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172
Q

How do you put in a lag screw for 3.5mm?

A

You drill a 3.5mm hole in the cis side then a 2.5mm hole on trans side for it to pull together

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173
Q

What are the 4 steps to a lag screw?

A
  1. Drill
  2. Measure
  3. Tap
  4. Screw
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174
Q

Is inside-out or outside-in drilling more accurate? (aka medial-lateral)

A

Inside-out

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175
Q

What 2 things do you want to see alignment of before reducing medial condyle?

A

Anconeal process and semilunar notch

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176
Q

K wire is also used to help reduce chance of migrating distally or creating seroma

A
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177
Q

What approach should you take to the elbow?

A

Caudolateral

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178
Q

What are the 2 things used to repair the condyle?

A

Transcondylar lag screw and anti-rotational K-wire

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179
Q

What is a stifle derangement?

A

Disruption of multiple ligaments within the stifle

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180
Q

What is often affected within stifle derangements?

A

Menisci

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181
Q

What is more common, medial collateral or lateral collateral?

A

Medial collateral

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182
Q

What is the medial repair of collateral stifle derangement?

A

Locking loop suture

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183
Q

What is done before repair of stifle deraingements?

A

Debridement of torn meniscii

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184
Q

What is the lateral repair of collateral stifle derangement?

A

Prosthetic augmentation

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185
Q

What is proximal intertarsal luxation?

A

Disruption of plantar ligaments

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186
Q

How do you treat proximal intertarsal luxation?

A

Partial tarsal arthrodesis

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187
Q

What is recovery for partial tarsal arthrodesis?

A

Lateral splint for 2 weeks

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188
Q

What is recovery for superficial digital flexor tendon luxation?

A

Lateral splint 3-4 weeks

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189
Q

In hoof trimming, do you take more off the toe or the heal?

A

Toe!

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190
Q

How many inches should it be from coronary band to the toe tip?

A

3-4 inches

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191
Q

What leg is usually lame in the cow?

A

The hind limbs

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192
Q

What claw is usually lame in the hind limbs of a cow?

A

Lateral claw

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193
Q

How should the block be aligned on a cow claw?

A

The toe should be aligned with the front edge of the block

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194
Q

What is the treatment protocol for laminitis?

A

Analgesia
Cold water therapy
Corrective trimming

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195
Q

What must be done with a sole abscess to progress healing?

A

Remove all dead tissue down to healthy tissue

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196
Q

What is important to note about corkscrew claws?

A

Possible genetic component

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197
Q

What is treatment for corkscrew claw?

A

Corrective trimming

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198
Q

Normal anatomy is never achieved with corkscrew claws

A
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199
Q

What are teh 3 point blocks of corns?

A

Axially
Medially
Laterally

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199
Q

What is interdigital hyperplasia also known as?

A

Corn

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200
Q

Do you need to remove corns?

A

Not unless causing lameness

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201
Q

How to treat interdigital hyperplasia?

A

Wedge shaped incision
Peel working dorsal to palmar
Wire toes together
Place bandage

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201
Q

What is the technical term for footrot?

A

interdigital dermatitis

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202
Q

What is treatment of interdigital dermatitis?

A

Debride with betadine
Topical antibiotics

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203
Q

What is footrot called when it gets into the deeper layers?

A

Interdigital phlegmon

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204
Q

How is treatment different for interdigital phlegmon?

A

Need systemic antibiotics and introduce food bath

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205
Q

Give 4 antibiotics that are labeled for footrot

A

Excenel (ceftiofur)
Naxcel
Excede
LA 200 (oxytet)

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206
Q

What are 2 drugs that are labeled for beef cattle/non-lactating cattle

A

Nuflor
Draxxin

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207
Q

What is the medical name for hairy heel wart?

A

Digital dermatitis

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208
Q

What is treatment for digital dermatitis?

A

Tetracycline powder/paste
Systemic oxytet (LA 200)

Need footbaths and good biosecurity

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209
Q

What are likely involved in hairy heel wart cases?

A

Spirochetes

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210
Q

What is the block of the cattle foot?

A

Bier block

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211
Q

How does the bier block work?

A

Tourniquet and enter the dorsal common digital vein right on midlin

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212
Q

What is the salvage surgery for the digit?

A

Digit amputation

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213
Q

What si the restoration surgery for the digit?

A

Facilitated ankylosis

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214
Q

What is important to consider when amputating a digit?

A

Try not to have articular exposure

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214
Q

What is the disadvantage of digit amputation?

A

Usually reduction of production life

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215
Q

How do you approach for facilitated ankylosis/

A

Follow the draining tract

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216
Q

What should you expect up to 2 months after facilitated ankylosis?

A

Lameness for a while (need block for 2 months)

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217
Q

What is something really important to booster when you have a horse with a foot abscess?

A

Booster tetanus!

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218
Q

Other than tetanus, what is the treatment for a foot abscess?

A

Establish drainage
Soak foot to draw out fluid
Foot bandage
NSAIDs

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219
Q

What is a way to protect the sole other than bandaging?

A

A hospital plate (the metal plate thing)

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220
Q

Where does a hoof abscess usually come out?

A

At the coronary band

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221
Q

What are teh 3 potential causes of laminitis?

A

Endocrine laminitis (Cushings or equine metabolic)
Sepsis/endotoxemia
Supporting limb laminitis

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222
Q

Sorry… Give 6 treatments of laminitis

A

Address underlying cause
Remove standard shoe soon in treatment
Pain management
Give acepromazine for better digital blood flow
Ice the hoof
Put on therapeutic shoes

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223
Q

What is a crazy treatment for chronic laminitis?

A

Deep digital flexor tenotomy

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224
Q

What is type 1 of distal phalanx fracture?

A

Non articular, palmar process

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225
Q

What is type 2 of distal phalanx fracture?

A

Articular, palmar process

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226
Q

What is type 3 of distal phalanx fracture?

A

Sagittal, articular (down the middle)

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227
Q

What is type 4 of distal phalanx fracture?

A

Extensor process

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228
Q

What is type 5 of distal phalanx fracture?

A

Comminuted

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229
Q

What is treatment of P3 fractures?

A

Lag screw for II and III
Long term stall rest
Bar shoe

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230
Q

Where does bone growth occur?

A

Metaphyseal growth plate

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231
Q

What is varus?

A

Splayed legs (Knees out)

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232
Q

What is valgus?

A

“Knocking knees”

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233
Q

What does HPTE stand for?

A

Hemicircumferential periosteal transection and elevation

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234
Q

What does HPTE do?

A

Slows down growth on one limb to straighten deformity (must be done on growing animal)

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235
Q

How would you treat carpal valgus deformity?

A

Segmental distal ulnar ostectomy (remove bone so it grows out and straightens)

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236
Q

What does PCDUGP stand for?

A

Premature closure of distal ulnar growth plate

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237
Q

What is the #1 deformity in dogs?

A

PCDUGP

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238
Q

What does the dynamic proximal ulnar osteotomy not address?

A

Angular or torsional deformity

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239
Q

What is normal angle for femur?

A

4-6 degrees

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240
Q

What is the threshold for the femur?

A

15-20 degrees

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241
Q

How do you surgically correct femur angle?

A

TPLO jig

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242
Q

What is the C in LBCWO?

A

Closing

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243
Q

What is the O in LBOWO?

A

Opening

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244
Q

These are used for opening vs closing wedges (honestly can’t really tell the difference in pictures) Closing seems to be on the medial and opening seems to be on the lateral side tho!!

A
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245
Q

Is an opening or closing needed for varus?

A

Opening

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246
Q

Is an opening or closing needed for valgus?

A

Closing

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247
Q

What is distraction osteogenesis?

A

Mechanical induction of new bone formation between osteotomy surfaces that are gradually pulled apart

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248
Q

How often does it need to be pulled apart?

A

2x a day

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249
Q

What is type 1 salter harris?

A

Through physis

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250
Q

What is type 2 salter harris?

A

Through metaphysis

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251
Q

What is type 3 salter harris?

A

Through epiphysis

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252
Q

What is type 4 salter harris?

A

Through both

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253
Q

What is type 5 salter harris?

A

Compression of physis

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254
Q

What is something important to consider when repairing a Salter Harris fracture?

A

Avoid bridging physis with pins

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255
Q

What type of pins do you want across physis if needed?

A

Smooth fixation pins

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256
Q

What needs to occur during Salter Harris fractures?

A

Continuous movement

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257
Q

What do you need to be aware of with plates in growing patients?

A

May need to remove plate to allow for contiued growing

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258
Q

What is a synonym for DJD?

A

OA

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258
Q

What are teh 3 primary stabilizers of hip?

A

Ligament of head of femur
Joint capsule
Dorsal acetabular rim

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258
Q

What is the most common luxation?

A

Hip! 90% of luxations

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259
Q

What is the most common direction that the hip luxates?

A

Craniodorsal

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260
Q

Functional loss of 2 or more of these = luxation

A
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261
Q

What causes craniodorsal (and medial) to be so common?

A

Pull of the gluteal muscles

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262
Q

What is the characteristic stance that luxated hips have?

A

External rotation and adduction

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263
Q

What are the palpable landmarks for orthopedic exam?

A

Tuber ischia
Greater trochanter
Craniodorsal ilium

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264
Q

When should a closed reduction not be attempted?

A

Signs of severe hip dysplasia
Articular fractures
Avascular necrosis of femoral head
Chronic presentation

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265
Q

What does a closed reduction require

A

General anesthesia to relax muscles

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266
Q

How do you perform a closed reduction?

A

Lateral recumbancy
Externally rotate
Pull slightly caudally
Gentle internal rotation

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267
Q

What do you do immediately after you believe the hip is reduced?

A

Feel for landmarks

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268
Q

After you feel landmarks, what should you do?

A

Push on greater trochanter in medial direction for 5 min
Put limb through full range of movements to displace blood clots
Retake rads

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269
Q

For a ventral luxation, which direction do you pull to reduce it?

A

Distal traction
Abduction of limb

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270
Q

What is the point of an Ehmer sling after hip luxation?

A

Maximize acetabular coverage of femoral head

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271
Q

What is a way to help with ventral luxations after you send them home/

A

Hobbles (like cows)

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272
Q

What are 4 indications of open reduction?

A

Chronic luxation
Recurrent luxations after closed reduction
Severe instability of collateral ligaments
Bilateral coxofemoral luxations

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273
Q

What 2 things should you primarily base your decision on for open stabilization?

A

Presence of fractures, hip dysplasia or OA
Extent of cartilage injury

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274
Q

What is the most common approach for open stabilization?

A

Toggle-rod stabilization

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275
Q

What is toggle-rod stabilization?

A

Replace ligament of head of femur with a synthetic prosthesis

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276
Q

It looks like you drill through femur head and acetabulum to put a string through to act as teh ligament

A
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277
Q

If toggle rod does not work, what is natural next option?

A

THR (total hip) or FHO (femoral head)

278
Q

How do you perform closed reduction of elbow?

A

Medial pressure on olecranon
Then medial pressure on radial head
***Antebrachium is pronation with ADDuction with concurrent ABDuction of elbow

279
Q

Should watch a video on this

A
280
Q

What splint is used after elbow reduction?

A

Spica splint for 2-3 weeks

281
Q

What approach do you use for open reduction of elbow?

A

Lateral approach

282
Q

What type of dogs are most likely to have congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Larger dogs >5months

283
Q

What is a presentation of dogs with hip dysplasia?

A

Bunny hopping up stairs

284
Q

What is the most common way to treat congenital hip dysplasia?

A

Medical management (weight management, coequine, NSAID)

285
Q

What is the most common exasterbator of hip dysplasia?

A

Obesity

286
Q

What is the only surgical option for immature dogs that has been tested?

A

Triple / double pelvic osteotomy

287
Q

In an abduction/relocation test, what are the steps and what should you feel?

A

Abduction of the hips until you feel a click or a pop and then adduction

288
Q

**What is the angle of subluxation?

A

Angle between the femur and the median plane at which teh femoral head subluxated with adduction. (Angle where is pops out)

289
Q

**What is the angle of reduction?

A

It is the angle between the femur and the median plane at which teh femoral head reduces from abduction. “Angle at which it pops in”

290
Q

What does a loud vs quiet pop indicate during reduction?

A

Loud = more remodeling
Quiet = little remodeling

291
Q

What angles of reduction and subluxation make it a good candidate for triple pelvic osteotomy

A

Reduction <30
Subluxation <10

292
Q

What is the TPO dilemma?

A

Earliest surgery is the best but at the same time, waiting longer can also allow for spontaneous resolution

293
Q

What is Legg Calve Perthes disease?

A

Collapsing “sink hole” of femoral head

294
Q

Is LCP usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral

295
Q

What position can you usally best see LCP in?

A

Frog legged view

296
Q

What is chronic femoral capital physeal fracture related to?

A

Early neuter and obesity in male cats

297
Q

What is most common treatment of chronic femoral capital physeal fracture?

A

FHO

(Apple core disease)

298
Q

Where do septic (infectious) joints usually occur?

A

Proximal joints in large breed dogs

299
Q

What must be preserved in an FHO?

A

The lesser trochanter for insertion of ileal soleus muscle

299
Q

How much of the neck do you need to remove for the best outcome?

A

Remove as much of the next as possible without the lesser trochanter

300
Q

What is the saying for neoplasia in the limbs?

A

Away from the elbow, toward the knee

301
Q

Are sole abscesses usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Unilateral

302
Q

Is navicular disease usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Bilateral

303
Q

Are P3 fractures usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Unilateral

304
Q

Is laminitis usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Bilateral

305
Q

Are puncture wounds usually bilateral or unilateral?

A

Unilateral

306
Q

What is solar penetrating wound also called?

A

Street nail

307
Q

What are 3 things to consider with “street nail”

A

Coffin joint
Digital flexor
Navicular bursa

308
Q

What is first thing to approach a puncture wound to foot?

A

Evaluation and determine synovial involvement

309
Q

What is treatment of traumatic puncture wounds in hoof?

A

Debride + Systemic and local antimicrobials

309
Q

How long is controlled exercise for tendons?

A

6 months

310
Q

How long is controlled exercise for ligaments?

A

8 months

311
Q

What are top 3 treatments for tendon and ligament injuries?

A

Minimize inflammation (bandage / cold hose)
NSAIDs
Correct trimming

312
Q

Strict stall rest for 1-2 weeks!!

A
313
Q

What are 3 biologics for modulating tendon healing?

A
  1. PRP
  2. Bone marrow aspirate concentrate
  3. Cell based therapies
314
Q

What is navicular syndrome?

A

Kind of a catch all term for palmar heel pain with or without bony involvement

315
Q

Bone marrow aspirate was shown to significantly decrease reinjury rate in racehorses

A
316
Q

What is true navicular syndrome?

A

Bone involvement

317
Q

How do you have to diagnose navicular syndrome?

A

MRI is needed

318
Q

What are 3 oral NSAIDs for horses?

A

Bute, Equioxx, banamine

319
Q

Where can you put intrasynovial injections in hooves

A

Coffin joint
Navicular bursa

320
Q

3 treatments for navicular disease?

A

Corrective farriery
NSAIDs
Intra-synovial corticosteroids

321
Q

What is usually wanted in corrective farriery?

A

Shorten toe and grow heel

322
Q

What disease do racehorses usually get?

A

SDFT

323
Q

What is the most important tissue to protect?

A

SKIN!

324
Q

Why is skin the most important?

A

Reduced chance of infection with intact skin whne planning to repair fracture

325
Q

What are 4 REALLY important principles of fracture immobilization?

A

Immobilize joints proximal and distal to the injury
Never end a cast in the mid-diaphysis of a long bone
Never end a cast near the fracture line to be stabilized
When possible, include the foot in the coaptation

325
Q

Is more padding good?

A

No, more padding will decrease stabilization!

326
Q

Where do you apply a splint?

A

OVER bandage material

327
Q

Does it matter what you use as a splint construct?

A

Nope

328
Q

What is region 1 of horse splinting?

A

Distal limb

329
Q

What is a good splint to use in region 1?

A

Kimzey leg saver

330
Q

What is the downside to the Kimzey leg saver splint?

A

No side to side (medial lateral) stability

331
Q

Do you need emergency coaptation for P3 fractures?

A

No

332
Q

What is included in type 2 fracture?

A

Metacarpal/tarsakl

333
Q

What bandages are best in #2 region?

A

Robert Jones for metacarpal
Modified Robert Jones for carpal

334
Q

What is region 3 of coaptation?

A

Forearm and crus

335
Q

What is the further breakdown of 3?

A

3a - radius and tibia
3b - ulna

336
Q

What stability issue do you run into with the ulna/3b?

A

Passive stay apparatus

337
Q

What region cannot be stabilized with external coaptation?

A

Proximal limb (4)

337
Q

How should you treat an extensor tendon laceration?

A

Robert jones bandage

338
Q

How should you treat a flexor tendon laceration?

A

Like a region 1 fracture
Dorsal or plantar splint

338
Q

What structures are included in region 4?

A

Humerus
Scapula
Femur
Pelvis

339
Q

How should you treat a collateral ligament laceration?

A

Medial to lateral support as well as dorsal/palmar

340
Q

Which direction should you load a horse with a hindlimb fracture?

A

Forward

340
Q

What is the goal of adding a sedative/opioid to seizure control?

A

Reduce excitability and additional injury

341
Q

Which direction should you load a horse with a forelimb fracture?

A

Backwards

342
Q

What is LCC in equine brain injury?

A

L - localization
C- Characteristic
C - Cause

342
Q

What are the drugs used for longer term seizure control?

A

Barbiturates - phenobarbital
Levetiracetam (for foals)

343
Q

What 4 drugs will help control edema?

A

Hypertonic saline
Mannitol
Furosemide
NSAIDs

343
Q

What are the drugs used for immediate seizure control?

A

Benzos
Diazepam
Midazolam

344
Q

What are some sedatives that can be used to help control seizures?

A

Xylazine
Detomadine
Butorphanol

345
Q

What is the pathology of THO?

A

Articulation between stylohyoid and temporal bone causing facial and vestibular nerve dysfunction

345
Q

What are 2 additional drug types that can be added?

A

Antioxidants (Vit C, Vit E, Selenium, DMSO)
Antithrombotic (heparin, aminocaproic acid)

345
Q

What is initial treatment of THO?

A

Reduce inflammation (flunixin, DMSO, dex)

345
Q

What is needed to help cure THO?

A

Surgery - ceratohyoidectomy

346
Q

What is THO>

A

Temporohyoid osteoarthoropathy

347
Q

What s treatment of cerebellar abiotrophy?

A

None!

347
Q

What needs to be done about the eyes in THO?

A

Suture them shut - tarsorrhyaphy (even when no ulcers are present)

348
Q

What is cerebellar abiotrophy caused from?

A

Perkinje cells disappear (genetic)

349
Q

What breed gets idiopathic epilepsy the most?

A

Egyptian Arabian Foals

350
Q

What is NMS?

A

Neonatal maladjustment syndrome

351
Q

What causes sedative state of NMS?

A

High progesterone

352
Q

What is treatment of NMS?

A

Hydration
Energy
Protection

352
Q

Where does EPM come from?

A

Raccoons and possums

353
Q

What is parasite of EPM?

A

Sarcocystic neurona

353
Q

How long do you treat the EPM?

A

30-60 days

354
Q

What other medical support for EPM should you provide on top of primary?

A

Vit E + Se and DMSO

354
Q

What does a lesion at T3 - L2 cause?

A

Thoracic - Normal
Pelvic - UMN

354
Q

What are the only 2 FDA approved EPM treatments?

A

Ponazuril
Diclazuril

354
Q

What are 3 possible treatments for EPM?

A

Ponazuril
Diclazuril
Toltrazuril
(ReBalance)

355
Q

What causes wobblers?

A

Genetics
Fast growing (excessive feeding)
Low dietary copper and zinc

355
Q

What does a lesion at C6-T2 cause?

A

Thoracic - LMN
Pelvic - UMN

355
Q

What is cervicovertebral malformation also known as?

A

Wobblers

355
Q

What does a lesion at L3-S2 cause

A

Thoracic - Normal
Pelvic - LMN

355
Q

What is the intermittent version of wobblers called?

A

Cervicovertebral instability

355
Q

What is the continuous compression of wobblers called?

A

Cervicovertebral stenotic myelopathy

355
Q

What does a lesion at C1-C5 cause?

A

Thoracic - UMN
Pelvic - UMN

355
Q

What group of wobblers is surgery mostly indicated for?

A

Dynamic compression group (CVI)

356
Q

What does a lesion of LMN cause?

A

Decreased neuron activity

356
Q

What does a lesion of UMN cause?

A

Increased neuronal activity

356
Q

What is a long term treatment of wobblers?

A

Cervical articular facet injection with glucocorticoids
METHYLPREDINISOLONE

357
Q

What is treatment of acute wobblers?

A

NSAIDs
medical support
antioxidants (Vit E)

358
Q

How much does surgery reduce ataxia by?

A

1 grade - not a full cure

358
Q

What is conservative management in a foal?

A

Decrease calorie intake
Give shitty hay
No grain
Low success tho

359
Q

How do you treat edema associated with CNS trauma?

A

Diuretics, hypertonic solutions

360
Q

Where are UMN signs found in relation to the lesion?

A

Distal

361
Q

How do you treat oxidative injury?

A

Antioxidants like Vitamin E and C

362
Q

What are the 2 conditions associated with vitamin E deficiency?

A

equine motor neuron disease (EMND)
equine degenerative myelopathy (EDM)

362
Q

What are the 2 parasites that cause EPM?

A

Sarcocystis neurona (95%)
Neospora hughesi (5%)

363
Q

What can you do for EHM on top of palliative care?

A

Antivirals - valacylovir
Reduce inflammation - NSAIDs DMSO
Reduce coagulation/thrombosis - heparin
Apply biosecurity

364
Q

What is the neurologic version of EHV-1 called?

A

EHM - equine herpesvirus myelopathy

365
Q

What disease is associated with white matter?

A

Equine degenerative myelopathy

365
Q

What disease is associated with grey matter?

A

equine motor neuron disease

366
Q

What disease do you see urinary incontinence with?

A

EHM

366
Q

How do you treat equine motor neuron disease?

A

Vitamin E

367
Q

What does equine motor neuron disease cause?

A

weakness, no ataxia

367
Q

What does equine degenerative myelopathy?

A

ataxia, no muscle atrophy

368
Q

How do you treat EDM?

A

Just vitamin E

369
Q

When should you not use acepromazine as sedative?

A

In hemodynamically compromised patients - vasodilator

369
Q

Why do you need to be judiscious with pain management in equine trauma cases?

A

Dont want to encourage weight baring on unstable/broken limb

369
Q

When in doubt, how should you treat a horse injury?

A

Like a fracture

370
Q

What is indicated immediately for open fractures?

A

Antibiotics

370
Q

What should be a concern when there is damage or stretching to a neurovascular bundle?

A

Thrombosis

370
Q

How do you counteract thrombus formation?

A

Anti-thromotic agents

371
Q

What type of antibiotics should be used?

A

Broad spectrum

372
Q

What should be given with wound management?

A

Tetanus toxoid

373
Q

Do not anesthetize patients in the field to take radiographs if you plan to take them in anyway

A
374
Q

What is confinement time for conservative management of an incomplete or nondispalced fracture?

A

3-4 months

375
Q

What is the longer bone of the elbox?

A

Ulna

375
Q

What type of stabilzation is needed for a P3 fracture?

A

Not needed, within hoof is good enough

376
Q

How do you treat flexor tendon ruptures?

A

Treat like region 1 fractures

377
Q

Other than thiamin, what else needs to be acchomplished in polio?

A

Reduce cerebral edema

377
Q

What is the initial treatment for polioencephalomalacia?

A

Thiamin

378
Q

What drugs do you use to reduce cerebral edema?

A

Dex
Mannitol
Furosemide

379
Q

What is an additional concern in polio?

A

Seizure control

380
Q

What is a non-listeria cause of polio?

A

Lead poisoning

381
Q

What are the 2 treatments of listeria?

A

Antibiotics
Anti-inflammatory

381
Q

What antibiotics do you give for listeria?

A

Penecillin
Oxytet

382
Q

What anti-inflammatories can be given for listeria?

A

Banamine
Dex

383
Q

What is a sequela of listeria that should be considered?

A

Hard time closing eyes

384
Q

How do you treat meningeal worm?

A

Anthelmintic
Anti-inflammatory

385
Q

What anthelmintic do you use to treat meningeal worm?

A

Fenbendazole

386
Q

What anti-inflammatory is food for meningeal worm?

A

Dex
Banamine

387
Q

What are the 2 other animal hosts of meningeal worm?

A

Deer and slugs

388
Q

What is type I IVDD?

A

Extrusion

389
Q

Is a shotgun therapy ok for CNS diseases of farm animals?

A

Yes! - antibiotics, anti-inflammatories, thiamine, anthelmintics

390
Q

What is type II IVDD?

A

Protrusion

391
Q

What is extrusion?

A

Acute

392
Q

What is protrusion?

A

Chronic

392
Q

For extrusion, how can ambulatory dogs be managed?

A

Conservative management (NSAIDs)

393
Q

If paraplegic with disc extrusion, what is required?

A

Surgery ASAP

394
Q

What is the best diagnostic for IVDD?

A

MRI

394
Q

Are corticosteroids useful in acute IVDD?

A

No

395
Q

What is the conservative treatment for IVDE?

A

STRICT CONFINEMENT (at least 4 weeks)
NSAIDs

396
Q

Have steroids been shown to help with IVDE?

A

No but help with pain

397
Q

What percent of patients that undergo surgery recover?

A

95% (with intact nociception)

397
Q

What is known as Type III IVDD?

A

Acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion (ANNPE)

398
Q

What causes ANNPE?

A

Trauma or intense exercise
Basically a disc hits the spinal cord and bruises it

399
Q

Is ANNPE contusive or compressive?

A

CONTUSIVE (bruise)

400
Q

What is sometimes called type IV IVDD?

A

Hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion (HNPE)

400
Q

What is treatment of ANNPE?

A

Time and physical therapy (NOT SURGICAL)

401
Q

What is HNPE?

A

acute disc causing a fluid bubble

402
Q

How do you treat HNPE?

A

Usually medically, waiting

403
Q

What is FCEM?

A

Fibrocartilaginous embolic myelopathy

403
Q

What happens in FCEM?

A

Spinal cord infarct caused by a fragment of fibrocartilaginouis material

404
Q

What is progression of FCEM?

A

Acute and non progressive

405
Q

Is FCEM symetric or asymetric?

A

STRONGLY asymmetric

406
Q

Do FCEM patients have pain?

A

NO!!

406
Q

What is treatment of FCEM patients?

A

Supportive care, no steroids!

407
Q

What is an important first step in spinal trauma patient?

A

Fluid therapy

407
Q

Do you use steroids for spinal trauma?

A

No… doesnt help

408
Q

With spinal trauma, what do you want to give?

A

NSAIDs to reduce inflammation

409
Q

What is cage confinement of spinal trauma?

A

4-6 weeks

409
Q

Is external splinting an option for spinal trauma?

A

Yes

410
Q

What is the prognosis of spinal trauma patients with deep pain?

A

90% walk again with physical therapy (recovery can be long)

411
Q

What is prognosis without deep pain?

A

80-90% do not walk again! :(

412
Q

Is cauda equina (degenerative LS stenosis) technically a spinal disease?

A

No

412
Q

What is paraparesis?

A

Loss of motor function in the pelvic limbs

413
Q

Who gets IVDD II (IVDP) most often?

A

Large breed dogs

414
Q

Are IVDP patients usually ambulatory?

A

Yes

415
Q

What is conservative treatment for IVDP?

A

Anti inflammatories - steroids are actually very helpful here!

416
Q

**What is contra-indicated with IVDP?

A

Confinement!!

417
Q

Is surgical treatment for IVDP usually done?

A

No

418
Q

What are differences between treatment of IVDE vs IVDP?

A

IVDE: Acute, surgery ASAP, no steroids, confinement
IVDP: Chronic no surgery, steroids good, no confinement

419
Q

What is degenerative myelopathy?

A

Slow progressive disease causing non-painful ataxia

420
Q

What is the best treatment or degenerative myelopathy (DM)?

A

Daily exercise

420
Q

So far I can only think of one disease where steroids are helpful, IVDP. Maybe one other?

A
421
Q

Are steroids helpful for degenerative myelopathy?

A

No!

422
Q

What is DLS?

A

Degenerative lumbosacral stenosis

423
Q

What is DLS also known as?

A

Cauda equina

423
Q

Where is the protrusion of degenerative lumbosacaral stenosis?

A

L7-S1

424
Q

Does DLS cause paraplegia?

A

No

425
Q

Does DLS cause ataxia?

A

No

425
Q

Does DLS cause paraparesis?

A

Yes

426
Q

Can DLS be unilateral?

A

Usually is

427
Q

What is treatment of DLS?

A

Conservative: Exercise restricition (4-8weeks)
NSAIDs or steroids!

428
Q

If conservative treatment for DLS doesnt work, what is next?

A

Epidural steroids - methylpred acetate

429
Q

If epidural steroids for DLS doesnt work, whats next?

A

Surgical treatment

430
Q

What is treatment for spinal tumor?

A

Varies with type

431
Q

What is CSM?

A

Cervical spondylomyelopathy

431
Q

What is treatment for CSM?

A

Exercise restriction
Body harness instead
Steroids!
Physical therapy

432
Q

What is most common surgery for CSM?

A

Ventral slot

433
Q

What is nociceptive pain?

A

Damage to non-neural tissue (discospongylitis)

433
Q

What are the 3 main structures that cause spinal pain?

A

Meninges
Nerve roots
Vertebra

434
Q

Where is discospondylitis most common?

A

Lumbosacral

434
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

Lesion of disease of the nervous system

435
Q

Where is discospondylitis 2nd most common?

A

Thoracic

436
Q

What should you also test for when you are considering discospondylitis?

A

Brucellosis

437
Q

Why is discospondylitis so painful?

A

Infection of many different things (bone, muscle, meninges, nerve roots)

438
Q

How is disco treated?

A

With antibiotics

438
Q

How should you start treatment of disco?

A

Start with broad spectrum - Clavamox or cephalosporine

439
Q

How long do you need to treat with antibiotics?

A

2-3 months at least

440
Q

Is discospondylitis and spondylosis the same?

A

NO! -itis infection

441
Q

What is SRMA?

A

Steroid responsive meningitis-arteritis

441
Q

What does SRMA do?

A

Immune-mediated response against meninges and arteries

442
Q

What disease is the BBB disease?

A

SRMA

443
Q

When do dogs usually get SRMA?

A

6m-2years

443
Q

Do SRMA patients have pain/? Fever?

A

Yes yes

444
Q

How do you get definitive diagnosis of BBB?

A

Spinal tap

444
Q

What is treatment for SRMA?

A

Prednisone

445
Q

What is CLM-SM

A

Chiari-like malformation and syringomyelia

446
Q

What is the CLM-SM?

A

Overcrowding in the skull pushing the brain into the spinal space

446
Q

Who gets CLM-SM?

A

Cavalier King Charles

447
Q

What is allodynia?

A

Pain from stimulus not normally painful

448
Q

Do whip worms or barber pole worms cause more diarrhea?

A

Whip because they are further along in GI tract

448
Q

What can you give CLM-SM in severe cases to reduce CSF production?

A

Omeprazole

449
Q

What age patients get coccidia?

A

Younger patients

449
Q

Where is myelomalacia found mostly?

A

L4-L5

450
Q

When do progressive signs begin for myelomalacia?

A

at 24-48 hours

450
Q

What happens to produce a negative outcome for a myelomalacia patient?

A

Change in the cutoff of the cutaneous trunci reflex (cranial migration)

451
Q

“If they dont walk 3 months after IVDP surgery, they likely will never walk again”

A
452
Q

What is the outside part of a disc?

A

Anulus pulposus

453
Q

What is the center area of a disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus

454
Q

What is a good muscle relaxant for cervical IVDE?

A

Diazaepam

454
Q

What is treatment for cervical IVDE?

A

Bascically the same as normal IVDE

454
Q

As a GP with IVDE, what is our goal?

A

Refer as quickly as possible

455
Q

What is seen on MRI with FCE?

A

A bright spot at the lesion

456
Q

Who most commonly suffers from FCE?

A

Large breed dogs

456
Q

What is needed with FCE?

A

Just time to recover. Slow but usually works

457
Q

Is FCE painful?

A

No!

458
Q

Is FCE surgical?

A

Not usually

458
Q

***Is FCE asymmetic

A

YES!

459
Q

***Is ANNPE Bilateral??

A

NO! Asymmetric!

459
Q

What type of edema do steroids help? Not help?

A

Help: Chronic vasogenic edema
Not help: Acute cytotoxic edema

460
Q

What is the only way that CLM-SM is seen?

A

MRI

460
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in dogs?

A

L5

461
Q

Is there surgery for CLM-SM?

A

No

462
Q

“What is the best treatment”

A

Correct diagnosis

463
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the minengial layer

464
Q

What is myelitis?

A

Inflammation fo the spinal cord parenchyma

464
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain parenchyma

465
Q

What is leuko-

A

white

465
Q

What is polio-

A

grey

466
Q

What is -malacia?

A

Softening

466
Q

What does meningoencephalomyelitis mean?

A

Inflammation of the meninges, brain, and spinal cord

467
Q

Is infectious meningoecephalomyelitis more common in cats or dogs?

A

Cats

467
Q

What does MUO mean?

A

Meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin

468
Q

Does MUO fall under infectious or non-infectious?

A

Non-infectious

468
Q

What are the 3 disease of MUO?

A

GME = Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis
NLE = Necrotizing leukoencephalitis
NME = Necrotizing meningoencephalitis

(NLE + NME = NE (Necrotizing encephalitis))

469
Q

What are 4 diagnostics to run for inflammatory CNS disease?

A

Blood work
MRI
CSF tap
Infectious disease testing

469
Q

How do you differentiate between NLE, NME, and GME?

A

Need histo

470
Q

What 2 things are often elevated in CSF analysis for inflammatory disease?

A

Total nucleated cell count (TNCC)
Protein

471
Q

Are infectious organisms seen on CSF?

A

Rarely

472
Q

What type of cells are seen for fungal inflammatory disesaese?

A

Eosinophilic

473
Q

What type of cells are seen for bacteral or viral inflammatory diseases?

A

Neutrophils

474
Q

Does a nomral spinal tap rule out inflammatory cause?

A

NO!

474
Q

What type of meningoencephalitis is most common in dogs?

A

MUO

475
Q

What infectious forms are common in cats?

A

Dry FIP
FIV
FeLV

476
Q

What are MUO presumed to be?

A

Immune-mediated

476
Q

What breeds most often get MUO?

A

Small breeds (young or old)

477
Q

What is needed for histo to determine MUO?

A

Brain biopsy or post-mortem exam

477
Q

For infectious disease, what are some diagnostics to run?

A

Antibody titers/culture
Serume
CSF
Urine

478
Q

Should you stop treatment with antibitoics when the animal is feeling better?

A

No!

478
Q

What type of antibiotic must be given for cranial infectious etiologies?

A

Antibiotics that can cross the blood brain barrier

479
Q

What does the ideal antibiotic have for infectious causes?

A

Bactericidal!!! and Cross BBB

479
Q

MOST BE BACTERIACIDAL NOT STATE!

A
480
Q

When should you recheck CSF?

A

2 weeks beyond resolution of signs

481
Q

What is first choice of antibiotics?

A

Ampicillin/amoxicillin

481
Q

What should be given in addition to antibiotics for CNS bacterial infections?

A

Steroids (5 day course)

482
Q

What is the ideal drug for fungal diseases?

A

Fluconazole

482
Q

When does ampicillin/amoxicillin cross BBB?

A

When inflamed

483
Q

How long do antifungals need to be given?

A

Months to years

483
Q

What needs to be tested after treatment of CNS fungal?

A

CSF AND fungal titers

483
Q

What antifungal is used for aspergillus?

A

Voriconazole

484
Q

What is #1 fungal to enter the CNS?

A

Crytococcus

484
Q

What is the #1 viral CNS infection for dogs? cats?

A

Dogs - distemper
Cats - FIP

485
Q

What is #1 CNS protozoal infection?

A

dog - toxoplasma and neospora
cat - toxoplasma

486
Q

What is first choice against protozoal infections?

A

Clindamycin?

487
Q

What 2 things are good for infectious causes of CNS disease?

A

Anti-whatever
Steroid for a short corse (5-10days)

488
Q

How long to treat for protozoal infection?

A

At least 4 weeks

488
Q

How to treat for tick borne CNS infection?

A

Rare
Doxycycline

489
Q

What are 2 general principles for CNS treatment?

A

Early and aggressive and long term (relapse common)

489
Q

What is teh treatment for immune-mediated CNS disease?

A

Steroids

490
Q

How much more potent is dexamethasone than pred?

A

7-10x stronger

490
Q

How do you start steroid dosing?

A

Start with anti-inflammatory dosing then progress to immune suppression dosing once infectious etiology is ruled out

491
Q

How do you dose steroids?

A

Controlled taper - 20-30% every 3-4 weeks

491
Q

What are teh 3 types of edema?

A

Vasogenic
Cytotoxic
Interstitial

492
Q

What is vasogenic edema?

A

Extravascular accumulation of fluids - usually white matter - due to increased vascular permeability

492
Q

When is vasogenic edema usually encountered?

A

With tumors

493
Q

What is cytotoxic exema?

A

Cellular swelling due to intracranial accumulation of sodium and water

493
Q

When is cytotoxic edema usually encountered?

A

Seizures

494
Q

What is intersitial edema caused by?

A

Abnormal CSF flow

494
Q

What 4 things contribute to ICP?

A

Brain
CSF
Blood
Added stuff (tumors and shit)

495
Q

What is CPP

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure?\

495
Q

What is the equation for CPP?

A

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - ICP

496
Q

What is CBF?

A

Cerebral blood flow

496
Q

What is cerebral blood flow?

A

Volum eof blood that flows through the breain

497
Q

How is increased ICP related to CBF?

A

Increased if vasodilaiton occurs, increasing CBV (cerebral blood volume)

498
Q

What does the autoregulation of the brain do?

A

Homeostatic mechanism that limits cerebral hypoperfusion in systemic hypotension and edema in hypertension

499
Q

Basically an increase in one must have an equal decrease in another

A
499
Q

What is the range in which autoregulation is able to work within?

A

50mmHg - 150mmHg

500
Q

Is CSF production and flow affected by increase ICP?

A

Not really

501
Q

What percent does the dural sinus pressure contribute to ICP?

A

90%

501
Q

What is volume buffering?

A

Bascially the shift in something to make room for something else. This is usually CSF

501
Q

What percent does CSF outflow resistance contribute to ICP?

A

10%

501
Q

What is compliance?

A

Ability of that compartment to accomodate excess volume by shifting fluids within the compartment

502
Q

What is the Monro-Kellie doctrine?

A

The sum of volumes of brain, CSF, and intracranial blood in constant under normal physioligcal conditions

502
Q

What is the equation for compliance?

A

change in V / change in P

503
Q

What is the medical treatment for increased ICP?

A

Treat underlying cause first
Hyperosmatics (mannitol or saline)
Corticosteroids (anti-inflammatory)
seizure management
Diuretics

503
Q

In addition to diuresis, what else does mannitol help with?

A

reduces CSF production

503
Q

What is cushing reflex?

A

Catecholamines lead to a systemic hypertensive state (systemic vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output) detected by baroreceptors, which in response trigger a vagally mediated bradycardia

504
Q

At what point is the Cushing reflex triggered?

A

It is the last physiological defense mechanism for increased ICP

504
Q

How fast should you administer mannitol and why?

A

Slowly (15-20 min) or it will cause massive vasodilation

505
Q

What are 2 things that play into the brain’s buffering capacity?

A

Temporal lobe lesion is bad
Quick lesion expansion is bad

505
Q

How long does mannitol last?

A

Only 2-5 hours

506
Q

Is furosemide a long term solution?

A

No
Most of the medical options arent

507
Q

When should hypertonic saline be considered over mannitol?

A

If concurrent hypotension is also present

508
Q

What is death from a traumatic brain injury caused from?

A

Increase in ICP

509
Q

What is a primary injury of the head?

A

Associated with impact

509
Q

*** Passed a certain point, small changes in volume cause large changes in pressure (Increased ICP)

A
510
Q

What are some examples of primary head trauma that can be addressed by the surgeon?

A

Depressed skull
Hemorrhage
Hematoma

510
Q

What is a secondary injury of head trauma?

A

Sequelae fo primary injury

511
Q

Is intracranial hemorrhage common in pets?

A

Thought to be

512
Q

What are the ABCs of trauma patients

A

Airway
Breathing
Circulation

513
Q

What does MGCS stand for?

A

Modified Glascow Coma Scale

513
Q

What should be done to assess a trauma patient?

A

Neurologic exam
(specific attention to brainstem)

513
Q

Should you fluid restrict a shock patient?

A

NEVER!! Correct shock quickly

513
Q

What is teh #1 thing to pay attention to with polytrauma patients?

A

Respiratory complications

514
Q

/Is there evidence of steroids helping trauma patients

A

No!

514
Q

What are 4 indications for surgery?

A
  1. Unstable or depressed skull fracture
  2. Perforating wound to intracranial space
  3. Breach of barrier (head)
  4. Hemorrage not responding to medical management
514
Q

What is a metabolic cause of peripheral vestibular disease?

A

Hypothyroidism

514
Q

What are 4 steps to medical management of trauma patient?

A
  1. Mannitol
  2. Moderate hypothermia (inflammation)
  3. Oxygenate
  4. Elevate the head
514
Q

What are 3 total reasons for peripheral vestibular disease?

A

hypothyroidism
Otisis media/interna
Idiopathic

514
Q

What are 5 central causes of vestibular disease?

A

Neoplasia
MUO
Infectious
Toxin
Vascular

515
Q

What are the 3 parts to the modified glascow coma scale?

A

Motor activity
Brainstem reflex
Mental status

515
Q

Should advanced imaging almost always be on you diagnostic list?

A

Yes!

516
Q

What is the #1 treatment for vestibular disease?

A

Treat underlying disease

516
Q

For vestibular disease, what are the top 2 diagnostics whether its peripheral or central?

A

Blood work
Thyroid test

517
Q

What is the likely toxin cause of vestibular disease?

A

METRONIDAZOLE!

517
Q

What do you need after diagnosis of otitis?

A

Myringotomy - flushes and cultures fluid

517
Q

Making a list of supportive care options for vestibular disease

A

Antiemetic
Sedation if needed
Padding and recumbancy care
IV fluids
Rehab exercise

518
Q

What may need to be done for otitis in refractory cases?

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

518
Q

How long do you need to treat otitis with antibiotics?

A

At least 8 weeks, treat bone infection!

519
Q

What is the prognosis of immune mediated, infectious, and neoplastic?

A

Guarded/poor (the rest we talked about are good)

519
Q

How do you treat metronidazole toxicity?

A

Remove drug, recovery is 1-2 weeks
Diazepam too? not sure why

520
Q

What is paroxysmal dyskinesia?

A

Brief, recurring episodes of uncontrolled movements

520
Q

What are some therapeutic treatment trials for paroxysmal dyskinesia?

A

GLUTEN-FREE DIET
Keppra

520
Q

First step in treating paroxysmal dyskinesia?

A

Determine if it is a seizure or not
Determine if it needs to be treated
Determine triggers

521
Q

What do you need to avoid in grain free diets?

A

No wheat, barley, or rye
Avoid cross contamination
Need prescription diets

522
Q

Is gluten free the same thing as grain free?

A

No!

523
Q

How long before determine if there is a response to therapy?

A

4-8 weeks

523
Q

What should the owner keep with paroxysmal dyskinesia?

A

Episode log

524
Q

What are the 3 types of seizures?

A

Focal onset
Focal onset with secondary generalization
Generalized onset

525
Q

What is the most common type of seizure

A

Focal onset with secondary generalization

526
Q

sorry… what are 5 reasons to start a seizure med?

A

Status epilepticus or seizure clusters
Post-ictal complications
Identified structural cause
>2 seizures in 6 months
Worsening seizure frequency

527
Q

When should you increase ASM?

A

Seizures are not controlled

527
Q

Don’t adjust Anti seizure medicine (ASM) too fast. Pharmacokinetic (time to steady state)

A
528
Q

When should you add another ASM?

A

When first ASM is maxed out

528
Q

When should you decrease ASM?

A

Unacceptable and lasting side effects

529
Q

***What is a “terrible job” of monitoring epilepsy?

A

Side effects with no therapeutic improvement
No specific treatments of episodes of status epileptics or cluster seizures

529
Q

What drug is most effective, what drug is most safe?

A

Effective - pheno
Safest - keppra

530
Q

What is a specific interaction with KBr?

A

NaCl fluids!

530
Q

Where is pheno metabolized?

A

Liver

531
Q

Where is KBr metabolized?

A

Kidney

532
Q

What is time to steady state?

A

How long until dog is covered

533
Q

***What is the mechanism of action of benzos?

A

Potentiate action of GABA at receptors (pre and post Cl channels)

533
Q

What is the dosage of diazepam?

A

1mL/10kg

534
Q

What is mechanism of action of keppra?

A

binds to synaptic vesicle protein SV2A

535
Q

What is half life of keppra?

A

2-4 hours

536
Q

What is an important drug interaction of keppra?

A

Pheno

537
Q

What is mechanism of action of pheno?

A

Enhancement of post-synaptic neuronal responsiveness to GABA (opening of the Cl ion channel for longer time)

538
Q

**What is the time to steady state of pheno?

A

10-20 days

538
Q

Lots of side effects with pheno: Sedation, ataxia, polyphagia, PU/PD, hepatotoxicity

A
539
Q

Should you use propofol?

A

No!

540
Q

What is the time to steady state of bromide salts?

A

100-200 days!

541
Q

How are bromide salts excreted?

A

Unchanged in urine (***Something important about equilibrium with Cl and diet)

542
Q

Should you start with ketamine? Why?

A

No, ketamine can be a pro-convulsant

542
Q

What are the 5 steps to status epilepticus?

A

Step 0: Diazepam - IV
Step 1: Diazepam - IV up to 3 times + ABC
Step 2: Keppra up to 3 times
Step 3: Pheno
Step 4: Ketamine IV

543
Q

***What can be used instead of midazolam that lasts longer for cluster seizures (24-48hrs)

A

Clorazepate

543
Q

How long does midazolam stay effective for cluster seizures?

A

1 hour

544
Q

In terms of LMN signs, where would you find the lesion that causes it?

A

Cell body
Nerve
Neuromuscular junction
Muscle

544
Q

What does the acronym RATS stand for?

A

Reflexes
Atrophy
Tone
Stride

545
Q

What does neuropathy mean?

A

Disease of nerves

545
Q

With LMN signs, what are the RATS?

A

Reflexes - decreased to absent
Atrophy - severe/fast
Tone - decreased to absent
Stride - short and choppy

546
Q

With UMN signs, what are the RATS?

A

Reflexes - normal to increase
Atrophy - Mild/slow
Tone - Normal to increased
Stride - Long and lopey

547
Q

What does myopathy mean?

A

Disease of the muscle

547
Q

What does junctionopathy mean?

A

Disease of the junction

548
Q

What are teh 3 most likely DAMNIT schemes for acute generalized neuromusclar disease?

A

Inflammatory
Infectious
Toxin

548
Q

What are 3 extra things you should look for on LMN disease diagnosis?

A

Creatinine kinase (muscle injury)
Acetylcholine receptor antibody titers (myasthenia gravis)
Chest rads for megaesophagus

549
Q

What is an example of a junctionopathie?

A

Acquired myasthenia gravis

549
Q

What are 2 toxins that can cause neuromuscular disease?

A

Tick paralysis
Botulism

549
Q

What is acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis also known as?

A

Coonhound paralysis

550
Q

What is a common clinical sign of acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis?

A

Change in bark (dysphonia)
Rapidly progressing tetraparesis (ascending)

550
Q

What is a common history for coonhound paralysis?

A

Raw diet (chicken) and campylobacter infection

551
Q

How do you treat acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuritis?

A

Supportive care (give time for them to get better)
NO STEROIDS

552
Q

What is a pre-synaptic junctionopathy?

A

Disorder of ACh synthesis

552
Q

What is synaptic junctionopathy?

A

Disorder of acetylcholinesterase

553
Q

What is post-synaptic junctionopathy?

A

Disorder of Ach receptor

553
Q

Where does acquired myasthenia gravis act?

A

Post-synpatic - attacks receptors

554
Q

How long will coonhound paralysis take to get better?

A

At least 3-6 weeks, maybe 6 months

554
Q

What is number 1 clinical history of m. gravis?

A

fatigue

554
Q

What is the most severe version of m gravis?

A

Fulminant

554
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic for m gravis?

A

ACh receptor antibody titer

555
Q

What is the specific treatment for M gravis?

A

Anticholinesterase therapy - Pyridostigmine bromide

555
Q

How do you fead a patient with m gravis?

A

Bailey chair - during and 15 min after eating

556
Q

What do you need to be ready with when using anticholinesterase?

A

Atropine from side effects!
Must start low and titrate up

556
Q

What is the acronym for side effects for pyridostigmine?

A

SLUDD

S - salivation
L - lacrimation
U - Urination
D - Defecation
D - Dsypnea

557
Q

Where does botulism (C. botulinum C most common) come from?

A

Carcass or spoiled meat

557
Q

What is prognosis of fulminant cases due to aspiration pneumonia?

A

Grave

558
Q

What is a common clinical sign of botulism/

A

Fish mouth

558
Q

What is usually seen on radiographs?

A

Megaesophagus and ileus

559
Q

What is the mechanism of botulism?

A

Ach not released, blocked by neurotoxin

560
Q

What is treatment of tick paralysis?

A

Remove tick! Excellent prognosis

561
Q

What is treatment of botulism?

A

Supportive care and time

562
Q

What is most common type of polymyositis?

A

Immune-mediated polymyositis

563
Q

What is generalized polymyositis?

A

Inflammatory disease of muscles

564
Q

Are polymyositis cases usually painful?

A

No! just generalized weakness

High CK!

565
Q

What is treatment of immune mediated polymyositis?

A

Prednisone!

566
Q

What is important with client communication with all polyradiculoneuritis diseases?

A

Ensure them that it will take time, megaesophagus is unlikely to resolve, M gravis treatment is a moving target and may need to change over time, risk of relapse

567
Q

Congrats, youre done!

A