Case 20- Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Consciousness

A

Awareness of self (internal) and surrounding (external) with the ability to react to these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Reduced or altered consciousness

A

Partial or complete loss of awareness of self and surroundings and/or your ability to respond to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Loss of consciousness

A

Suggests a global dysfunction of the brain (other than sleep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does consciousness require

A
  • Wakefulness- a state in which the eyes are open and there is a degree of motor arousal/response i.e. spontaneous movement, reflexes such as coughing
  • Awareness- the ability to have an experience of any kind. Knowledge and understanding of things happening. Complex though processes. Hard to test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Disorders of consciousness

A
  1. Coma- absent wakefulness and awareness. Unrousable responsiveness lasts >6 hours.
  2. Vegetative state- wakefulness but absent awareness
  3. Minimally conscious state- wakefulness with minimal awareness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Criteria for a coma

A
  • Cannot be awakened
  • Lacks a normal sleep-wake cycle
  • Fails to respond normally to painful stimuli, light or sound
  • Does not initiate voluntary actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Criteria for vegetative state

A
  • The patient has no awareness- no recognition of self or environment
  • But shows signs of being awake- Spontaneous or stimulus induced response, sleep wake cycle, reflex behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Criteria for minimally conscious state

A
  • Minimal or inconsistent awareness
  • May enter this state after being in a coma or vegetative state
  • Behavioural evidence of self or environmental awareness is demonstrated
  • May have periods where they communicate or follow small commands i.e. moving hand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other conditions that mimic a coma

A
  • Locked in syndrome- fully conscious aware and alert but paralysed. Can see, hear, feel pain. Often eyes are unaffected so can communicate using movement of eyes and eyelids. Caused by occlusion of the basilar artery
  • Brainstem death- loss of brainstem function and reflexes. Spontaneous respiratory effort in response to rising carbon dioxide levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reticular formation

A

A complex matrix of neurons that extend throughout the brainstem. They have widespread projections into the cerebral hemispheres and spinal cord. Some aspects have well defined nuclei. Some portions are more dispersed but can be grouped together by function i.e. the respiratory and cardiac centres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The different projections of the reticular formation

A
  • Ascending projections for arousal and attention
  • Intrinsic connections for control of eye movement, swallowing and brainstem reflexes
  • Descending projections for control of muscle tone, respiration and arterial pressure. Such as the rubrospinal nucleus or the red nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Reticular formation- Afferent connection (inputs)

A
  • Input to the reticular formation comes from all parts of the CNS
  • For example, Cerebral cortex, Spinal cord, Anterolateral system, Cerebellum, Cranial nerves (V, VII, VIII, IX, X), Forebrain centres motor and visceral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reticular formation- Efferent (outputs)

A
  • The RF has connections to visually all other nuclei in the brainstem
  • Descending fibres project to the spinal cord
  • Ascending fibres influence widespread areas of the cerebral cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Basic functions of the reticular formation

A
  • Sleep and consciousness- reticular activating system
  • Somatic motor control- balance posture
  • Cardiovascular control- respiratory centres
  • Pain modulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The 4 groups of nuclei which form the major part of the ascending activating system

A
  • Locus Coeruleus
  • Raphe nucleus
  • Ventral tegmental area
  • Basal forebrain (Nucleus of Meynert)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Noradrenaline

A

1) The locus coeruleus nuclei are found in the lateral tegmentum of the pons and medulla.
2) It functions in attention, cortical arousal, sleep-wake cycle, learning and memory, mood.
3) Noradrenaline starts in the locus coeruleus and terminate in the cortex also goes towards the limbic system and Hypothalamus.
4) The locus coeruleus is part of the reticular activating system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Serotonin

A

1) The raphe nucleus throughout the brainstem. It functions in sleep-wake, control of mood, certain types of emotional behaviour i.e. aggression, association with modulation of slow pain (descending pathways).
2) Low levels associated with depression. SSRI’s prevent reuptake. Goes towards the cerebellum and cortex, links to limbic system and hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dopamine pathways- Mesolimbic and Mesocortical

A

Ventral Tegmental area of brainstem. Mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways linked with reward behaviour, attention and mood. Goes towards the limbic system and deep brain nuclei i.e. the nuclear accumbens which is involved with the reward pathway. Goes towards the frontal areas of the cortex which is associated with attention and the desire to do things. Also goes towards the Hippocampus, frontal lobe and Amygdala.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Pontomesencephalic (brainstem) and nuclei located at the basal forebrain. It functions in memory and learning, arousal. Degeneration neurones that use acetylcholine as their transmitter is thought to be linked to Alzheimer’s. AChE inhibitor inhibits reuptake. Goes towards the limbic system, cortex and hypothalamus. Involves the Forebrain basal nuclei and the Dorsolateral pons/tegenum goes outwards the cerebellum and down the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Centres and nuclei associated with sleep

A

Rem sleep is primarily regulated by centres in the pontine reticular formation. Involved are the Locus ceruleus, Dorsolateral pontine R.F, Raphe nucleus which feed into the Hypothalamus to regulate the sleep wake cycle. Connections from the pontine reticular formation to the spinal cord are essential to prevent the ‘acting out’ of dreams. They inhibit the lower motor neurones (paralysing you).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Descending motor effects of reticular formation- medial/lateral

A
  • Medial (pontine) reticulospinal tract- enhances antigravity reflexes of the spinal cord, helps maintain a standing posture by resisting the effects of gravity
  • Lateral (medullary) reticulospinal tract- liberates antigravity muscles from reflex control
  • Go down the spinal cord, have alpha and gamma motor neurones
  • Collectively the reticulospinal fibres modulate muscle tone, regulate posture and participate in automatic reflexes involving the extensor muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Structure of the reticular formation

A

1) The reticular formation is in the brainstem.
2) Neurones project to the cortex and spinal cord.
3) The descending motor pathways are involved in balance and equilibrium.
4) The Ascending pathways is the reticular activating system.
5) Functions to influence mood, learning and memory and arousal.
6) The ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) is a network of neurons originating in the tegmentum of the upper pons and midbrain, believed to be integral to inducing and maintaining alertness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

GCS- Eye opening

A

Open before stimulus (Spontaneous)- 4
After spoken or shouted request (To sound)- 3
After finger tip stimulus (To pressure)- 2
No opening at any time (none)- 1

24
Q

GCS- Verbal response

A

Correctly gives name, place and date (orientated)- 5
Non orientated but communicating coherently (confused)- 4
Intelligible single words (words)- 3
Only moans/groans (sounds)- 2
No audible response- 1

25
Q

GCS- motor response

A

Obey 2 part request (obeys commands)- 6
Brings hand above clavicle to stimulus on head/neck (localising)- 5
Bends arm at elbow rapidly but features are predominantly abnormal (normal flexion)- 4
Bends arm at elbow, features clearly predominantly abnormal (abnormal flexion)- 3
Extends arm at elbow (extension)- 2
No movement in arms/legs (none)- 1

26
Q

The lowest GCS score

A

The lowest GCS score you can get is 3 not 0. A completely awake, orientated and normal person is 15. E4, V5, M6.

27
Q

Special circumstances with GCS

A

Tracheal incubation and severe facial/eye swelling or damage make it impossible to test the verbal and eye response. In these circumstances the score is given as 1 with a modifier attached i.e. E1c where c=closed or V1t where t=tube.

28
Q

The factors which increase the risk of depression after stroke

A
  • Pre-existing mental illness
  • Being female
  • Previous traumatic brain injury
  • Living alone
  • Previous neuromuscular disorders such as Parkinson’s disease.
29
Q

Speech production- breathing

A

During speech exhalation time increases the volume of air inhaled does not change

30
Q

Phonation

A

Phonation occurs due to the laryngeal muscles, it requires adduction of the vocal folds so they are within the airstream generated in the respiratory phase. The vocal folds are under tension. Vibration along the vocal folds allow for sound production.

31
Q

Adductors of the vocal folds

A
  • Lateral cricoarytenoids
  • Transverse arytenoid
  • Oblique arytenoids
32
Q

Producing pitch

A

Varying the length, tension, and thickness of the vocal folds can give us adjustments in pitch due to their effect on the frequency of vocal fold vibration. If the vibration frequency increases it raises the pitch of the sound.

33
Q

Muscles involved in changing tension in the vocal folds

A

It is the cricothyroid, thyroarytenoid and vocalis (medial part) muscles that allow for these changes.
• The cricothyroid acts to lengthen and tense the folds reducing their thickness.
• The thyroarytenoid and vocalis shorten, thicken, and reduce the tension in the folds.

34
Q

Sound production in the larynx

A

Sound is produced in the larynx. The larynx contains the vocal folds, the gap in between is the glottis. Tension on the vocal folds can open and close the glottis. Sounds can be made when the vocal folds are open or vibrating

35
Q

Vocalisation and articulation

A

Vocalisation: the sound made by the vibration of vocal folds modified by the resonance of the vocal tract.
Articulation: using the speech sounds for intelligible and meaningful speech via the movement and positioning of the lips, soft palate, tongue, teeth, alveolar ridge, and hard palate.

36
Q

The stages of speech production

A
  1. Respiration
  2. Phonation- produced by the larynx
  3. Resonance and articulation- sound is shaped by the oral and nasal cavity
37
Q

Resonance

A

The transfer of sound/airflow produced by the vocal cords to the: Pharyngeal cavity, Oral cavity, Nasal cavity. The sound bounces of the walls and is amplified

38
Q

Where airflow is directed to in sound production

A

Within the English language, the majority of the airflow is directed to the oral cavity. It is only when making the sounds ‘m’, ‘n’, or ‘ng’ that we use the nasal cavity. The airflow is directed to the oral cavity via the elevation of the soft palate.

39
Q

Active articulators

A

Active articulators are structures that move to allow speech to occur. They include the:
• Lips- opening, shape, and position
• Soft palate- elevation or depression
• Tongue- shape, and position

40
Q

Passive articulators

A

Passive articulators do not move but instead provide a fixed point for other structures to move against. They include the:
• Teeth
• Alveolar ridge
• Hard palate

41
Q

Inhibitory activity in the CNS is predominantly mediated via

A

GABA

Excitatory- Glutamate

42
Q

Withdrawal (flexion) reflex

A

1) Stimulus is detected by sensory neurones (A-delta)
2) Signal goes to the dorsal part of the spinal cord and synapses in the grey matter onto interneurones.
3) The information diverges onto multiple interneurones
4) The internaurones connect to the Alpha motorneurones (lower motorneurones)
5) This innervates the flexor muscles which contract removing your body from the stimulus
6) Also synapses onto an inhibitory interneurones which inhibits the extensor muscles
These reflexes govern muscle fibres

43
Q

Crossed extension reflex

A

Goes to the other side of the spinal cord. If you are removing your right leg from stimulus you will need to contract your left leg so that it can support you

1) Sensory neurone detects painful stimulus which connects to an interneuron which crosses over i.e. from right to left side
2) Connects to alpha motorneurone which causes excitation of extensor muscles and inhibitory interneurons which inhibit the flexors

44
Q

Purpose of withdrawal and crossed extension reflexes

A

Withdrawal reflex- remove body from painful stimulus

Crossed extension reflex- compensates, enhances postural support

45
Q

Stretch reflex

A

Alpha motor neurone detects stretch. Connects to an interneurone which connects to the Ia sensory fibre which connects to the muscle spindle which detects the degree of stretch in the Homonymous muscle

46
Q

Gamma neurone and tome

A

Muscle spindles receive signals from gamma motor neurones to maintain the same length as the muscle fibre so they can accurately measure stretch. Will also cause the muscle by alpha motor neurones to contract so it can maintain the load. Both muscle spindle and muscle will contract to the same degree. The Ia sensory nerve fibre then returns to tonic firing

47
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

1) Involved in proprioception
2) Present at junction muscle/tendon
3) Each organ is related to sensory Ib fibres (slightly small than Ia)

48
Q

Recurrent inhibition

A

When the Alpha motor neurone contracts it sends a signal to the Renshaw cell which then inhibits the Alpha motor neurone. So the alpha motor neurone inhibits itself and other alpha motor neurones nearby.

49
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

As sensory information comes in it will excite the agonists and inhibit the antagonists

50
Q

Presynaptic inhibition

A

An inhibitory interneurone synapses onto another interneurone preventing it from sending its message to the alpha motorneurone. The most powerful type of inhibition

51
Q

Components of lipoproteins

A

1) Exchangeable apolipoproteins- on the surface
2) Phospholipids- on the outside
3) Triglycerides- in the core
4) Cholesterol esters- in the core
5) Free cholesterol- on the surface
6) Apolipoprotein B100

52
Q

The Lipoprotein family in order of descending density

A

1) HDL- majority protein, then phospholipid, cholesterol and TG
2) LDL- majority cholesterol, then phospholipid, protein and TG
3) IDL- majority TG and cholesterol, then phospholipid and protein
4) VLDL
5) Chylomicron- majority TG, then phospholipid, protein and cholesterol

53
Q

Apolipoprotein summary

A

1) Cholesterol and triglycerides are transported in lipoproteins
2) Apolipoproteins govern lipoprotein metabolism
3) ApoB is the major apolipoprotein of VLDL, IDL and LDL
4) ApoB48 is found only in lipoproteins of intestinal origin
5) ApoA1 is the major apolipoprotein of HDL
6) Apolipoproteins A,C and E move between HDL and TRLs

54
Q

Lipoproteins and the exogenous pathway

A

C2 and A5- promotes lipoprotein lipase
C3- inhibits lipoprotein lipase
B48 and E- structural

55
Q

LPL and TG delivery to tissues

A

The TG is broken down by lipoprotein lipase to form a fatty acid which can wither go into storage or be oxidised for energy. The fatty acids go to the liver for TG and VLDL synthesis