Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

Give 4 or more differentials for a patient presenting with suspected ACS.

A
  1. Pericarditis
  2. Stable angina
  3. Myocarditis
  4. Aortic dissection
  5. PE
  6. Pneumothorax
  7. GORD
  8. Oesophageal spasm
  9. Musculoskeletal pain
  10. Pancreatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can cause raised cardiac enzymes other than an MI?

A
  1. Pericaridits
  2. Myocarditis
  3. PE
  4. Ventricular strain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give 3 or more complications of MI.

A
  1. Cardiac arrest
  2. Cardiogenic shock
  3. Bradyarrhythmias
  4. Tachyarrhythmias
  5. Left ventricular aneurysm
  6. Systemic emboli
  7. Ventricular failure
  8. Pericarditis
  9. Cardiac tamponade
  10. Dressler’s syndrome- recurrent pericarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Angina, syncope and heart failure are features of which valvular disease?

Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Wide pulse pressure, collapsing pulse and a displaced hyperdynamic apex beat are features of which valvular disease?

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Right ventricular heave, tapping non displaced apex beat and malar flush are features of which valvular disease?

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis

A

Mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dyspnoea, palpitations and fatigue are symptoms of which valvular disease?

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dyspnoea, orthopnoea and PND are symptoms of which valvular disease?

Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the leading cause of aortic stenosis?

Can you name any other causes?

A

Leading cause= degeneration (calcification)

Others:

  1. Rheumatic fever
  2. Congenital bicuspid valve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the leading cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following tests should be offered to a patient after they have been diagnosed with hypertension?

  1. Urine ACR, HbA1c, cholesterol, fundoscopy and 12 lead ECG
  2. Urine ACR, HbA1c, cholesterol, and Echo
  3. HbA1c, cholesterol, fundoscopy and 24 hour ECG
A
  1. Urine ACR, HbA1c, cholesterol, fundoscopy and 12 lead ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stage 1 hypertension is…

  1. Clinic BP >140/90 and ABPM >135/90
  2. Clinic BP >150/90 and ABPM >135/85
  3. Clinic BP >140/90 and ABPM >135/85
A
  1. Clinic BP >140/90 and ABPM >135/85
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stage 2 hypertension is…

  1. Clinic BP >160/100 and ABPM >150/95
  2. Clinic BP >150/90 and ABPM >135/85
  3. Clinic BP >160/100 and ABPM >150/90
A
  1. Clinic BP >160/100 and ABPM >150/95
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

State 4 or more causes of secondary hypertension.

A
  1. Intrinsic renal disease- glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease
  2. Renovascular disease- renal artery stenosis, fibromuscular dysplasia
  3. Endocrine disorders- Cushing’s disease, Primary aldosteronism (Conn’s), Phaeochromocytoma, Hyperparathyroidism, Acromegaly, Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
  4. Others- Oral contraceptive pill, NSAIDs, steroids, MAOIs, pregnancy, aortic coarctation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which antiplatelet therapy is recommended for patients who have had a TIA?

  1. Modified release Dipyramidole plus Aspirin
  2. Clopidogrel
  3. Aspirin
A
  1. Modified release Dipyramidole plus Aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 3 or more causes of Atrial Fibrillation.

A
  1. Heart failure
  2. Post MI/ IHD
  3. Thyrotoxicosis
  4. Obesity
  5. Alcohol
  6. Post operative
  7. Hypokalaemia
  8. Hypertension
  9. PE
  10. Caffiene
  11. Mitral valve disease
17
Q

Which drugs are 1st line for rate control in AF?

  1. ACE-I and Beta blocker
  2. Beta blocker OR Rate limiting CCB
  3. Beta blocker AND Rate limiting CCB
A
  1. Beta blocker OR Rate limiting CCB
18
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for “Torsades de point” arrhythmia that is not self limiting?

  1. IV Magnesium sulfate
  2. Permanent pacemaker
  3. Adenosine
A
  1. IV Magnesium sulfate
19
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for Ventricular Tachycardia?

  1. IV Magnesium sulfate
  2. Permanent pacemaker
  3. Urgent DC Cardioversion
A
  1. Urgent DC Cardioversion

If this fails-
Amiodarone
ICD long term
Drugs long term- Beta blockers, Amiodarone

20
Q

A patient presents with sudden onset palpitations. Their ECG shows a tachycardia with narrow QRS complexes, and it is difficult to see the P waves. What rhythm is this most likely to be?

  1. Mobitz Type 2 Heart Block
  2. SVT
  3. Ventricular tachycardia
A
  1. SVT

Medicine (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions