Cardiology Flashcards
1
Q
What is an increase in heart contractility called
A
positive inotropy
2
Q
What an increase in heart rate called
A
positive chronotropic
tachycardia
3
Q
with long term low blood pressure (low renal blood flow), the RAAS system is activated. What are the components of this
A
RAAS is renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system.
Kidney
angiotensin constricts blood vessels
- veins increase return
- artery increase pressure
aldosterone retains Na+ (water)
4
Q
Which 3 characteristics of the pulse are considered in a physical examination?
A
rate
rhythm
quality
5
Q
What age of animal is more likely to have aortic stenosis
A
Young-congenital
6
Q
What do inotropes do
A
increase heart contractility
7
Q
What are the 2 most common acquired cardiac conditions in dogs
A
myxomatous atrioventricular valvular degeneration (endocardiosis)
dilated cardiomyopathy
8
Q
Which cardiac condition is most common in large breed dogs
A
dilated cardiomyopathy is more common in LB dogs
9
Q
what cardiac condition is more common in small breed dogs
A
Myxomatous atrioventricular valvular degeneration is most common in SB dogs
10
Q
What breed of dog is especially know for Myxomatous atrioventricular valvular degeneration
A
King Charles Spaniels
11
Q
what is the common presenting complaint of dogs with left
congestive heart failure (CHF).
A
a chronic productive cough
12
Q
Differential diagnoses for dyspnea (8)
A
abdominal masses,
diaphragmatic rupture,
fractured ribs,
pleural effusions and
pneumothorax,
pneumonia/
pulmonary neoplasia,
tracheal foreign bodies
13
Q
Differential diagnosis for syncope (7)
A
heart failure,
arrhythmias,
stenoses,
low BP,
drugs,
hypoglycemia
vasovagal
14
Q
differential diagnosis for ascites (3)
A
right CHF
liver disease,
hypoalbuminemia
15
Q
hyperthyroidism causes what cardiac condition in cats
A
myocardial hypertrophy in cats
16
Q
Most common heart problem in cats
A
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
17
Q
differential diagnosis for bradycardia
A
sleep
excessive parasympathetic tone
diseases of the conduction system of the heart
18
Q
the differential diagnosis for tachycardia
A
heart failure,
fear
excitement,
exercise,
pain
elevated temperature
19
Q
The three things assessed during cardiac auscultation are rate, rhythm, and quality
What is rhythm as it relates to the heart
A
time intervals between pulses
20
Q
three things assessed with cardiac auscultation are rate, rhythm, and quality.
what are the 4 abnormal pulse qualities
A
hyperkinetic
hypokinetic
water hammer
alternating
21
Q
2 non-cardiac differentials for hyperkinetic pulse
A
exercise
anemia
22
Q
4 differentials for hypokinetic pulse
A
dilated cardiomyopathy
shock
aortic stenosis
pericardial effusion
23
Q
conditions with decreased (hypokinetic) left ventricle
A
dilated cardiomyopathy
shock
aortic stenosis
pericardial perfusion
24
Q
What are the 4 abnormal characteristics that can be described with mucous membranes
A
pale
cyanotic
brick red
delayed CRT
25
what are the 3 causes for pale mucous membranes
fear
left heart failure
shock
26
what are the 2 causes for cyanotic mucous membranes
Right-to-left shunt
severe left heart failure
27
what is the cause of brick red mucous membranes
erythrocytosis
28
what the causes of delayed CRT
decreased left ventricular output
peripheral vasoconstriction (fright, shock)
29
what causes the apical beat
counter-clockwise twist of the heart against the chest wall
30
what causes the apical beat to shift cranially
- tumors,
- abscesses
- hernias
in the caudal thorax
31
what causes the apical beat to shift caudally
enlarged thymus;
enlarged presternal lymph nodes
abscesses
cardiac enlargement.
32
How does cardiac enlargement shift the apical beat
The apical beat is shifted cranially
33
What causes are there for increased strength of apical beat
increased strength of apical beat
young and thin animals
anemia,
pyrexia,
excitement,
fear,
pain,
hyperthyroidism,
shunts
cardiac enlargement
34
What causes are there for decreased strength of apical beat
weak apical beat
shock,
heart failure,
obesity,
emphysema or
tumors of the lungs,
diaphragmatic hernias
pleural effusions
pericardial effusion
35
What causes the normal heart sounds
Heart sounds come about as a result of valve movements and/or turbulence in blood flow
36
What causes sound 1 during auscultation
Closure of the AV valves causes sound 1
37
Where is sound one best heard during auscultation
at the apical beat- closure of AV valves
38
Where is sound two best heard
is best heard over the aortic and pulmonary valves.
39
it is abnormal to hear S3 in the dog and cat. What causes it in small animals
S3 occurs as a result of rapid passive filling of a massively enlarged left ventricular (turbulence)
40
Sound four is not normally heard in small animals. what disease causes the atria closure to be heard
S4 is from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (decreased ventricular compliance
41
What causes a gallop heart sound
The presence of an extra heart sound results in a gallop rhythm
42
What causes a split S1 in cardiac auscultation
A split S1 occurs as a result of the left and right AV valves closing at different times
43
What are the causes for the AV valves to close at different times
Causes for split S1
- disturbances in AV conduction,
- increased pulmonary arterial pressure,
44
what heart sounds are heard with a protodiastolic gallop
a protodiastolic gallop
S1, S2, S3
45
What heart sounds are heard with a presystolic gallop
presystolic gallop
S4, S1, S2
46
What causes a split S2
A split S2 occurs as a result of the aortic and pulmonary valves closing at different times
47
systemic or pulmonary hypertension cause what heart sound
Split S2- aortic and pulmonary valves closing at different times
48
What causes a systolic click
chordae tendinae snap tight as the degenerative mitral valve protrudes into the left atrium
49
What is an early sign of mitral valve degeneration
systolic click
50
Which valve is the mitral
Left AV is the mitral valve
51
what pathology is associated with a split S2 from the heart
Pulmonary hypertension
Severe heartworm disease
52
What should be assessed during cardiac auscultation
Cardiac auscultation-
frequency,
intensity,
rhythm,
murmurs
53
what causes murmurs
audible vibrations produced by turbulent blood flow
54
does an increase or decrease in blood viscosity cause a murmur
decreased viscosity (thin blood) causes more turbulence- murmur
55
diastolic murmurs are very rare, what causes them
aortic or pulmonic valve insufficiency
56
What causes a washing machine, machine or to-and-fro murmur
merging of systolic and diastolic continuous murmurs
57
which valve is the mitral
Left AV
58
which valve is the tricuspid
Right AV
59
which valve is the aortic
Left ventricular is the aortic valve
60
which valve is the pulmonary valve
Right ventricular
61
where do murmurs from mitral endocardiosis radiate
tricuspid
62
what can diminish the intensity of a murmur
obesity,
emphysema
tumors of the
lungs,
diaphragmatic hernias and
pleural or pericardial effusions
63
Which grade of murmur is heard immediately over a small area
grade 3/6
64
what grade of murmur is hear over most of the chest, but does not have a thrill
grade 4/6
65
what grade of murmur has a thrill
grade 5/6
66
what grade of murmur is heard after a few seconds of auscultation
grade 2/6
67
what grade of murmur is heard after prolonged auscultation
grade 1/6
68
Subjective evaluation of how the murmur sounds to
the listener - harsh, rough, musical, whooping, blowing refers to what
quality of murmur
69
crescendo, decrescendo plateau describe what about murmurs
the configuration
70
which murmurs have the configuration of crescendo or decrescendo
aortic stenosis
71
what configuration of murmurs have plateau
AV insufficiency (regurgitation)
72
with what cardiac disease will the liver edges be rounded
Right CHF
73
what are cardiac causes of distented jugular veins
Right CHR
Pericardial effusion
74
The main use of the ECG (EKG)
characterize arrhythmias and conduction disturbances
75
define heart failure
cardiac output is insufficient to meet the needs of the tissues
76
What is the most common heart disease in dogs
mitral valve disease
77
T/F
cardiac hypertrophy is caused by pressure or volume overload
True, as a result of heart disease
78
chronic increased diastolic pressure causes what
eccentric hypertrophy
79
Another name for endocardiosis
mitral valve disease
80
another name for mitral valve disease
endocardiosis
81
what is afterload
the resistance the ventricle encounters as it tries to eject blood
82
what is the resistance the ventricle encounters as it tries to eject blood called
afterload
83
the ability to dilate in diastole is called
lysotrophy
84
decreased filling in diastole increases what
increased preload
85
cardiogenic shock is the result of what
severely decreased blood flow
86
In L side heart failure, the decreased forward stroke volume results in what clinical signs
hypotension
pale
mucous membranes,
prolonged CRT
tachycardia,
weak pulses
lethargy,
depression,
weakness,
exercise intolerance
prerenal azotemia
87
In L side heart failure, the high end-diastolic pressure results in
pulmonary edema,
coughing,
dyspnea
orthopnea,
tachypnea,
exercise intolerance
cyanosis
88
In R side heart failure the decreased forward stroke volume results in
hypotension,
lethargy,
depression,
weakness,
exercise
intolerance
prerenal azotemia
89
In R side heart failure the high end-diastolic pressure results in
distension of veins
ascites,
hepato- and splenomegaly,
pleural effusion
rarely, peripheral edema
90
What phase is heart disease but no clinical signs
phase 1
91
Phase I heart disease
heart disease, but no clinical signs
92
in what phase of L heart failure is Cough, fatigue and dyspnea with normal or strenuous exercise seen
Phase 2
93
what clinical signs are seen with phase 2 left heart failure
Cough, fatigue and dyspnea with normal or strenuous exercise
94
Cough, fatigue, dyspnea and orthopnea at night and with any activity is seen in what phase of L heart failure
Phase 3
95
what clinical signs are seen in phase 3 left heart failure
Cough, fatigue, dyspnea and orthopnea at night and with any activity
96
In what phase of left heart failure is cyanosis seen
phase 4
97
what is characteristic of phase 4 left heart failure
cyanosis
98
What is ECG mainly used for
used mainly to determine heart rate and conduction disturbances
99
what is the pacemaker of the heart
Sinoatrial (SA) node
100
What causes the SA node to depolarise and hopefully begin a heart beat
cells spontaneously depolarize
101
Which part of the heart's conduction system is fast, and which is slow
Fast- atria and His- purkingy
Slow- Atrioventricular (AV) node
102
In what recumbency is a dog placed for ECG
R lateral
103
How long and fast is a rhythm strip
15-20 beats at 50mm/second
104
What are the ECG artifacts
electrical interference
panting
trembling
respiration
purring
105
Normally what does 1 cm, vertically represent
1 mV
106
how is 1 mV usually measured on ECG
1 vertical cm
107
What is a normal MEA for a dog?
A cat?
Dog MEA is +40 to+100
Car is 0 to +100
108
What does a greater than normal MEA represent
R ventricular enlargement
right bundle block
109
what does a smaller than normal MEA represent
Left ventricular enlargement
left bundle block
110
What is the normal P wave width
.04 seconds
111
what does it mean if the p wave is wider than .04 seconds
L atrial enlargement
112
What is the normal P wave amplitude in dog and cat
Normal P wave amplitude:
Dog is .4 mV
Cat is .2 mV
113
What does it mean when the p wave amplitude is greater than normal
R atrial enlargement
114
What values indicate bilateral atrial enlargement
P wider than .04 seconds in dog or cat
and
P amplitude higher than .4 in dog and .2 in cat
115
In what lead is the S wave assessed
S wave is assessed in lead 1,2,3 and aVF
116
What is normal voltage in L. ventricle (R wave)
Small dog, large dog
Cat
L. ventricle voltage:
small dog: 2.5 mV
Large dog: 3 mV
Cat: .9 mV
117
What is the normal duration of R wave in:
Small dog, large dog
Cat
R wave duration:
Small dog: .05 seconds
Large dog: .06 seconds
Cat: .04 seconds
118
What are the ECG indications of L ventricular enlargement in the dog, not cat
Increased voltage
Increased duration
MEA less than normal (40)
119
What are the ECG indications of L. ventricle enlargement in a cat
Increased voltage of R wave- **ONLY**
greater than .09 mV
120
what is the only way to assess the L. ventricle of a cat for enlargement
Increased voltage of the R wave in Lead 2
Greater than .9 mV
121
To assess right ventricular enlargement what waveform is assessed in the dog.
The S wave in Lead 1,2,3 and aVF (not a cat)
122
To assess the canine right ventricle for enlargement, the S wave is assessed in Lead 1,2,3 and aVF
What are the normal values
what is the MEA if enlarged
normal S values
Lead 1: .05 mV
Lead 2, 3 and aVF: .35 mV
MEA greater than 100
123
What ECG evidence is used to determine R. ventricular enlargement in the canine
Larger than normal S wave in lead 1,2,3, aVF (not cat)
and
Increased MEA
124
What is the only way to assess R ventricular enlargement in a cat using ECG
increased MEA
greater than 160
125
Why can't biventricular enlargement be assessed like with the atria
L ventricular mass over-rides the Right's smaller mass
126
What does a wide QRS wave with Wide S wave indicate
Right bundle branch block
127
What ECG pattern will be seen with Right bundle branch block
Wide QRS and S wave
128
What are the 3 differentials for wide-bizarre QRS complexes on ECG
Right bundle branch block
Right ventricular enlargement
Ventricular premature depolarization (VPD)
129
What are the causes of Right bundle branch block
infections, neoplasia, infarction, fibrosis or **cardiac trauma**
130
What are the hemodynamic consequences of Right bundle branch block
None
131
What are the causes of Left bundle branch block
infections, neoplasia, infarction, fibrosis or cardiac trauma
132
What are the hemodynamic consequences of Left bundle branch block
None
133
How can left bundle branch block be distinguished from Left ventricular enlargement on ECG
With LBBB there is no increased voltage in R wave
134
A longer than normal QRS with no increased voltage suggests what cardiac abnormality
Left Bundle branch block
135
Intermittent wide QRS waveforms are suggestive of what cardiac abnormality
L. bundle branch block
136
Enlarged ventricles and bundle branch blocks cause prolonged QRS waves. How can bundle blocks and enlarged ventricles be differentiated
With enlarged ventricles, the MEA is changed (Left is less)(Right is more) and the waveform is continuously wide with increased voltage
With Bundle branch blocks, the wide QRS is intermittent and normal voltage
137
A differential for left bundle block is ventricular premature conduction. how can VPCs be ruled out?
with VPC there is a disconnect between P-R
With bundle branch blocks there is a constant P-R relationship
138
What defines low voltage QRS on ECG
low voltage QRS are less than 1 mV in small dog and less than 1.4 mV in large dog
139
What are the 5 causes of low voltage QRS complexes
obesity,
effusion- pleural or pericardial
hypothyroidism,
pneumothorax
diffuse myocardial disease
140
What are the normal depression and elevation from baseline for ST segment
Elevation .15 mV
Depression .2mV
141
What does an abnormally elevated or depressed ST segment indicate
myocardial ischemia
142
what is the ECG sign of myocardial ischemia
abnormally depressed or elevated ST segment
143
what are the normal values for QT interval in dog and cat
QT interval
Dog: .15 to .25 seconds
Cat .12 to .18 seconds
144
What electrolyte imbalance cause changes in QT interval
Calcium and potassium levels effect QT interval
145
In addition to electrolytes, what are the other causes of abnormal QT intervals
digoxin,
antiarrhythmic drugs,
antibiotics,
drugs used to modify behavior
All can change the QT interval
146
What causes a tall spiked T wave
Hyperkalemia
147
What is the normal height of the T wave in dog?
In cat?
Dog: 1/4 R wave is normal T wave. Can be negative, positive or biphasic
Cat: max .3mV- may not see
148
What is abnormality in the rate, rhythm or flow of depolarization (origin) through the heart called
arrhythmia
149
Which lead is used to determine if arrhythmia is present
Lead 2
150
151
There is a normal P wave for every normal QRS complex but the R-R intervals vary. what arrhythmia
sinus arrhythmia
152
What arrhythmia is associated with respiration
Sinus arrhythmia
Wandering atrial pacemaker
153
what is a sinus arrhythmia most commonly associated with
respiration
154
heart rate increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration due to changes in vagal tone. What arrhythmia
Sinus arrhythmia
155
What arrhythmia is associated with normal changes in vagal tone
sinus arrhythmia
156
What is the treatment for sinus arrhythmia
None required
157
Sinus arrhythmia
158
P waves are not initiated at the SA node but rather elsewhere in the atria
Wandering atrial pacemaker
159
Wandering atrial pacemaker
160
P waves are variable and cannot be used to determine atrial size
wandering atrial pacemaker- no treatment necessary
161
what arrhythmia is associated with exaggerated parasympathetic tone
sinus bradycardia
162
what arrhythmia occurs when ventricular rate is too slow
sinus bradycardia
163
What is the heart rate associated with sinus bradycardia in small dog, large dog and cats
small dog: less than 70 bpm
large dog: less than 60 bpm
cat: less than 100 bpm
164
hereditary stenosis of the Bundle of His in Pugs causes what arrhythmia
sinus bradycardia
165
surgical procedures on the eye can cause what arrhythmia
sinus bradycardia
166
digoxin, zylazine, anesthetics, anti-arrhythmics can cause what arrhthmia
sinus bradycardia
167
Hyperkalemia can cause what arrhythmia
sinus bradycardia
168
hypothyroidism can cause what arrhythmia
sinus bradycardia
169
what are the drug treatments for sinus bradycardia
terbutaline, isopropamide, pro-banthine
170
For which arrhythmia is an atropine test used to diagnose
sinus bradycardia
171
what does a positive atropine test mean for sinus bradycardia
If the HR increases the sinus bradycardia was caused by increase parasympathetic tone. Treat with drugs
172
prolonged failure of the SA node to initiate one or more impulses is what arrhythmia
sinus arrest
173
what does angiotension do
constricts blood vessles
174
what does aldosterone do
retains Na+ (water)
175
A pulse with a water hammer quality is commonly associated with what heart abnormality
aortic regurgitation
176
What drugs are associated with sinus bradycardia
Digoxin
Beta blockers
Xylazine
177
What electrolyte abnormality can lead to sinus bradycardia
hyperkalemia
178
What causes sinus bradycardia in pugs
fibrosis of connection between AV node and bundle of His
179
What endocrine disorder can cause sinus bradycardia
Hypothyroid
180
What cardiac change would be noted if an abscess was pressing on the vegas nerve.
sinus bradycardia
181
to determine if sinus bradycardia was of a vagal origin, what test is performed
Atropine stimulation test- if heart rate increases the bradycardia is due to vagal problem
182
What is the drug used for long-term treatment of sinus bradycardia
terbutaline- alpha agonist
183
what is an escape beat
It's a beat generated by the ventricle after prolonged SA arrest
184
If an escape beat originates close to the av node, what is it called
junctional or nodal escape beat- QRS looks normal, but slower rate
185
what is a junctional or nodal escape beat
a beat generated by the ventricular, but near the AV node, so QRS looks normal, but rate is slow.
186
What are the parasympatholytic treatments for bradycardia
isoproterenol
probanthine
187
What is the cause of this waveform morphology
Hyperkalemia
188
What are the treatments of hyperkalemia
Sodium Bicarbomate,
glucose/insulin
Calcium gluconate
189
hereditary stenosis of the Bundle of His is known in what breed of dog
Pug
190
prolonged conduction through the AV node {P-R interval \>
0.13 s (dog) or 0.09 s (cat) with normal rythm
First degree AV block
191
What does a first-degree AV block look like
Normal rhythm, but PR interval is prolonged
192
What is a mobitz type 1 referring to
Second degree AV block where the PR interval gets progressively longer
193
what is a mobitz type 2 referring to
a second-degree av block that randomly drops the the QRS
194
What happened
Sinus arrest
195
What is a normal SA rate?
a normal AV rate
A ventricular rate?
SA=100 bpm
AV= 40-60
Ventricular= 20-40
196
What is third degree AV block
there is no conduction from the atria to the ventricles and each beat independently
197
What is the P-wave rhythm with 3rd degree AV block
The P-wave rhythm is normal- 100 bpm
198
With a third degree AV block, The ventricle contracts independently from the SA node in the atria. What is the ventricular rhythm for 3rd degree AV block?
Independent from SA. If from AV node, 40-60 BPM, if from the Ventricle 20-40 bpm
199
Where does the junctional rhythm originate from?
AV node
200
Where does the idioventricular rhythm originate from
The ventricle
201
How can an owner know if loss of consciousness is from seizure or syncope?
After an episode:
Seizure- will show signs of postictal abnormalities
Syncope- will be normal
202
What is the treatment drug treatment for sinus bradycardia
terbutaline
203
With increased K+, the T wave becomes tall and spiked. With higher levels of K+, what are the waveform characteristics?
T wave disappears, QRS is prolonged and wide. Sinusoidal shape
204
What accounts for the sinusoidal appearance of the waveform?
Hyperkalemia
205
One treatment for hyperkalemia is Ca gluconate. How do you know when you've given enough
Patient will become nauseous- salivation, licking lips
206
How does insulin/glucose treat hyperkalemia?
It drives K+ into the cells
207
What will the K+ level be in a dog with hypoadrenocorticism?
K+ will be high
208
What drug can be used to stabilize the AV block patient before a pacemaker is implanted
Isoproterenol infusions may be used to stabilize
209
Does a 1st degree AV block need to be treated?
No, monitor only
210
Wenkebach phenomenon
heart block (2nd degree AV) in which a pulse from the atrium periodically does not reach the ventricle and which is characterized by progressive prolongation of the P-R interval until a pulse is skipped
211
What AV block is this
2nd degree AV block with Wenkebach phenomenon- Mobitz type 1
212
The alpha 2 agonist, Xylazine is associated with what cardiac arrhythmia
2nd degree AV block. An occasional P is not followed by a QRS
213
What arrhythmia is characterised by dropped beats occur without any progressive changes in the P-R interval
2nd degree AV block, specifically Mobitz type 2
214
This waveform is characteristic for which treatment of AV block
pacemaker of 3rd degree AV block
215
What arrhythmia is characterised by a sinus bradycardia, intermittent periods of sinus arrest or AV block, long periods of asystole, and escape beats, with periods of compensatory tachicardia
sick sinus syndrome
216
What arrhythmia shows abnormally high heart rate with normal P and QRS-T complexes
Sinus tachycardia
217
Which lead is on the arm + or - ?
Negative is on arm
218
What arrhythmia is associated with beats that occur earlier than expected (premature) and arise from outside the SA node
Supraventricular premature depolerizations (SPD)
219
During auscultation of the heart, you hear a lub, with no pulse. What arrhythmia is suspected
SPD- supraventricular depolarizations
220
What arrhythmia is characterised by more than 3 SPDs in a row?
supraventricular ventricular tachycardia
221
If there is an extra conduction pathway between the SA node and the ventricle, what arrhythmia might be seen.
SPD -supraventricular premature depolerization
SVT -supraventricular tachycardia
222
What is the most common emergency treatment for SVT
esmolol- Beta blocker
223
What are the two drugs for maintenance treatments of SVT
sotalol- Beta-blocker for atrial origin
**diltiazem-** Ca++ channel blocker for extra conduction pathway
224
For which arrhythmia would pathway ablation be used for treatment
Supraventricular tachycardia
225
what is it called when ventricular beats that arise from an ectopic focus in the ventricles
Ventricular premature depolarization/contraction
VPD/VPC
226
If a VPD results in a QRS, below baseline, where is the ectopic center?
Left ventricle
227
If a VPC is above the baseline, where is the ectopic center?
Right ventricle
228
What arrhythmia is associated with GVD Gastric dilation-volvulus
VPD ventricular premature depolarization
229
What arrhythmia is associated with pancreatitis and sepsis
VPD
230
What are the only 2 premature arrhythmias
SPD-supraventricular premature depolarization
VPD- ventricular premature depolerization
231
The only premature arrhythmias are VPD and SPD. how are the different on ECG
VPD has wide and bizarre QRS and can be positive or negative
SPD has normal QRS
232
What is the name of the arrhythmia in which every second beat is a VPD?
bigeminy
233
What are the signs of VPD
dropped heart sound
Irregular pulse
dropped pulses
sudden death
rarely syncope
234
When is specific treatment of VPDs indicated?
Signs of heart failure
concurrent disease associated with sudden death
R-on-T
VPDs longer than 30 min
235
What is the specific treatment for VPD with multiform or R-on-T?
Lidocaine
236
T/F Splenic surgery is know to cause VPD
True
237
With what underlying disorders should VPD's be treated?
Boxer cardiomyopathy
DCM in Doberman
aortic stenosis
HCM in cats
High rate- increased risk of R-on-T
238
Lidocaine is the first choice for treating emergency VPD. What is plan B
Beta blocker- if contractility is good
procainamide- higher risk
239
The first choice for treatment of canine VPD is lidocaine, what is the first choice in cats
Beta blockers: (help heart relax)
propranolol, atenolol
then lidocaine as plan B
240
When should cats with VPD be treated
concurrent HCM
241
By definition what is ventricular tachycardia
Runs of 3 or more VPDs at high rate of greater than 160 bpm
242
What heart rate can be associated with ventricular tachycardia clinical signs
300 bpm for 6 seconds
243
What are runs of VPDs that are too slow to be called V-tach called
accelerated idioventricular rhythm
244
What is the usual cause of Accelerated idioventricular rhythm/ idioventricular tachycardia
electrolyte imbalance-
HBC and rapid decrease in Ca++
245
When is it necessary to treat Accelerated idioventricular rhythm/ idioventricular tachycardia?
No treatment necessary, but should work to improve electrolyte imbalance
246
What is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation
Electrical cardioversion
Epinephrine
CPR
247
What can R-on-T trigger
V-fib
248
What arrhythmia is associated with irregular R-R interval, but normal QRS
atrial fibrillation
249
Dobermans are predisposed to dilated cardiomyopathy, as a consequence what arrhythmia can be seen
atrial fibrillation
250
What arrhythmia sounds like boots in a dryer
Atrial fibrillation
251
The treatment choices for A-fib depend on the ventricular response and species. What is the treatment of choice for high ventricular rate with good output in canine? What is plan B
Diltiazem - Ca++ channel blocker
Plan B is Beta blockers: esmolol, sotalol
252
What is the treatment of choice for a fib associated with decreased ventricular function?
Combination of diltiazem and digoxin
253
What effect will a Ca++ channel blocker like diltiazem have on the heart?
negative inotropic
254
What effect will beta blockers have on heart
negative inotropic
255
For which arrhythmias is DC cardioversion indicated
Cardioversion \_shockable arrhythmias
A-fib pg. 25
Ventricular tachycardia pg. 21
V-fib pg. 25
Asystole associated with above
256
What drugs must be used life long after DC cardioversion of A-fib?
sotalol
amiodarone
257
What arrhythmia is associated with a sawtooth pattern
Atrial flutter
258
What is the drug of choice for feline A-fib
Propanolol
259
what drug is counterindicated for feline A-fib?
Digoxin is counterindicated
260
What arrhythmia is associated with this saw-tooth pattern
Atrial flutter
261
Atrial flutter is associated with a saw tooth pattern. What is a common sequela
A-fib
