Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Resp > CARDIO common drugs > Flashcards

CARDIO common drugs Flashcards

1
Q

what are the anticholesterol drugs?

A

statins eg simvastatin
fibrates eg bezafibrate
PCSK 9 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how do statins work?

A
  • they block HMG CoA reductase which is the rate limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the side effects of statins?

A
  • myopathy

- rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who should recieve a statin?

A
  • anyone with a CVD
  • diabetes
  • hypercholesterolaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when should statins be taken?

A

orally at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do fibrates work?

A

they are an agonist of PPAR-alpha, therefore increases lipoprotein lipase expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the side effects of fibrates?

A
  • myositis = inflammation of muscles
  • pruritus = itchy skin
  • cholestasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the antihypertensive drugs?

A
  • thiazide diuretics
  • beta blockers
  • mineralcorticosteroids
  • vasodilators eg calcium antagonists, alpha blockers, ACEi, ARBs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give an example of a thiazide diuretic?

A

eg bendrofluazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do thiazide diuretics work?

A
  • they inhibit sodium reabsorption by blocking the thiazide-sensitive N+-Cl_ symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the side effects of thiazide diruetics?

A
  • hyperglycaemia
  • increased uric acid
  • impotence
  • gout
  • dehydration
  • hypokalaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are thiazide diruetics used for?

A
  • hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an example of a loop diuretic?

A

eg furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do loop diuretics work?

A
  • by inhibiting NaCl reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of henle
  • they inhibit the costransport of NaKCl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are loop diuretics used for?

A
  • heart failure

- resistant hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the side effects of loop diruetics?

A
  • hyperglycaemia
  • increased uric acid
  • impotence
  • hypotension
  • renal impairment
  • hypokalaemia
  • deafness (over use of drug)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are cardioselective beta blockers? give an example.

A

they only block b1

eg atenolol, bisoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are cardioselective beta blockers used for?

A
  • angina
  • acute coronary syndrome
  • MI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are non-selective beta blockers? give an example

A
  • block b1 and b2

- eg propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are non-selective beta blockers used for?

A
  • migraine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the side effects of beta blockers?

A
  • asthma
  • tired
  • worsened heart failure symptoms
  • cold peripheries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are dihydropyridines used for? give an example

A

eg amoldipine

  • used in hypertension
  • angina
  • raynauds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the side effects of dihydropyridines?

A

ankle oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are rate limiting calcium antagonists used for?

A
  • hypertension

- angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

give an example of a rate limiting calcium antagnosits?

A
  • verapamil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when should you avoid using a rate limiting calcium antagnosist and why?

A
  • when given with a betablocker

- it may cause heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how do angiotensin converting enzymes work?

A

by blocking angiotensin 1 from becoming angiotensin 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

give an example of ACEi?

A
  • lisinopril
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

when are ACEis used?

A
  • hypertension

- heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the side effects of ACEis?

A
  • dry cough
  • renal dysfunction
  • very steep drop in blood pressure for first dose, eg in patients who are on diuretics because they are Na+ depleted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

when should you avoid the use of ACEis?

A
  • pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

give an example of an angiotensin receptor blocker?

A
  • losartan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do angiotensin receptor blockers work?

A

they block angiotensin 2 at the AT1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when should angiotensin receptor blockers be used?

A
  • hypertension

- heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the side effects of angiotensin receptor blockers?

A
  • renal dysfunction
  • no cough
  • hypotension
  • hyperkalaemia
36
Q

why would you use an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACEi?

A
  • if patient develops a cough
37
Q

how do alpha blockers work and what do they do?

A
  • block a adrenoceptors to cause vasodilation
38
Q

when are a blockers used?

A
  • hypertension

- prostatic hypertrophy

39
Q

give an example of an a blocker?

A

doxazosin

40
Q

what are the side effects of a blockers?

A

postural hypotension

41
Q

how do mineral corticosteroids work?

A
  • they block aldosterone receptors and therefore increases excretion of Na+
42
Q

when are mineral corticosteroids used?

A
  • heart failure

- resistant hypertension

43
Q

what are examples of mineral corticosteroids?

A
  • spironolactone
44
Q

what are the side effects of mineral corticosteroids?

A
  • gynaecomastia
  • renal impairment
  • hyperkalaemia
45
Q

what are the commmon antianginal drugs?

A
  • vasodilators = nitrates, calcium antagonists (dihydropyridine), nucorandil
  • slow heart rate = beta blockers, calcium antagnoists, ivabradine
  • metabolic modulator = ranolazine
46
Q

what are nitrates and give an example?

A
  • venodilators

- eg short acting = glyceral trinirtate, long acting = isosorbide monoritrate

47
Q

how do nitrates work?

A
  • they cause release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle which activate guanylate cyclase which converts GTP to cGMP which leads to fall in intracellular calcium levels
  • in angina, they both dilate the coronoary artery and also reduce venous return which in turn reduces left ventricular work, reducing myocardial oxygen demand
48
Q

when are nitrates used?

A
  • angina

- acute heart attack

49
Q

what are the side effects of nitrates?

A
  • headache due to arterial dilation
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • fainting
50
Q

how do nicroandil work?

A
  • K ATP channel activator

- anti-anginal

51
Q

what are the side effects of nicroandil?

A
  • headache

- mouth/GI ulcers

52
Q

how does ivabradine work?

A
  • If channel modulator in the sinus node
  • slows HR only in sinus rhhythm
  • does not work in AF
53
Q

what are the side effects of ivabradine?

A

altered visual disturbance

54
Q

how does renolazine work?

A
  • anti anginal
  • late sodium modulator
  • decrease calcium load on heart
  • effective in refractor angina
55
Q

what are the common antithrombotic drugs?

A
  • antiplatelets
  • anticoagulants
  • fibinolytics
56
Q

what are some examples of antiplatelet agents?

A
  • aspirin
  • clopidogrel
  • ticagrelor
  • presugrel
57
Q

when are antiplatelets used?

A
  • in all new thrombosis
  • angina
  • acute MI
  • CVA/TIA
58
Q

what are the side effects of antiplatelets?

A
  • haemorrhage

- asthma

59
Q

what is the role of anticoagulants?

A
  • to prevent new thrombosis
60
Q

what are the 2 types of anticoagulants?

A
  1. herparin IV use only

2. warfarin oral use only

61
Q

when are anticoagulants used?

A
  • DVT
  • PR
  • atrial fibrilation
  • NSTEMI
62
Q

what are the side effects of anticoagulants?

A
  • haemorrhage
63
Q

what is the role of fibrinolytic drugs?

A
  • dissolve formed clots
64
Q

what is an exmaple of an antifibrinolytic drug?

A

streptokinase

65
Q

when are anti fibrinolytic drugs used?

A
  • STEMI
  • PE
  • CVA
66
Q

what are the side effects of fibrinolytic drugs?

A
  • haemorrhage
67
Q

when should you avoid fibrinolytic drugs?

A
  • in trauma
  • recent haemorrhage
  • bleeding tendencies
  • severe diabetic retinopahty
  • peptic ulcer
68
Q

what are the common heart failure drugs?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • ARBs
  • beta blockers
  • diuretics
  • digoxin
  • mineralcorticoid antagonsits eg spironolactone
  • seprilysin inhibitors
69
Q

what are the mechanisms of action for digoxin?

A
  • decreases conduction throgh AV node which slows the ventricular rate in AF and flutter
  • increases force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibitor pf the NA/K ATPase pump, also stimulates vagus nerve
  • narrow therapeutic window
70
Q

what are the side effects of digoxin?

A
  • digoxin toxicity
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • yellow vision
  • bradycardia
  • heart block
71
Q

what are the effects of neprilysin inhibitors?

A
  • hypotension
  • renal impairment
  • hyperkalaemia
  • angioneurotic oedema
72
Q

when are loop diuretics effective when thiazide diuretics arent?

A
  • in patients with diminished renal function
73
Q

what are the side effects for calcium-channel blockers used in hypertension?

A
  • dizziness
  • hypotension
  • flushing
  • ankle oedema
    all caused by excessive vasodilation
74
Q

what are the first line antianginal drugs?

A
  • nitrates
75
Q

when does stable angina occur?

A
  • when an atheromatous plaque produces a coronary artery stenosis
76
Q

when does unstable angina occur?

A
  • when there is a fissure or erosion of the atheromatous plaque
  • this causes platelet aggregation and the formation of an intracoronary thrombus which results in a sudden decrease of blood flow through the artery
77
Q

when should you not use a beta blocker?

A
  • in asthmatics as it can cause bronchospasm
78
Q

what are PCSK 9 inhibitors used for?

A

familial hypercholesterolaemia

79
Q

how do PCSK 9 inhibitors work?

A
  • by inhibiting binding of PCSK 9 to LDLR, CSK9 inhibitor increases the number of LDLRs available to clear LDL, therby reducing LDL-C levels
80
Q

what is an example of a neprilysin inhibitor?

A
  • sulcubitril valsartan
81
Q

what are the 2 types of calcium antagonist?

A
  • dihydropyridines

- rate limiting calcium antagonists

82
Q

what enhances the effects of adenosine?

A

dipyridamole (antiplatelet agent)

83
Q

what can reduce the anti-hypertensive effects of ACEis?

A

NSAIDS eg ibuprofen

84
Q

what is sexual dysfunction a main side effect of?

A

thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide

85
Q

which drugs are used for secondary prevention post MI?

A

ACEi, Aspirin, statins.

Resp (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions