Captain quiz session #45 Flashcards

1
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents are among the most dangerous that the fire department can respond to. These incidents require:

A

Coordination

and

Special Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, a tactical law enforcement incident includes all of the following

A

The subject of a potential violent crime is believed to be on scene and not in police custody

Active shooter

Barricaded suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, experience has shown that the number one cause of preventable death in victims of penetrating trauma is?

A

Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, when arriving at the scene of a tactical law enforcement incident, it is important for fire department personnel to ascertain?

A

if the incident is still dynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, the first arriving fire department on scene of an active shooter incident should do all of the following:

A

confirm the nature of the incident

provide a size up to mfc and responding units

designate a staging area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, the elements of an IAP at a dynamic law enforcement incident may vary based on the situation, but key components of the IAP that the fire department will be responsible for include?

A

communication plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, if a fire occurs during a tactical law enforcement incident and the suspect’s location cannot be determined, firefighters may enter or move through a hot zone to deploy ladders or hose lines?

A

under no circumstance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, as a minimum a rescue task force shall have?

A

2 FD medical personnel and 2 force protection officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, to limit the visbility of the rescue task force, it may be advisable for FD members not to wear?

A

Brush Jackets?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, when multiple patients are being treated by a rescue task force, patients are extraction of the injured occurs

A

once all accessible patients are treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, ballistic helmets shall be worn?

A

when responding to active shooter incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, allowing fire department personnel to operate for a short period of time withing the warm zone is permissible if?

A

they are provided with force protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, the area outside the hot zone to which casualties are taken to initiate treatment in the case of critical injuries, or be further extracted to treatment areas by rescue task force members is defined as:

A

casualty collection point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to Training Bulletin #135, “Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement and Active Shooter Incidents”, when rescue task forces are operating in the warm zone triage is conducted?

A

no triage is conducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the objective of the fire suppression efforts during a high-rise fire is to ?

A

Locate, confine, and extinguish the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, pre-planning to combat a high-rise fire involves all of the following

A

understanding the LAFD’s High Rise policy

understanding company’s standard operating guidelines

thorough knowledge of our equipment and ability to use if effectively

physical conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the number of firefighters and equipment that comprise the initial fire attack is determined by the?

A

resource immediately available to the first in officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, department policy requires the fire attack team take all of the following equipment with them when ascending a stairwell during a high rise building fire

A

breathing apparatus

forcible entry tools

thermal imaging camera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the safest and most reliable route to the fire floor for the fire attack team is ?

A

stairwells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, in choosing a fire attack stairwell, select a stairwell that has:

A

ground to roof access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, no more than ___ personnel with equipment is permitted in any elevator?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the officer in charge of the fire attack team should give an assessment of conditions found in the stairwell every ___?

A

4 to 5 floors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, before attacking a fire and opening the stairwell door in a high-rise building, you should?

A

consider the possibility that occupants may be in the stairwell above the fire floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, to facilitate advancing hose lines, flake the hose line ____ while it is being connected

A

up the stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, when preparing to advance two lines of different sizes simultaneously from a stairwell during a high-fire flake large line ___ and the smaller line ___ make it easier to move the loaded lines

A

up the stairs

down stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, standpipe pressure in a high-rise building is controlled by three means.

A

pressure regulating devices

pressure restricting devices

orifice plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, orifice plates control pressure by restricting volume and are limited to its design requirements for supplying?

A

200 gpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, pressure restricting devices work by restricting the flow by ?

A

how far the valve can be opened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, during a high rise fire, the fire attack team should direct their efforts toward?

A

protecting hallways and corridors

protecting stairs and elevators

protecting other vertical openings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, when it is necessary for the fire attack team to reposition their hose lines for a more effective attack they should go down a floor, cross to the other side, and reconnect their lines. Prior to initiating fire attack, the fire attack team needs to be cognizant of?

A

occupants in the stairwell above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the potential for a flashover is present in any high-rise fire situation. As the temperature of fire gases increases, it reaches the flashover, which may be as low as?

A

800 degrees f

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the indicators of a flashover include all of the following

A

free burning fire

increase in density of smoke

fire flickering in the ceiling smoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

According to Training Bulletin #65 “Vehicle Battery System”, the “six-battery system” has been installed in all heavy apparatus. Five of the six batteries are used for ?

A

starting the apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

According to Training Bulletin #65 “Vehicle Battery System”, when the on-board battery charger cannot be plugged in, what should be done to avoid running down the batteries?

A

turn off the radio “cut of switch”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

According to Training Bulletin #65 “Vehicle Battery System”, all apparatus have been installed with a “low voltage warning system”, An audible warning device activities anytime the batteries fall below?

A

12.2 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

According to Training Bulletin #65 “Vehicle Battery System”, what action shall be taken when the low voltage audible warning sounds on dept apparatus?

A

vehicle must be started

on-board battery charger must be plugged in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

According to Training Bulletin #65 “Vehicle Battery System”, when the apparatus is out of service for an extended period of time, the radio cut off switch must be turned off to avoid running down the batteries. Extended periods of time is defined as?

A

over 10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

According to Training Bulletin #81, “Body Armor Vests”, the ballistic panels of the body armor west are comprised of multi-layers of kevlar or spectra shield which provide a threat level or protection level of ?

A

llA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

According to Training Bulletin #81, “Body Armor Vests”, body armor vests are not designed to protect against all of the following?

A

sharp objects

medium energy handgun bullets

rifle fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

According to Training Bulletin #81, “Body Armor Vests”, if a member’s body armor vest is damaged a temporary vest may be obtained on loan form?

A

the battalion office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

According to Training Bulletin #81, “Body Armor Vests”, a body armor vest may be worn anytime a member feels it is necessary to do so. However, body armor shall be donned

A

prior to responding to incidents in know trouble areas

42
Q

According to Dept Bulletin #12-02, “Gurney Safety Procedures”, a gurney who has a patient secured to it shall be moved using a minimum of?

A

2 members

43
Q

According to Dept Bulletin #12-02, “Gurney Safety Procedures”, a patient may be left unattended while secured to a gurney under the following conditions?

A

under no conditions

44
Q

According to Dept Bulletin #12-02, “Gurney Safety Procedures”, gurney inspection and maintenance is an integral component for safe use. Members shall inspect gurneys?

A

at platoon change

after each use

45
Q

According to Dept Bulletin #12-02, “Gurney Safety Procedures”, a gurney accident resulting in a member injury shall be immediately investigated by ?

A

the ems battalion commander

46
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the 2” High-Rise Hose is of a single jacketed construction that comes in ___ foot lengths with a 1 1/2 inch coupling:

A

50

47
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, a company’s compliment of 2” high rise hose will consist of?

A

200 feet of 2” hose and one pigtail assembly

48
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the primary objective of a company assigned to attack the fire is?

A

protecting hallways and corridors

49
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, combined standpipe sprinkler systems are required in buildings built?

A

since 1974

50
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the water system that is the primary reason for carrying the 2 1/2” hose in the pigtail is ?

A

Class lll combination system

51
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the size of an orifice plate is determined by?

A

the static pressure on the supply side of the outlet

52
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, failure to remove an orifice plate from an outlet will restrict the flow from the outlet to?

A

200 gpm

53
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, if the orifice plate has been removed from the outlet, the outlet should be opened?

A

one and one half turns

54
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the combined standpipe sprinkler system utilize a pressure reducing valve (prv) when the pressure at the outlet exceeds?

A

150 psi

55
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, when making connections to a combined system outlet, the prv should be opened?

A

fully

56
Q

According to Training Bulletin #62, “2-inch High-Rise Hose Systems”, the annual service test pressure of the 2 inch high rise hose is ?

A

300 psi

57
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, one of the greatest risks firefighters encounter during firefighting operations is?

A

thermal burns

58
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the primary heat transfer method within structures and is responsible for the majority of fire and smoke spread within structures is ?

A

convection

59
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the most dangerous and threatening product of combustion is

A

heat

60
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the primary consideration relative to conductive heat transfer is?

A

structural integrity

61
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when passing between phases is defined as?

A

latent head

62
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the thermal capacity of a substance is referred to as

A

specific heat

63
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, there are ___ stages in the development of an interior fire:

A

3

64
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the method of heat transfer where eat energy is transmitted similar to light waves and the energy emanates equally in all directions in straight lines describes:

A

Radiation

65
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, ___ is a warning of a more deadly event to follow?

A

Rollover

66
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the primary difference between a flashover and a backdraft is:

A

the amount of air present

67
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the most dangerous stage of fire development is?

A

flashover

68
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the “last warning” for firefighters to withdraw from an area, if charged lines are not in place and operating effectively is?

A

rollover

69
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the three types of flash phenomena are:

A

rollover, flashover, flameover

70
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, warning signs of a smoke explosion include all of the following

A

sickly or intermittent flame due to a reduce oxygen level

smoke being drawn past you in the fire area

flickering flames in the smoke above you

71
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the transfer of heat through matter without any visible motion of matter and is the only method of heat transfer through solid objects best describe?

A

conduction

72
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, which of the following signs should warn a captain that the danger of a backdraft is present?

A

condensation forming on the windows

73
Q

According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns “, the four construction features that present the greatest danger to firefighters from collapse include all of the following

A

truss construction

unreinforced masonry construction

cantilever construction

unprotected steel construction

74
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, which Unit Leader’s duties is responsible for establishing the morgue?

A

Triage Unit Leader

75
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the transportation unit leader supervises all of the following

A

Medical Communications Coordinator

Transportation Recorder

Ambulance Staging Manager

76
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the responsibility to establish initial communications with the Medical Alert Center to assure proper patient transportation and destination lies with?

A

First arriving ALS ambulance

77
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, transporters are assigned to move patients from ___ to ___.

A

triage; treatment

treatment areas; ambulance loading

78
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, triage personnel must prioritize injured patients at an MCI into one of four categories. A delayed patient is defined as:

A

does not fit into the immediate category or the minor category

79
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the movement of patients from the triage area to the treatment location should not be initiated until?

A

the treatment areas are prepared to accept patients

80
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, deceased patients should not be moved from their original locations unless?

A

absolutely necessary

81
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, during a MCI, consider a ___ rotation relief for Transporters.

A

30 minutes

82
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the simple triage and rapid treatment (START) plan allows first responders to triage patients in ____ or less.

A

60 seconds

83
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, triage personnel must tag all patients. Patients are “tagged” so that:

A

rescuers arriving later can immediately turn their attentio to the patients most in need

84
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, a patient at a MCI whose is unable to walk with respirations less than 30 breathes per minute and capillary refill less than 2 seconds and is able to follow commands would be classified as

A

Delayed

85
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, time permitting, triage tag corners are retained by ____ and ___.

A

treatment unit leader

and

transportation supervisor

86
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, a victim wearing a triage tag with the yellow portion attached to the bottom of the tag would be classified as?

A

delayed

87
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, if a victim’s condition changed during the incident after being tagged in one of the four triage categories, the correct procedure used to indicate the change would be?

A

Remove the entire bottom portion of the tag, leaving the injury information, and add a second tag identifying the new triage priority and reason for the change.

88
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the primary goal of triage is to?

A

select the patients in greatest need of urgent care

89
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the simple triage and rapid treatment (start) plan allows first responders to triage patients in a minimal amount of time depending on three simple observations. These physical assessments include all of the following

A

respiration

perfusion

mental status

90
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, the ___ assumes responsibility for treatment, coordination of patient treatment, and preparation for transport in the treatment areas?

A

treatment unit leader

91
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, which ICS position in the Medical Group will assume the role of the Medical Supply Unit Leader until the position is activated?

A

ambulance staging manager

92
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, ___ performs the function of treatment unit leader until that position is activated?

A

triage unit leader

93
Q

According to Book 70, “Multi-Casualty Incident Operational Manual”, to establish a medical group “skeleton organization” without transport capability will require the following resources?

A

Battalion Chief

EMS Battalion Captain,

6 fire companies

2 ALS Rescue Ambulances

94
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, all Officers are responsible for ensuring that their commands are free from discrimination, harassment and retaliation by ?

A

scheduling appropriate training

seeking guidance from the proper resources

promptly conveying or distributing relating information as directed

95
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, it is the policy of this department to provide equal employment opportunities to all members and applicants on the basis of?

A

merit

96
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, all of the following are true about hazing

A

hazing is an act of power and control over others

consent of the victim or citing tradition cannot be used a defense

hazing is a violation of city policy

97
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, complaints under the city’s discrimination complaint procedure must be filed withing ____ of the most recent act of discrimination.

A

1 year

98
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook under which of the following situations can supervisor be held liable for acts of discrimination and harassing conduct between members in the workplace?

A

the supervisor knew about the conduct but failed to act

the supervisor should have known about the conduct and failed to take appropriate corrective action

the supervisor condoned the conduct

99
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, employment actions which are harsh, insensitive or unjust and not motivated because of an individual’s protective class or whistleblower status is?

A

a. unlawful
b. violation of department policies
c. defined as harassment

* none of the above are correct*

100
Q

According to the Discrimination Prevention Policy Handbook, the best tools for the elimination of sexual harassment in the work place is?

A

prevention and education