Captain quiz session #44 Flashcards
According to Department Bulleting #15-08, “Brush Fire Operations - 2015”, the brush index is identified in vie ranges. Which of the following is the “Red Flag Alert” range?
48 to 110 High (and above)
111 to 161 Very High ( and above)
162 and above extreme
none of them
red flag is winds greater that 25 mph and
relative humidity less than %15
According to Training Bulletin#7, “Fighting Fires with Large Spray Streams”, in comparing spray streams with standard straight streams which of the following is an accurate statement?
spray streams are more advantageous in terms of personnel safety where heat and smoke are hindrance to firefighting personnel
According to Training Bulletin #5, “Automobile Fires and Associated Hazards”, with respect to extinguishing an automobile fire involving combustible metals:
large volumes of water are usually sufficient
According to Training Bulletin #5, “Automobile Fires and Associated Hazards”, your company arrives at an automobile fire and your observe the fire is burning near the gas tank. A firefighter attempts to remove the gas can and flood the gas tank with water. This tactic is:
poor as it risk the possibility of re-flash or explosion
According to Training Bulletin #90, “Fire Burns”, the triggering event for flashover is:
the addition of heat
According to Training Bulletin #14, “An indirect method of fighting fires in railroad cars”, application of water above the fire through the hot gases and delay of vertical ventilation until the fire is knocked down are:
tactics of an indirect method of fire attack and may be warranted under some conditions
According to Training Bulletin #27, “ Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (light water)”, the use of light water as a pre-mix in the tank of a pump or triple should be a last alternative. The reason for this is that:
the detergent action of light water tends to degrease the pump packing
According to Training Bulletin #84, “Metrolink Commuter Train”, the maximum number of passengers that can be carried on a commuter car is?
360
According to Training Bulletin #131 , “Holmatro Self Contained Rescue Tool”, the maximum cutting force of the tool in the notch is:
49,000lbs
According to Training Bulletin #59, “Methods of Painful Stimuli”, the easiest and perhaps the safest way to elicit a painful response in an altered patient is to?
exert pressure on nerves
According to the Manual of Operations, “Planning Activities”, the Manual of Operations discusses quarterly training activity requirements. Company commanders are required to conduct a minimum of ____ hours of training as determined by their company needs.
54
According to the Manual of Operations, “Emergency Operation- General”, during a tactical alert, the Manual of Operation states that:
Activities outside of quarters shall be restricted to emergency responses
According to the Manual of Operations, “General”, the Manual of Operation is a composite of permanent policies and procedures established by the Fire Chief. In cases of conflicting information, the Manual of Operation is only superseded by?
The Rules and Regulation
Amending directives in Weekly Bulletins
Amending directives in Special Notices
All of the above supersede the Manual of Operations in cases conflicting information
According to the Manual of Operations, “Reports/Records”, the primary purpose of the F-351 Time Record is to____ which occur during the calendar year.
Maintain a record of vacation,, holidays and platoon duty adjustments
According to the Manual of Operation, “Emergency Operation”, this identification on a map indicates:
symbol for predetermined helispots
According to the Manual of Operation, “Public Affairs”, the “right” of members of the news media to be on the scene of an emergency is based upon?
state law
According to Training Bulletin #11, Pressurized Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishers”, the effectiveness of the extinguishing action of dry chemical extinguishers is a result of:
Smothering action
Heat is absorbed by both the solid particles and water vapor which provides cooling
the chemical chain reaction of combustion is interrupted
According to Training Bulletin #11, Pressurized Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishers”, dry chemical is approximately ____ as effective as CO2 on hydrocarbon fires.
Twice
According to Training Bulletin #11, Pressurized Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishers”, the discharge time of a 20lbs dry chemical extinguisher with the valve fully open is:
10 seconds
According to Training Bulletin #11, Pressurized Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishers”, the dry chemical extinguisher has an effective range of approximately:
15 to 20 feet
According to Training Bulletin #11, Pressurized Dry Chemical Fire Extinguishers”, the dry chemical extinguisher will function effectively only so long as the air pressure is between:
125 to 175psi
According to Training Bulletin #27, “Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (light water)”, if it is necessary to pre-mix AFFF in a full 400 gallon tank of triple , the proper method of performing the first three steps is to drain approximately ___ gallons of water from the full tank, pour___ gallons of light water into the tank and refill the tanks.
50 gallons water
24 gallons light water
According to Training Bulletin #98, “Emergency Medical Services Report Writing”, the goal in all reports writing is all of the following:
Accuracy
Clarity
Facts
Succinctness
According to Training Bulletin #98, “Emergency Medical Services Report Writing”, errors or mistakes must be legible even after they have been corrected; therefore, ___ are acceptable methods for correcting errors:
line through
According to Training Bulletin #98, “Emergency Medical Services Report Writing”, the greatest potential for criticism arising from EMS incidents occurs in those situations in which:
no “hands-on” patient contact was made
According to Training Bulletin #98, “Emergency Medical Services Report Writing”, the basic premise of most law suits involving charges of negligence, improper treatment, or omissions of care is:
members failed to perform to an appropriate “standard of care’
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, Botz Dots are located along the corridor to identify access gates (ladders) and standpipe systems. A retractable ladder is identified by:
2 green botz dots
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, knox box keys to access the Alameda corridor can be identified by the engraved inscription:
ACTA
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, the location of a standpipe will be identified by:
1 green Botz Dot
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, retractable ladders are located along the mid corridor trench every ___ feet
1000feet
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, retractable ladders can be deployed from the top or the bottom. It takes approximately ___ to lower a ladder:
60 seconds to 90 seconds
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, dry standpipes are located every ____ feet along the corridor:
500
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, emergency telephones which provide a direct line to the Alameda corridor dispatch center or used to talk to other on emergency phones along the corridor are located?
at every retractable ladder
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, the average train speed in the corridor is :
40 mph
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, in the initial stages of an incident below grade within the Alameda corridor involving a fire, spill or derailment, and prior to deploying resources into the trench, the IC shall establish:
rapid intervention company
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, the iC should consider placing companies ____ away on both sides of the incident to act as scouts to warn of oncoming trains:
1 1/2 miles to 2 miles
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, the triangle with a T in the middle on alameda corridor maps identifies?
emergency telephones
According to Training Bulletin #113 , “introducing the Alameda Corridor”, upon receipt of a dispatch to an incident involving the Alameda Corridor, first responders should:
determine the type of inc
confirm location and resources assigned
determine a safe route based upon dispatch and on-scene information
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, the LP 15 includes the latest lithium-ion battery technology that allows for a ___ hour run time and a two year replacement cycle.
8
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, as a reminder Department Bulletin #5-06 a 12 lead ECG is required for patients complaining of any of the following :
pts >34 yrs of age who complain of non-traumtic chest pain
pt >34 years of age who complain of SOB with no known history of asthma
Diabetics with non-specific complaints
Elderly patients age >65 complaining of feeling week and dizzy
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, the “transfer of care” option on the LP15 shall be utilized to document___ value at the time of transfer, thus ensuring tube placement.
CO2
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, the Lifepak 15 will automatically perform a user test every day at ___?
3:00 am
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, batteries should be removed from the lp15 and placed in the charge when power ___ remains.
25%
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, anytime the battery charger shows a red light or the battery fuel guage indicates ___ or fewer LED bars after charging for___, remove the battery from service and request replacement from the EMS captain.
2
4hours
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, station commanders shall ensure that an adequate stock of supplies for the LP 15 are available in quarters at all times. a minimum___ supply is to be maintained at all times
30 day
According to Training Bulletin #146, “lifepack 15 defibrillator”, to manually defibrillate a patient with lp15 press the green on button, select the desired energy , press the yellow “charge” button and deliver shock. If the shock button is not pressed within ____ the stored energy is removed internally.
60 seconds
According to Training Bulletin #51, “ Precautions While Treating and Transporting Chemotherapy Patients”, when handling a chemotherapy agent, gloves shall not be worn for more than:
30 minutes
According to Training Bulletin #59, “Methods for Painful Stimuli, the only approved method (s) of painful stimuli in the County of Los Angeles is / are:
inter-digital pressure
According to TB #100 “Determination of Death”, occasionally, law enforcement personnel will restrict Department members from entering a location to pronounce a dead body. If access to a dead body is restricted, members shall not complete a medical report for any patient they did not assess and a/an ___ shall be requested
EMS captain
According to TB #100 “Determination of Death”, post-mortem rigor affects the entire body within___ after death and dissipates generally after 48 hours
10 to 12 hours
According to TB #100 “Determination of Death”, if a dead body must be moved in emergency situations, the body may be moved to:
the most accessible receiving facility
a safe location
According to TB #100 “Determination of Death”, when members are evaluating a patient with post mortem rigor or lividity to determine life status, they must ensure that a proper assessment is completed which includes all of the following
Auscultating the apical pulse for a min 60 sec
palpating the carotid pulse for min 60 sec
checking for pupil response with a penlight or flashlight
A response to painful stimuli
According to TB #100 “Determination of Death”, post-mortem lividity generally appears with a gradual onset but not less than ____
30 minutes
According to TB #107 “Mark l Auto-Injector”, auto-injectors are simple compact injectio systems that come equipped with a pre-measured amount of antidote.
auto injectors should be used:
When signs and symptoms of exposure are present
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector any patient sick enough to receive even one dose from the auto-injector should immediately be placed under medical observation for at least___ 24 hours since signs and symptoms of nerve agent may re-appear.
24 hours
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector, the Mark l auto injector kit has a ___ shelf life.
5 year
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector ___ should always be given first to reverse the effects of the nerve agent on the respiratory system.
Atropine
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector should a member inject himself or herself with the auto-injector, the member’s immediate supervisor shall make all of the following notifications:
medical liason
ems battalion captain
safety officers
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector when auto-injector use is indicated, the recommended procedure is to inject contents of the auto-injector into the muscle of the anterolateral thigh and press hard until the injector functions. Hold firmly in place for__
10 seconds
According to TB #107 Mark l Auto-Injector the auto-injector should be used by trained personnel only after all of the following have occurred:
all personnel have removed themselves from the affected area
all personnel have initiated emergency decon
Tightness in the chest or difficulty breathing
sudden excessive flow of saliva and stomach cramps
According to DB#15-15, Patient Disposition Policy Revisions- Formally PRG, which of the following would not be considered an Acute Life Threatening Event (ALTE) for a child who is less than 12 months old?
apnea
chocking or gagging
***ingestion of a toxic or poisonous substance **
cyanosis
marked change in muscle tone
According to DB#15-15, Patient Disposition Policy Revisions- Formally PRG, ALS transport and Base Station contact is required for an incident with multiple patients of ___ patients or more requiring transport:
5
According to DB#15-15, Patient Disposition Policy Revisions- Formally PRG, extensive burns requiring ALS transport and Base Station contact is defined in the PDP as all of the following :
10% or greater Body Surface area in infants
15% or greater body surface area in childeren
20% or greater Body surface area in adults
According to Book 100, “ Highs Rise Manual”, the basic parameters to formulate a salvage plan includes all of the following
Determining the origin of the problem
amount of water present
anticipated flow
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, salvage operations should begin where the greatest loss is expected which generally?
the floor or origin
the floor directly below the fire
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the total lose due to a structure fire is a result of:
direct and indirect loss
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the best method for removing large quantities of water from the upper floors of a high-rise building is?
channeling
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, priorities of salvage operations should be quickly established and based on?
type of occupancy
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the accumulation of water resulting from fire suppression operations should be a concern for department personnel due to ?
structural collapse potential
According to Book 100, “High Rise Manual”, the main focus in salvage operations is the control of water and __?
keeping water out of elevator shafts, machinery rooms, and electrical rooms
According to Book 92, “Tactical Alert Operations Manual”, preplanning in anticipation for an event based on information received by primary agencies sucha s the LAFD, LAPD, LASD, or CHP best describes:
Tactical alert/ Phase l
According to Book 92, “Tactical Alert Operations Manual”, implementation of tactical operations plans best describer:
Tactical Alert/Phase ll
According to Book 92, “Tactical Alert Operations Manual”, any unexpected event, whether a civil disturbance or natural disaster, which has the potential of severely taxing Dept resources best describes:
spontaneous event
According to Book 92, “Tactical Alert Operations Manual”, , the term used to describe an expansion of the incident command function primarily designed to manage a very large incident that has multiple incident command teams assigned best describers?
area command
According to Book 92, “Tactical Alert Operations Manual”, what is the organizational level having functional or geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations
branch directors
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, the state of California required the installation of residential sprinklers in all of the following
single family dwellings
two family dwellings
manufactured homes
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, home sprinkler systems use sprinkler heads whose temperature range from ___
135 to 175 degrees
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, which of the following areas are sprinklers required:
livable areas of homes
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, water supply for residential sprinkler systems can be obtained by connecting to the domestic water supply. Piping beyond the street shut-off shall be installed in such a manner that the supply to the sprinklers:
shall not be turned off when the domestic system is being serviced.
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, the dept of building and safety requires a minimum water demand capable of flowing ___ heads for period of ___.
2 heads
10 min
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, residential sprinkler heads cover a (an) ___area. Special extended coverage sprinklers can cover a (an)____ area
12 ft x 12ft
20ft x 20ft
According to TB #149 “residential sprinkler systems”, “residential sprinkler heads are subject to chief’s reg # 4 testing
they are not
According to TB #157 “Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag” the development of the backpack was designed for the treatment of ___ pts
2
According to TB #157 “Trauma Treatment and Evacuation Aid Bag” the trauma treatment and evacuation aid bag was designed to treat trauma injuries during all of the following:
(AMIE)
Active shooter
Multi-casualty
Injured hikers
Eearthquake
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, a grievant has the responsibility to discuss the grievance informally with?
immediate supervisor
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, a grievance is defined as any dispute concerning the interpretation or application of the MOU or departmental rules and regulations governing?
personnel practices
working conditions
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, steps and time limits to the grievance process may be waived by?
Mutual agreement
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, which step in the grievance process is an optional step which may be waived by either the union or the department?
step 4
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, a grievance shall be considered waived if not presented to the immediate supervisor withing ___- following the day during which the event upon the grievance is based occurred
15 calendar days
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, under which of the following situations may a grievance be filed?
a 14 day suspension
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, during step 3 of the grievance procedure, the grievant will meet with ___ in an attempt to resolve his/her grievance.
Fire Chief or designee
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, during the grievance procedures, under what circumstances may a grievance representative be present during the presentation of a grievance to a member’s supervisor at the informal level?
when the member desires
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, when a member files a grievance, the immediate supervisor shall notify the grievant and process the necessary paperwork within ___ following his/her meeting with grievant.
15 calendar days
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, the report the informal grievance discussion is form?
F-2226A
According to the 2014-16 Memorandum of Understanding, if the grievance is not settled at the informal discussion level, the grievant may serve written notice of the grievance on form ?
f-226b
According to DB #14-04 “NFPA 704 Warning Placards”, combustible metal (titanium, magnesium, zirconium and aluminum ) shall be indicated with an “M” in the fourth space (special information) of 704 placard when the quantities exceed:
500 lbs
According to DB #14-04 “NFPA 704 Warning Placards” which of the following statements regarding the hazard symbol of “LW” in the fourth space (special information) of a 704 placard is correct?
all are correct
indicates excessive moisture will severely affect the value of the building or contents
indicates excessive smoke will severely affect the value of the building or contents
is not required by the LAFD
According to DB #13-04 “ Dangers of Vacant/ Abandoned Buildings” installation and posting of placards withing the City of Los Angeles of a vacant building shall be located :
on at least two sides of the structure
According to TB #31 “ploycarbonate windows” the correct method for cutting lexan windows includes all of the following
use the rotary saw
use carbide tipped wood cutting blade
cut on all sides of the desired opening
According to TB #4 “Gasoline Tank Truck/ Trailer Incidents”, during a gasoline tanker incident, potential sources of ignition should be eliminated a minimum of _
100 feet
