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A. PEDIA BOARD REVIEW > Cancer & Benign Tumors Chap 491 -507 > Flashcards

Cancer & Benign Tumors Chap 491 -507 Flashcards

1
Q

AR: Anaphylaxis

A 
Cyclophosphamide 
Ifosfamide
L - asparaginasa
Cisplatin
Carboplatin
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2
Q

AR: Hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide

Ifosfamide

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3
Q

AR: Cardiac toxicity

A

Doxorubicin

Ifosfamide

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4
Q

AR: SIADH

A

Vincristine
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide

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5
Q

AR: Raynaud Phenomenon

A

Bleomycin

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6
Q

AR: Ototoxicity, Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

A

Carboplatin

Cisplatin

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7
Q

AR: Pseudomotor cerebri

A

Tretinoin

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8
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome

A

Hyperuricemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyperkalemia

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9
Q

Prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

TMP-SMX

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10
Q

MC malignant neoplasm in childhood

A

Leukemia

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11
Q

Initial chemotherapy to eradicate leukemic cells from the bone marrow

A

Remission induction

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12
Q

<5% blasts in the marrow post initial chemo

A

Remission

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13
Q

> 25% lymphoblasts

A

ALL

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14
Q

> 20% blasts cells in early differentiation states of yhe myeloid-monocyte-megakaryocyte series

A

AML

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15
Q

Subcutaneous nodules or blueberry muffin lesions in addition to marrow failure

A

AML

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15
Q

Subcutaneous nodules or blueberry muffin lesions in addition to marrow failure

A

AML

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16
Q

Disseminated Vascular Coagulation

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

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17
Q

Chloromas or granulocytic sarcomas (discrete masses) that may occur in the absence of apparent bone marrow involvement

A

AML

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18
Q

Philadelphia chromosome - translocation (9;22)

BCR-ABL

A

CML

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19
Q

Younger than 2 years old
Rashes, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hemorrhagic manifestations
PBS: increased monocytes, anemia with erythroblasts

A

JMML

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20
Q

Before 1 year of age
Hyperleukocytosis, organomegaly, subcutaneois nodules (leukemia cutis)
Large irregular lymphoblasts
Negative for CD10

A

Infant ALL

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21
Q

MC cancer in adolescents

A

Lymphoma

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22
Q

Virus associated with 4x risk in developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Ebstein-Barr virus

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23
Q

Pathognomonic feature of Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cell

- large cell with multiple nuclei

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24
Q

Presents with painless, nontender, firm, ruberry, cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy

Unexplained fever >38, weight loss >10%, night sweats

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

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25
Q

B symptoms important in staging

A

Unexplained fever >38
weight loss >10%
night sweats

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26
Q

Staging classification for Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor staging

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27
Q

Staging classification for Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor staging

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28
Q

SINGLE lymph node involvement or single extralymphatic site

A

Stage I

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29
Q

TWO or MORE lymph nodes on the SAME side of diaphragm or localized involvement of extralymphatic organ or site

A

Stage II

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30
Q

Involvement of lymph nodes on BOTH sides of the diaphragm

May be accompanied by spleen involvement

A

Stage III

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31
Q

DIFFUSE or disseminated involvement of 1 or more extralymphatic organs

A

Stage IV

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32
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as an..
Intrathoracic or mediastinal supradiaphragmatic mass
With predilection of spreading to bone marrow and CNS

A

Lymphoblastic Lymphoma

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32
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as an..
Intrathoracic or mediastinal supradiaphragmatic mass
With predilection of spreading to bone marrow and CNS

A

Lymphoblastic Lymphoma

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33
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as an..
Abdominal (sporadic) or head & neck (endemic) mass
With predilection of spreading to bone marrow or CNS

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

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34
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as an..
Abdominal (sporadic) or head & neck (endemic) mass
With predilection of spreading to bone marrow or CNS

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

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35
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as an..
Abdominal or mediastinal mass
Rarely metastasize to bone marrow and CNS

A

Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma

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36
Q

Non Hodgkin Lymphoma subtype that manifests as a..
Cutaneous or systemic disease
With predilection of spreading to liver, spleen, lungs or mediastinum
Rare bone marrow or CNS disease

A

Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma

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37
Q

Premature hand preference

A

Supratentorial tumor

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38
Q

Triad of headache, nausea, vomiting with papilledema

A

Midline or infratentorial tumors

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39
Q

Torticollis

A

Cerebellar tonsil herniation

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40
Q

Failure to thrive, emaciation despite normal caloric intake, inappropriately happy affect

A

Diencephalic syndrome

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41
Q

Upward gaze paresis, pupils reactive to accommodation but NOT TO LIGHT, nystagmus to convergence or retraction, eyelid retraction

A

Parinaud syndrome

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42
Q

T/F: In newly diagnosed hydrocephalus secondary to CSF flow obstruction, Lumbar puncture is contraindicated

A

True

43
Q

T/F: In newly diagnosed INFRATENTORIAL tumors with signs of INCREASED ICP, Lumbar puncture is contraindicated

A

True

44
Q

MC astrocytoma in children

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

45
Q

Classically presents in the CEREBELLUM
Appears as a contrast medium-enhancibg module within the wall of a cystic mass
In microscopy: biphasic appearance of bundles of compact fibrillary tissue with lose, microcystic, spongy areas
(+) ROSENTHAL FIBERS (condensed masses of glial filaments)

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma

46
Q

Pilocytic Astrocytoma of the optic nerve is associated with

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1

47
Q

Dense cellularity, high mitotic index, microvascular proliferation, FOCI of TUMOR NECROSIS

A

Glioblastoma Multiforme

48
Q

Cerebral cortex mass arising from the white matter consisting of rounded cells with little cytoplasm and microcalcifications
(+) seizure

CT: Calcified cortical mass

A

Ologodendrioglioma

49
Q

Brain tumor associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome

A

Choroid plexus tumors

50
Q

Immunopositive for TRANSTHYRETIN (prealbumin)

A

Choroid plexus carcinoma

51
Q

MC group of malignant CNS tumors of childhood

A

Embryonal tumors

52
Q

CT: solid homogenous contrast enhancing mass in the posterior fossa, with noted fourth ventricular obstruction and hydrocephalus
Histo: monomorphic sheet of undifferentiated cells (small, blue, round cells), (+) Homer Wright rosettes

Most commonly seen at the CEREBELLAR VERMIS
Male, 5-7 yrs
Immunopositive for synaptophysin

A

Medulloblastoma

53
Q

Alpha feto protein

Beta HCG

A

Germ cell tumor

54
Q

MC extracranial solid tumor in children

A

Neuroblastoma

55
Q

Bluish subcutaneous nodules, orbital proptosis, and periorbital ecchymoses

A

Neuroblastoma

56
Q

Homovallinic acid and vanillylmandelic acid elevated in urine

Small round blue tumor cells in biopsy

A

Neuroblastoma

57
Q

Confined and completely resected Neuroblastoma

A

Stage 1

58
Q

Neuroblastoma that extend beyond the organ but do not cross midline

A

Stage 2

  • 2A - without lymph node involvement
  • 2B - with ipsilateral lymph node involvement
59
Q

Neuroblastoma tumor that extend beyond midline

A

Stage 3

60
Q

Neuroblastoma tumor that is disseminated or with metastases

A

Stage 4

61
Q

MC primary malignant renal tumor

A

Wilms tumor

62
Q

Asymptomatic abdominal mass
Hypertensiom
Abdominal pain, painless gross hematuria, fever

A

Wilms tumor

63
Q

MC solid renal tumor diagnosed in neonatal period

A

Mesoblastic Nephroma

64
Q

MC pedia soft tissue sarcoma

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

65
Q

3 histologic subtypes of Rhabdomyosarcoma

A
  1. Embryonal (60%) - MC
  2. Alveolar - worst prognosis
  3. Pleomorphic - adult form, rare
66
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma that is seen as a bunch of grapes

A

Botroid type (variant of embryonal)

67
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma tumir cells that grow in NESTS that often have cleft-like spaces

MC in trunk & extremities

A

Alveolar

68
Q

T/F: Absence of anaplasia in histologic findings of Wilms tumor givea a favorable pronosis

A

True

69
Q

MC primary malignant bone tumor in children and adolescents

A

Osteosarcoma

70
Q 
SPINDLE cell producing Osteoid
METAPHYSES of long bone
SUNBURST appearance in Xray
SCLEROTIC destruction of bones
History of INJURY
Invasion of the MEDULLARY cavity of long bones
A

Osteosarcoma

71
Q

Sites of metastasis for Osteosarcoma and Ewing Sarcoma

A

Lungs

Bone

72
Q

Undifferentiated small round cell tumor
DIAPHYSES of long bones (Shaft)
ONION - SKINNING in Xray
Lytic, multilaminar periosteal reaction

A

Ewing sarcoma

73
Q

Bone neoplasm associated with Retinoblastoma

A

Osteosarcoma

74
Q

A low-grade, well differentiated tumor variant of Osteosarcoma that DOES NOT INVADE the medullary cavity and is usually found in the posterior aspect of the distal femur

Surgical resection is CURATIVE

A

Pareosteal Osteosarcoma

75
Q

Reactive to muscle markers desmin and actin

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

76
Q

Pain, swelling, limitation of motion and tenderness over the affected bone WITH SYSTEMIC manifestations of fever and weight loss

A

Ewing sarcoma

77
Q

T/F: Pelvic tumors have poor prognosis

A

True

78
Q

Bone xray: stalks or broad based projections from the surface of the bone, away from adjacent joint

Asymptomatic, Enlarges with the child
Bony, non painful mass

A

Osteochondroma (exostosis)

*routine removal is not performed

79
Q

Benign lesion of hyaline cartilage
Asymptomatic
Pathologic fractures

Xray: radiolucent, sharply marginated lesion in the medullary canal, punctate or stippled calcification may be present

A

Endochondroma

80
Q

Multifocal endochondromas that result in short stature, limb length inequality and joint deformity

*high rate of malignant transformation

A

Ollier disease

*surgery may be necessary to correct/prevent deformity

81
Q

Myltiple endochondromas associated with angiomas of the soft tissue

*high rate of malignant transformation

A

Maffucci syndrome

82
Q

Small benign bone tumor
Male predominance
Unremitting and gradually increasing pain often worst at night, RELIEVED BY ASPIRIN
Common at the proximal femur and tibia

A

Osteoid Osteoma

*surgery

83
Q

MC intraocula tumor in children

A

Retinoblastoma

84
Q

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex)

A

Retinoblastoma

85
Q

Bilateral retinoblastoma plus pineal area tumor

A

Trilateral Retinoblastoma

*universally fatal

86
Q

Syndrome that is at increased risk for mediastinal Germ Cell Tumor

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

87
Q

T/F: The risk for testicular cancer in patients with Cryptorchidism is REDUCED BUT NOT ELIMINATED if orchipexy is performed before 13 years old

A

True

88
Q

Tumor markers for GCT

A

Serum AFP

Serum Beta HCG

89
Q

MC site for teratomas

A

Sacrococcygeal region

90
Q

Tumor marker negative massess of the gonads despite being malignant

A

Germinomas

  • Dysgerminoma - ovary
  • Seminoma - testis
91
Q

Treatment for intracranial germ cell tumors

A

Rafiatiom and chemotherapy

92
Q

Most predictive factor of survival for extragonadal GCTS

A

Age

*>12 years old have 4x higher risk of death

93
Q

T/F: Prematurity & LBW have increased incidence of hepatoblastoma

A

True

94
Q

More favorable histology subtype in hepatoblastoma

A

Pure histology

95
Q

Hepatoblastoma arises more often in what lobe

A

Right lobe

96
Q

Tumor marker for hepatoblastoma to be used in diagnosis and monitoring

A

Serum AFP

97
Q

Chemotherapy used for hepatoblastoma

A

Cisplatin
Vincristine
5-FU or Doxorubicin

98
Q

Carcinoma associated with Hepatitis

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

99
Q

Multicentric, invasive tumor consisting of large pleomorphic cells of epithelial origin of the liver

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

100
Q

Metastatic spread of liver tumors

A

Regional lymph nodes and lungs

101
Q

MC benign tumor of infancy

A

Hemangioma

102
Q

Primary site of of visceral involvement for hemangioma

A

Liver

103
Q

Xommon complication of hemangioma

A

Ulceration

104
Q

Rapidly enlarging vascilar lesion, thrombocytopenia, microangipathic hemolytic anemia, and coagulopathy

A

Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

105
Q

Second most common benign vascular tumors in children

A

Lymphangiomas

106
Q

Effective sclerosing agent for Cystic Hygroma

A

Bleomycin

A. PEDIA BOARD REVIEW (13 decks)

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