C/B final Flashcards

1
Q

anatomy of language is lateralized to ___

A

LH

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2
Q

-regions surrounding Sylvian fissure
-left perisylvian language network
-variation among individuals, therefore cortical stimulation mapping to locate language areas is routine before surgical removal of tumors or epileptic foci

A

anatomy of language

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3
Q

where is wernicke’s area

A

Superior temporal gyrus

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4
Q

where is Broca’s area and insular cortex

A

inferior frontal cortex

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5
Q

where is the supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus

A

inferior parietal lobe

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6
Q

what areas are important to language

A

-Superior temporal gyrus
-temporal cortex
-inferior parietal lobe
-inferior frontal cortex

*THINK STII

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7
Q

deficits in language comprehension and production

A

aphasia

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8
Q

-expressive aphasia
-hard time speaking
-referred to telegraphic speech
-syntax aphasia (easier to understand that boy hit girl not girl was hit by a boy)
-pars triangular and pars opercularis –> broca’s area

A

broca’s aphasia

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9
Q

T or F
not all patients with damage to broca’s are will have speech problems

A

true

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10
Q

-comprehension problems

A

wernicke’s aphasia

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11
Q

what connects both wernicke and and Broca’s area

A

arcuate fasciculus

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12
Q

T or F
if wernicke is not affected but arcuate fasciculus is then there won’t be comprehension problems

A

False

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13
Q

inability to find words to label things
ex. tip of the tongue phenonmenon

A

anomia

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14
Q

difficulty controlling articulatory muscles

A

dysarthria

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15
Q

deficits in motor planning of articulations

A

speech apraxia

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16
Q

difficulty coordinating speech

A

developmental dyspraxia

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17
Q

retrieval error

A

agnosia

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18
Q

lose ability to do something

A

apraxia

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19
Q

partially lose the ability to do something

A

dyspraxia

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20
Q

inability to read words despite other language processes being intact
-due to damage in the MEDIAL OCCIPITOTEMPORAL GYRUS or VISUAL WORD FORM AREA (VWFA(

A

Alexia (root word)

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21
Q

inability to write, motor dysfunction

A

agraphasia

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22
Q

what can patients do with Alexia without agraphia

A

-can write but cannot read
-can write because their language areas are still connected to motor areas
-letter by letter reading compensation mechanism – slower

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23
Q

vision based

A

orthographic

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24
Q

stored representations (words, meanings, concepts, and rules)

A

mental lexicon

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25
Q

we see or hear a word and then need to retrieve the word from our mental lexicon

A

lexical access

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26
Q

making a selection

A

lexical selection

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27
Q

words are integrated into the message (sentence, larger context to facilitate understanding)

A

lexical integration

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28
Q

smallest meaningful represention
- ex. root word such as frost in defrost and defroster
-pre and suffix also changes meaning of words

A

morpheme

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29
Q

smallest unit of sound
-combine to form syllables

A

phoneme

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30
Q

what are the 4 principles of lexical organization

A
  1. morpheme
  2. how frequently a word is used/how common It is
  3. phoneme
  4. representations organized into semantic relationships
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31
Q

explains semantic priming during word recognition

A

connectionist model of the mental lexicon

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32
Q

T or F
high level semantic representions are not distributed throughout the brain and are confined to the LH

A

F

high level semantic representions ARE distributed throughout the brain and are NOT confined to the LH

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33
Q

type of language output error commonly associated with aphasia
-characterized by the production of unintended syllables, words or phrases during the effort to speak

A

paraphasia

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34
Q

wernicke’s aphasia –> ___ ___
-might say horse instead of cow
-this shows that cow and horse are probably connected in the brain

A

semantic paraphasia

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35
Q

deep dyslexia likely commit to ___ ___ when reading

A

semantic paraphasia

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36
Q

difficultly visually recognizing words

A

surface dyslexia

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37
Q

difficulty assigning objects to a category
-might say animal instead of cow
-shows how these words are categorized

A

semantic dementia

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38
Q

highest perceptual ability to distinguish phonemes is within the ___ year

A

first

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39
Q

how do we differentiate auditory sounds into separate words

A

segmentation problem

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40
Q

spoken input = ?

A

understanding speech

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41
Q

sound perception relies on the ___ ___ ___

A

superior temporal cortex

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42
Q

area sensitive to speech and non speech sounds

A

-heschl’s gyrus containing the primary auditory cortex

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43
Q

area sensitive to speech sounds

A

STS part of the secondary auditory cortex

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44
Q

areas sensitive to words (lexical-semantic info)

A

inferior temporal gyrus, angular gyrus, temporal pole

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45
Q

when some biological function takes a novel advantage of another function

A

exaptation

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46
Q

language was exapted from thinking, for communication

A

Gould’s theory

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47
Q

suggested language arose from a combo of gestures and facial movements, speculating that mirror neurons are a piece of the language puzzle

A

rizzolatti & arbib

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48
Q

-altering the sequence to match the human gene, in mice, resulted in higher synaptic plasticity
-many of the genes regulated involve motor function

A

FOXP2 gene

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49
Q

represents a dramatic dysregulation of motivational circuits that is caused by a combo of exaggerated incentive salience and habit formation, reward deficits and stress surfeits, and compromised executive function (response inhibition, decision making, working memory) in 3 stages

A

drug addiction

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50
Q

chronic relapsing disorder characterized by

A
  1. compulsion to seek and take the drug
  2. loss off control in limiting intake and continued use despite the negative consequences
  3. emergence of a negative emotional state (ex. dysphoria, anxiety, irritability) reflecting a motivational withdrawal syndrome when drug access is prevented
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51
Q

people with fewer __ receptors are more likely to become addicted than those with many of the receptors

A

D2

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52
Q

concerns the extent to which your test or measure accurately assesses what its supposed to
-are you testing what you think you’re testing

A

construct validity

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53
Q

refers to the ability of a test or other measurement to predict a future outcome
-an outcome can be a behavior, performance, or even a disease that occurs at some point in the future

A

predictive validity

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54
Q

incentive salience / “wanting” is generated by neural systems that include mesolimbic ____

A

DA

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55
Q

LIKING / or the actual pleasurable impact of reward consumption, is mediated by different neural systems and is ____ dependent on DA (involved opioids

A

NOT

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56
Q

essence of drug addiction to be excessive amplification specifically of psychological ‘wanting’, especially triggered by cures without necessarily an amplification of ‘liking’

*DUE TO SENSITIZATION (plasticity) of dopaminergic systems in susceptible individuals

A

incentive-sensitization theory

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57
Q

binge/intoxicaitno stage involve changes in DA and opioid peptides in the _____ ___

A

basal ganglia

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58
Q

craving and deficits in executive function in the ______ involve dysregulation of key afferent protections from the ___ ___ and insult, to the basal ganglia and extended amygdala

A
  1. preoccupation/anticipation stage
  2. prefrontal cortex
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59
Q

negative emotional states and dysphoric and stress-like responses in the ______ involve decreases in DA function and recruitment of brain stress NT such as corticosteroidstropin releasing factor and dynorphin in the neurocircuitry of the _____ ____

A
  1. withdrawal/negative affect stage
  2. extended amygdala
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60
Q

-*motivation linked with hedonic, affective, or ,emotional states in the transition to addiction
-these states are automatically modulated by mechanisms that reduce the intensity of hedonic feelings
-positive hedonic responses in drug use occur shortly after presentation of a stimulus, correlate closely with the intensity of hedonic feeling
–the role of the opponent processes begins early in drug taking, reflects changes in the brain reward and stress systems, and later forms one of the major motivations for compulsivity in drug taking in the form of a motivational withdrawal syndrome

A

Solomon’s opponent process theory

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61
Q

alcohol and drug releases DA and opioid peptides into the ____ _____

A

ventral striatum

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62
Q

T or F
D2 receptor activation not sufficient for drug reward – they may even limit drug reward

A

True

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63
Q

motivation for rewards derived from both one’s physiological state previously learned association about a reward cue that is mediated by the mesocortoicolimbic DA system

A

incentive salience

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64
Q

___ - ____ is observed when conditioned responding is directed toward the CS whereas goal-tracking manifest as responding directed to the SITE OF EXPECTED REWARD DELIVERY

A

sign-tracking

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65
Q

dopamine neurons initially fire in response to ______

-after repeated exposure, they stop firing during predictable reward delivery and instead dire during exposure to stimuli predictive of the reward

A

novel reward

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66
Q

pathway of habit formation, compulsivity, encoding behavioral automaticity

A

ventral striatum –> stratal-globus pallidalthalamocotrical loops –> dorsal

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67
Q

predisposition toward rapid, unplanned reactions to internal and external stimuli without regard for the negative consequences of these reactions to themselves or others

-often accompanied by feelings of pleasure or gratification

A

impulsivity

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68
Q

manifestation of preservative, repetitive actions that are excessive and inappropriate

-often performed to reduce tension or anxiety from obsessive thoughts

A

compulsivity

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69
Q

decrease in DA, 5HT, and GABA, increases in glutamate and u-opioid receptors responsively in the NAC during drug withdrawal

A

withdrawal

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70
Q

what are the 3 things that are recruited in the extended amygdala and contribute to the development of negative emotional states in acts withdrawal and protracted abstinence

A

CRF, Norepinephrine, an dynorphin

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71
Q

elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), corticosterone, and CRF in amygdala during ______ _____

A

acute withdrawal

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72
Q

_____ & ____ are antagonists in the NAC block anxiety and stress-like effects of withdrawal

A

CRF & KOR

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73
Q

decreases in ____ in the NAC can also be driven by increases in the activity of the KOR system in the NAC and possibly increases in the activity of CRF int eh VTA, which contributes to the negative emotional state associated with withdrawal

A

DA

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74
Q

____ _____ plays a key role in mediating and encoding aversive states

-controls decrease in DA firing in the VTA associated with failure to receive an expected reward

A

lateral habenula

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75
Q

combo of decreases in reward function and increases in stress function in the motivational circuits of the (what 3 regions) is a power trigger of negative reinforcement that contributes to compulsive drug seeking behavior and addiction

A

ventral striatum, extended amygdala, and habenula

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76
Q

stage in which individuals reinstate drug-seeking behavior after abstinence remains a focus for identifying neurobiology mechanism of relapse and the development of medications for treatment

A

preoccupation/anticipation stage

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77
Q

deficits in executive function ex. impulsivity reflected by decreases in FRONTAL CORTEX that interfere with decision making, self regulation, inhibitory control , and WM, might involve disrupted _______ activity in PFC

A

GABAergic

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78
Q

cues, drug prime, and stress can contribute to ____

A

relapse (reinstatement)

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79
Q

in rats

GLUT projection from PFC to NAC that is modulated by DA

A

drug-induced reinstatement

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80
Q

-in rats
GLUT protection from PFC< BLA< and ventral subiculum to the NAC; DA modulation in the BLA and dorsal stratum

A

cue-induced reinstatement

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81
Q

-in rats
CRF and NE in extended amygdala

A

stress-induced reinstatement

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82
Q

in humans

dLPFC, anterior cingulate gyrus, and medial OFC

A

cue-induced reinstatement

83
Q

neurological processes evolved to guide behavior

-consists of NEURAL CIRCUITS and RESPONSE SYSTEM
-involves APPRAISAL PROCESSES

A

emotions

84
Q

short term, discrete emotions

A

affect

85
Q

more diffuse, longer-lasting state
-enduring subjective feelings without identifiable trigger
-no well defined neuro-hormonal substrate

A

mood

86
Q

multiple components —> coordinated

A

conventional view of emotion

87
Q

central emotional state causes multiple parallel responses

A

Anderson & adolph’s theory

88
Q

emotions are composed of what 3 things

A
  1. physiological state
  2. behavioral state (expression/actions, etc.)
  3. cognitive state (subjective experience/feeling)
89
Q

acute HPA response –> ?

A

state

90
Q

chronic stress can lead to changes in ___ functioning which can in turn lead to mood and anxiety disorder

A

HPA

91
Q

critical to many theories of emotions

-HPA axis
-reticular activation system
——attention, arousal, modulation of muscle tone, and ability to focus
-amygdala

A

arousal

92
Q

basal and lateral amygdala (BLA) — escape and avoidance

A

neural signatures

93
Q

-medial temporal lobe lesions
-lack of fear manifested by a tendency to approach objects that would normally elicit a fear response

A

Kulver-Bucy syndrome

94
Q

___ is the forebrain’s most connected structure

A

amygdala

95
Q

_____ is responsive to positive and negative valanced stimuli

A

amygdala

96
Q

amygdala is sensitive to changes in ___ ___

A

emotional intensity

97
Q

T or F
amygdala is more flexible when It comes to negative stimuli than positive stimuli

A

F
LESS FLEXIBLE

98
Q

creation of new associative memory can inhibit the original fear memory

A

extinction

99
Q

fear response in the same context

A

spontaneous recovery

100
Q

fear response in different context

A

contextual renewal

101
Q

fear exposure upon re-exposure to the US

A

reinstatement

102
Q

______ lesions block ability to aquire and express CR (freezing) to a neutral CS (cue or context) that is paired with an aversive US (shock)

A

amygdala

103
Q

can the cortex generate physiological changes associated with fear

A

no because there is no link to the amygdala & its midbrain connections

104
Q

a person can know something bad is going to happed but still experience no fear

A

explicit fear

105
Q

learning via someone else’s experience other than you own can lead to conditioning

A

implicit fear

106
Q

-thalamaus to amygdala
-fast, crude
-allows for immediate response

A

low road

107
Q

thalamus to cortex to amygdala
-slower + finer
-allows for cognitive assessment

A

high road

108
Q

role of amygdala during emotional arousal and memory consolidation

A

James McGaugh

109
Q

ability to recollect arousing and non-arousing events may be similar immediately after they occur but arousing events are NOT forgotten as quickly as non-arousing events

A

arousal enhances memory (retention)

110
Q

amygdala modulates the hippocampus through ____

A

NE

111
Q

consolidation might “tag” as important for long-tern retention not only emotional events, but also weak memories related to emotional events

A

synaptic tag capture

112
Q

T or F
acute stress may facilitate memory

-NE in amygdala and hippocampus via consolidation

A

T

113
Q

T or F
chronic stress doesn’t impair memory

-glucocorticoids in hippocampus

A

F
it may

114
Q

functional connectivity btw AMY & HPC grows stronger –> may contribute to ?

A

dysregulation of NE system in a way that results in generalization

115
Q

perception of internal states

A

interoception

116
Q

thirst, touch, itch, distention of the bladder and intestinal tract, exercise, heartbeat

A

representation of bodily signals

117
Q

posterior insular

A

sexual desire

118
Q

anterior insula

A

romantic love

119
Q

insular activity associated with ___ ___

A

evaluative processing

120
Q

patients with insular lesions report both reduced ___ and reduced __ ratings

A

arousal, valence

121
Q

insula activity associated with what emotion

A

disgust

122
Q

left insula

A

anger

123
Q

attention
evaluation
response

A

emotion regulation

124
Q

changing input to regulate emotion consists of

A

-avoiding stimulus altogether
-changing ATTENTION paid to it
-altering emotional impact of the stimulus by REAPPRAISAL (evaluation)

125
Q

changing output to regulate emotion consists of

A

-intensifying/diminishign
-proloning/curtailing
-emotinal experience, expression, or physiological RESPONSE

126
Q

CBT often involves _____

-involves using cognitive and linguistic processes to reframe or reinterpret the meaning of a stimulus or situation in order to up or down regulate the emotions

A

reappraisal

127
Q

changes in social behavior and perception of social contexts

A

personality changes

128
Q

frontal lobe (OFC) damage in railroad accident

A

Phineas gage

129
Q

person doesn’t have emotion (numb)

A

blunted affect

130
Q

regions implicated in self-referencing

A

IPFC (dlPFC) & mPFC (vmPFC)

131
Q

contributions from subjective feelings come from

A

mPFC

132
Q

when we try to understand others (ToM, mentalizing, empathy, etc.)

A

mPFC & IPFC

133
Q

many areas including insula, TPJ, medial parietal cortex

A

mirror neurons

134
Q

do we use memories of our own past actions to judge our personality traits

A

no

135
Q

can u maintain a sense of self even if u are robbed of autobiographical memories

A

yes

u may not recognize urself in the mirror but know that you are stubborn

136
Q

what region of the brain is involved in insight, accurate perceptions

A

OFC

137
Q

infer a persons mental state from what we know about their past and current situation, family, culture, eye gaze direction, body language, etc.

A

mental state attribution theory

138
Q

we simply observe someone else’s behavior, stimulate it, and use our own mental state produced by that simulation to predict the mental state of the other

A

experience sharing theory

139
Q

representing another’s internal state within our own bodies – embodied simulation

A

empathy

140
Q

perceivers ability to correctly infer another person’s thoughts and feeling
strangers: 20%, close friends 30%, romantic partners 35%

A

empathic accuracy

141
Q

recognizing that other people possess mental states different from your own an being able to explain and predict their behavior as a result

A

theory of mind / mentalizing

142
Q

babies imitate others from the age ___ mins

A

42

143
Q

sally placing marble in basket and leaving room then anne moves marble into drawer but then sally asks where she will look for the marble

A

sally-anne false belief task

144
Q

____ mPFC actuation for self perceptions and for perceptions of “similar” people

A

ventral

145
Q

____ mPFC activated for perceptions of “dissimilar” people

A

dorsal

146
Q

what regions involved in mirror neurons

A

rostral inferior frontal and inferior parietal lobes

147
Q

aware of social norms but fail to conform to them, lack of empathy, impulse control, aggressive behavior, communication deficits, repetitive behaviors

A

antisocial personality disorder (APD)

148
Q

-deficits in social perception (perceiving soul cues from facial expressions, eye gaze, body motion), social knowledge (being aware of social norms), and theory of mind

A

SZ

149
Q

poor performance on the reading in the minds eye test (RMET), impairments with theory of mind, tend to perform better on social tasks if given explicit instructions, usually appears in the first 2 years of life, repetitive behaviors

-hyperconnectivity within frontal lobe
-decreased long range connectivity
-decreased reciprocal interactions with other cortical regions

A

autism spectrum disorder

150
Q

having had one pregnancy/birth

A

primiparous

151
Q

having had multiple pregnancies / birth

A

multiparous

152
Q

having no pregnancies or births

A

nulliparous

153
Q

maternal sensitization process takes __-___ days depending on the strain and numerous other experimental conditions

A

2-10

154
Q

______ eliminates these aversive properties & results in a rapid onset of maternal behavior

A

anosmia

155
Q

___ & ___ somatosensory cues are essential for both the onset and maintenance of maternal responsiveness in rats

A

perioral and ventral

156
Q

______ cries helps mom find her babies, not step on them, and feed them when they are hungry

A

ultrasonic

157
Q

T or F
smell of pups in virgin females help them be more maternal

A

F
it prevents them
-it elicits fear and they sometimes cannibilize the pups

158
Q

what happens during parturition

A

-decrease progesterone during parturition but high during pregnancy
-peak estrogen levels at partnirition

159
Q

social bonds may act as a ____ against stress

A

buffer

160
Q

_____ plays a role in inhibiting threat responding and extinguishing learned fear via inhibitory connection with the amygdala

A

vmPFC

161
Q

giving support correlates with activity in the ___ ___ & ___ ___ area in parents

A

ventral striatum and septal area

162
Q

ventral striatum is also more active when giving ___ support to others than when benefiting the self

A

financial support

163
Q

global physiological and psychological state of there organism
-best thought of on a continuum ranging from sleep sleep to hyper focused

A

arousal

164
Q

-not a global brain state
-at any level of arousal, it is the allocation of attention among relative inputs, thoughts, and actions while simultaneously ignoring irrelevant or distracting ones
*PRIORITY TO SOME THINGS AND NOT OTHERS

A

selective attention

165
Q

goal driven is what type of control

A

top-down control

166
Q

stimulus driven mechanism (ex. reacting to a loud sound) is under what type of control

A

bottom-up control

167
Q

mechanism that determine what we focus on –> ___ ___ __
– they involve the interaction of cortical and subcortical networks

A

attentional control mechanisms

168
Q

-genetic and environmental risk facts
-may involve anatomical variations in the white matter, specifically PFC–> impacting Impulsivity, learning, staying tuned, shifting focus, getting started, regulating emotions and memory

A

ADHD

169
Q

ADHD are deficits in the neural activity within the fronto ____ & _____ circuits and DA function

A

stratal & parietal

170
Q

_____ is important for shifting tasks in rodents

A

OFC

171
Q

-spatial attention
-damage to this region is associated with impairments in SHIFTING ATTENTION

A

superior colliculus

172
Q

-disorder of contralesional (opp. hemisphere of a lesion) space awareness
-visual system intact but attentional network is damaged in one hemisphere

A

unilateral spatial neglect

173
Q

blindness over half the field of vision (sensory deficit of vision)

A

hemianopsia

174
Q

inability to visualize more than one object in the visual at a time
-bilateral damage to posterior parietal and occipital cortex
-problems seeing object “together” in space
—-sensory inputs are competitive

A

Balint’s syndrome

175
Q

difficult in processing visual field as a whole scene

A

simultanagnosia

176
Q

deficit in making saccades to scan the visual field

A

ocular apraxia

177
Q

problem in making visually-guided hand movements

A

optic ataxia

178
Q

endogenous, top-down, goal-driven

A

voluntary attention

179
Q

exogenous, bottom-up, stimulus driven

A

reflexive attention

180
Q

attention where you orient towards the thing you are attending to and moving your eyes in that direction

A

overt

181
Q

attention where you are attending to something, but you do not orient towards the thing you are attending to nor move your eyes in the direction

A

covert

182
Q

phenomenon where you can focus on a specific thing (like a conversation at a party) even though there is loud boisterous activity all around you

-ability to focus one’s attention to a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli
-has been found that it is easier to separate attention and discriminate auditory stimuli if they are not similar in frequency – otherwise you can get spectral blending
-also allows u to hear your name across the room at said party – even though you were not part of that conversation – your name is salient, soft doesn’t get filtered out

A

cocktail party effect

183
Q

you can separate attention if 2 two different auditory inputs are coming into each ear – attending to only one

A

dichotic listening

184
Q

was out forward as an intermediate solution to early and late selection models: the locus of selective attention depends on task requirements

*when load is high, selection is early
*when load is low, selection is late

A

perceptual load theory or Treisman’s attenuation theory

185
Q

-descartes
-conscious experience is non-physical

A

dualism

186
Q

-asserts that are not separate; they are both physical

A

materialism

187
Q

having perceptions, thoughts, feelings, and awareness
-movement not a requirement; language not a requirement

A

consciousness

188
Q

the high-order perceptions of qualities, such as the warmth of war or the redness of red, that are experiences in the normal conscious state

A

qualia

189
Q

the capacity of being belt o experience feelings and sensations (does it include the perception of these feelings or only the sensation)

A

sentience

190
Q

-verbal report
-rational thought
-deliberate decision making
-visual processing
-memory

A

conscious processing

191
Q

-includes language
-autonomic response
-gut level / motor response
-vision
memory

A

non-conscious processing

192
Q

projections to cortex via intralaminar nucleus of the thalamus

A

dorsal pathway

193
Q

projections to cortex via basal forebrain and hypothalamus

A

ventral pathway

194
Q

brainstem, thalamus, and cerebral cortex help maintain what 2 things

A

wakefulness and attention

195
Q

the increasingly complex contents of conscious experience provided by input from the cortex

A

extended consciousness

196
Q

children born without a cerebral cortex

A

anencephaly

197
Q

where minimal cortex

A

hydranencephaly

198
Q

eyes open, not in coma, reflexive responding
-in contrast with: Minimally conscious state (MCS)
-localization to pain and non-reflexive movement (ex. visually fixate on, or pursue a stimulus or follow simple commands like squeeze my hand

A

unresponsive wakefulness syndrome

199
Q

-normal sleep/wake but cannot move
-may be able to blink or move eyes
-caused by lesion to the ventral part of the pons where cerebellum and cortex are connected

A

locked in syndrome

200
Q

____ receives light inputs directly from the retina, allowing its neurons to synchronize to the day-night (light/dark) cycle
-through neurochemical and hormonal pathways, the ___ synchronizes cells through the brain and body

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)
-master clock
-arousal regulation

201
Q

photoactivated SCN –> ___ ____ –> arousal

A

locus coeruleus

202
Q

what sleep-producing substance mediates homeostatic mechanism

A

somnogens (adenosine)

adenosine agonists induce sleep and antagonists induce wakefulness

203
Q

disorder that may involve abnormal movements, behaviors, emotions, perceptions, and dreams
-can be triggered by emotional distress, anxiety, fatigue, fever, medication, and alcohol
-usually occurs after an abrupt, spontaneous, and incomplete arousal from NREM sleep in N1
-sleepwalkers engage in automatic behaviors and lack conscious awareness or memory of the event

A

sleepwalking: somnambulism