BUPERINST 1430.16F (W/CHANGE 1), CH 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Advancement Cycles dates for E4, E5, and E6 Sailors?

A

(1) 1 Jan - 30 June

(2) 1 Jul - 31 Dec

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2
Q

What are the Advancement Cycles dates for E7 Sailors?

A

1 Sep - 31 Aug

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3
Q

What are the Advancement Cycles dates for E8 and E9 Sailors?

A

1 Jul - 30 Jun

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4
Q

The ___________ will show ESOs a list of all Sailors who participated in examinations.

A

Examination Status Verification Report (ESVR)

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5
Q

How many days after publication of examination results will Sailors have the capability of downloading their individual Profile Sheet?

A

Five days

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6
Q

Submit a request to _______ with copy to _______ for invalidation of examination and provide explanation.

A

NETPDTC and copy PERS-811/812

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7
Q

PNA points are only creditable from the _______ exam cycles in that paygrade.

A

Most recent five

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8
Q

A candidate may receive a maximum of ______ PNA

points for any one advancement cycle.

A

Three

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9
Q

The maximum cumulative PNA point total that may

be credited to candidates is _____________.

A

15

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10
Q

PNA points are multiplied by _______ to obtain the PNA factor (maximum of 30 points) for Final Multiple Score calculations.

A

Two

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11
Q

How many PNA Points are awarded to those that score in the top 75 percentile of those not advanced?

A

Top 25%=1.5 PNA Points (times 2 = 3 Points)
Next 25%=1.0 PNA Points (times 2 = 2 Points)
Next 25%=0.5 PNA Points (times 2 = 1 Point)

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12
Q

How many PNA Points are awarded to those in the top 75 percentile PMA of individuals that did not advance?

A

Top 25%=1.5 PNA Points (times 2 = 3 Points)
Next 25%=1.0 PNA Points (times 2 = 2 Points)
Next 25%=0.5 PNA Points (times 2 = 1 Point)

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13
Q

Members undergoing rating conversions will (have or not have?) PNA points from the previous rating examinations applied toward FMS credit for advancement in the new rating.

A

Will have.

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14
Q

PNA points from Inactive Reserve examinations (may be or may not be?) used in computing PNA point credit for active duty examinations and vice versa.

A

May be used.

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15
Q

Advancements to paygrade E2/E3 are automatically posted on the 16th day of a month by ________________.

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-35)

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16
Q

The First Examination Cycle for E4/5/6 is __________ with a Limiting Date of ____________

A

(1) February/March

(2) 31 December

17
Q

The Second Examination Cycle for E4/5/6 is __________ with a Limiting Date of ____________

A

(1) August/September

(2) 30 June

18
Q

The Examination Cycle for E7 is __________ with a Limiting Date of ____________

A

(1) January/February

(2) 31 August

19
Q

Members who want to retire but have not completed _______ years TIG, must __________

A

(1) 2 Years

(2) Be reverted to the former paygrade

20
Q

Members who want to retire and have completed _______ years TIG, can retire in __________ paygrade

A

(1) 2 Years

(2) Current Paygrade

21
Q

Are Prisoners of War or Missing Personnel Eligible for Advancement?

A

No

22
Q

Can you advance if you fail the most recent PFA?

A

Yes. However, enlisted members shall have
advancement or frocking deferred. Members may
participate in monthly FEP PFA to regain eligibility. If not
within standards by promotion cycle limiting date, the
advancement authority will be withdrawn, per reference (i).

23
Q

What happens if a member scores high enough to advance and meets all the requirements but is currently in a “reduction in rate suspended bust” status?

A

A “suspended reduction in rate” status is automatically terminated when a member is subsequently advanced in rate.

24
Q

If a Reservist takes the exam and scores high enough to advance but converts to active duty prior to advancing, he/she must _________ to advance.

A

Have a FMS equal to or greater than the FMS required for the new competitive category in the same rating.

25
Q

The CO/OIC may delay a member’s authorized

advancement up to __________ date.

A

Up to the limiting date for the respective cycle.

26
Q

Striker identification is

governed by ___________.

A

MILPERSMAN 1440-050.

27
Q

PNA points are comprised of _____________?

A

Exam Standard Score and Performance Mark Average.

28
Q

If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a member to paygrade E2 or E3 on the earliest date on which the candidate is fully qualified, the advancement may be established “as of” the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred, provided the backdating does not under any
circumstance exceed ________days/months/years.

A

6 months.

29
Q

Advancements and striker designation authorities

are issued on _______ and ________.

A

Rating Change Authorization (RCA) and

Profile Sheet.

30
Q

Under no circumstances is an advancement effected after the limiting date without approval of _______________________.

A

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811/812)

31
Q

Where are E7/E8/E9 Candidates Results (Selected for Board) Posted? Where are E7/E8/E9 Selection Results posted after conclusion of selection board?

A

(1) ESVR Online

(2) NAVADMIN

32
Q

COs/OICs may frock enlisted personnel per _________________.

A

MILPERSMAN 1420-060

33
Q

Exception to the TIG requirement for retiring in the higher paygrade (as opposed to the former paygrade) is only made if a Service Member services completed _____ years active service

A

30 Years.

34
Q

If member believes that the withholding or
withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate, unjust, or
wrongly submitted, which publication provides authority for the request mast, at which questions may be raised
with the CO/OIC?

A

U.S. Navy Regulations, Article 1151

35
Q

Advancing temporary officers to permanent enlisted rates requires a _______ entry in the enlisted field service record and a _______ entry mailed for inclusion in the official officer record.

A

(1) NAVPERS 1070/604

(2) NAVPERS 1070/613

36
Q

An ________ is the sole means of withdrawing a member’s recommendation for advancement
and must be completed prior to requesting invalidation of an authorized advancement.

A

EVAL/FITREP.

37
Q

To effect an advancement, change

in rate, or striker identification, make entry on _______ (form).

A

NAVPERS 1070/604.