Blood Groups / Transfusions Flashcards

1
Q

What chromosome and what gene are responsible for blood groups?

A

Chromosome 9

A and B gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do the A and B gene on chromosome 9 code for?

A

Transferases

Alter H substance on RBC membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which antigen genes are co-dominant? Which is silent

A

A and B dominant

O silent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the 4 blood groups in order of population frequency in the UK

A

O
A
B
AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group O have?

A

No antigens

A + B antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group A have?

A

A antigen

B antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group B have?

A

B antigen

A antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group AB have?

A

A + B antigen

No antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Landsteiner’s law?

A

If someone lacks an antigen, the corresponding antibody is made in the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What blood groups can blood group O receive blood from?

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What blood groups can blood group A receive blood from?

A

O + A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What blood groups can blood group B receive blood from?

A

O + B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What blood groups can blood group AB receive blood from?

A

O + A + B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pregnancy and transfusion can cause what effect on blood groups?

A

Antibody sensitisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

85% of the population is what blood antibody positive?

A

Rhesus RhD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is RhD inherited?

A

Positive dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RhD negative can cause what reaction between a mother and fetus’s blood?

A

Haemolytic disease of the fetus / newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the DAT direct Coomb’s test used for?

A

To identify Ab on red cell surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is the DAT direct Coomb’s test used?

A

For haemolysis eg AIHA, transfusion reaction

20
Q

What is the method of the DAT direct Coomb’s test?

A

Add PTx RBC to anti-human globulin IgG

21
Q

What is a positive DAT direct Coomb’s test?

A

Agglutination (clump)

22
Q

What does the indirect Coomb’s test IAT identify?

A

Antibodies in the patient’s plasma

23
Q

When is the indirect Coomb’s test IAT used?

A

Crossmatch pre-transfusion

24
Q

What is the method of the IAT indirect Coomb’s test?

A

Add PTx’s plasma to RBC with known Ag specificity

Then add anti-human IgG

25
What is a positive IAT indirect Coomb's test?
Agglutination (clump)
26
What blood group is this patient? PTx RBC + anti-A agglutinate, + anti-B don't agglutinate + anti-D agglutinate
A positive
27
What is the Hb and weight criteria for being a blood donor?
Hb >135 M Hb >125 F Wt >50
28
How long can red blood cells be stored and at what temperature?
4 degrees | 35 days
29
How long can platelets be stored and at what temperature?
22 degrees 7 days With agitation
30
How long can FFP be stored and at what temperature?
-30 degrees | 3 years
31
What is the standard dose of platelet or RBC transfusion?
1 unit
32
Which blood product is transfused for symptomatic anaemia with a Hb less than 70 or in major bleeding?
RBCs
33
What blood product is transfused as bleeding Tx in a PTx with a coagulopathy? What must the coagulopathy be?
FFP | PT ratio higher than 1.5
34
When should observations be taken in transfusions?
Before 15 minutes in Within 60 minutes
35
What is a complication of regular transfusions?
Fe overload
36
What are the 2 types of haemolytic transfusion reaction?
Delayed extravascular or immediate intravascular
37
What antibody is responsible for delayed extravascular haemolytic transfusion reactions?
IgG
38
What antibody is responsible for immediate intravascular haemolytic transfusion reactions?
IgM
39
Following a blood transfusion a raised JVP, raised BP, low albumin, resp distress and renal impairment indicate what?
Transfusion associated circulation overload
40
What is the management of transfusion associated fluid overload?
O2 + diuretic
41
What is the management of a mild transfusion reaction caused a small fever or mild rash?
Continue | Consider paracetamol, anti-histamine
42
What drug class is salbutamol? What is its mechanism? Does it bronchodilate or bronchoconstrict?
SABA Beta agonist Bronchodilate
43
What is the management of a severe type 1 hypersensitivity transfusion reaction?
Adrenaline Chlorampheniramine anti-histamine Salbutamol CCS
44
What drug diverts blood to the cerebral and cardiac circulation? And causes peripheral vasoconstriction, bronchodilates and increases cardiac output
Adrenaline
45
"IJ adrenaline at endoscopy, terlipressin, TIPSS" is the management of what cause of major haemorrhage?
Variceal bleed
46
Disease of what GI organ causes a coagulopathy?
Liver