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Y3 Haematology > Blood Groups / Transfusions > Flashcards

Blood Groups / Transfusions Flashcards

1
Q

What chromosome and what gene are responsible for blood groups?

A

Chromosome 9

A and B gene

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2
Q

What do the A and B gene on chromosome 9 code for?

A

Transferases

Alter H substance on RBC membrane

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3
Q

Which antigen genes are co-dominant? Which is silent

A

A and B dominant

O silent

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4
Q

Name the 4 blood groups in order of population frequency in the UK

A

O
A
B
AB

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5
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group O have?

A

No antigens

A + B antibodies

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6
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group A have?

A

A antigen

B antibody

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7
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group B have?

A

B antigen

A antibody

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8
Q

Which antigens and antibodies does blood group AB have?

A

A + B antigen

No antibodies

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9
Q

What is Landsteiner’s law?

A

If someone lacks an antigen, the corresponding antibody is made in the plasma

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10
Q

What blood groups can blood group O receive blood from?

A

O

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11
Q

What blood groups can blood group A receive blood from?

A

O + A

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12
Q

What blood groups can blood group B receive blood from?

A

O + B

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13
Q

What blood groups can blood group AB receive blood from?

A

O + A + B

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14
Q

Pregnancy and transfusion can cause what effect on blood groups?

A

Antibody sensitisation

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15
Q

85% of the population is what blood antibody positive?

A

Rhesus RhD

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16
Q

How is RhD inherited?

A

Positive dominant

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17
Q

RhD negative can cause what reaction between a mother and fetus’s blood?

A

Haemolytic disease of the fetus / newborn

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18
Q

What is the DAT direct Coomb’s test used for?

A

To identify Ab on red cell surfaces

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19
Q

When is the DAT direct Coomb’s test used?

A

For haemolysis eg AIHA, transfusion reaction

20
Q

What is the method of the DAT direct Coomb’s test?

A

Add PTx RBC to anti-human globulin IgG

21
Q

What is a positive DAT direct Coomb’s test?

A

Agglutination (clump)

22
Q

What does the indirect Coomb’s test IAT identify?

A

Antibodies in the patient’s plasma

23
Q

When is the indirect Coomb’s test IAT used?

A

Crossmatch pre-transfusion

24
Q

What is the method of the IAT indirect Coomb’s test?

A

Add PTx’s plasma to RBC with known Ag specificity

Then add anti-human IgG

25
Q

What is a positive IAT indirect Coomb’s test?

A

Agglutination (clump)

26
Q

What blood group is this patient?

PTx RBC + anti-A agglutinate,

+ anti-B don’t agglutinate

+ anti-D agglutinate

A

A positive

27
Q

What is the Hb and weight criteria for being a blood donor?

A

Hb >135 M
Hb >125 F
Wt >50

28
Q

How long can red blood cells be stored and at what temperature?

A

4 degrees

35 days

29
Q

How long can platelets be stored and at what temperature?

A

22 degrees
7 days
With agitation

30
Q

How long can FFP be stored and at what temperature?

A

-30 degrees

3 years

31
Q

What is the standard dose of platelet or RBC transfusion?

32
Q

Which blood product is transfused for symptomatic anaemia with a Hb less than 70 or in major bleeding?

33
Q

What blood product is transfused as bleeding Tx in a PTx with a coagulopathy?
What must the coagulopathy be?

A

FFP

PT ratio higher than 1.5

34
Q

When should observations be taken in transfusions?

A

Before
15 minutes in
Within 60 minutes

35
Q

What is a complication of regular transfusions?

A

Fe overload

36
Q

What are the 2 types of haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Delayed extravascular or immediate intravascular

37
Q

What antibody is responsible for delayed extravascular haemolytic transfusion reactions?

38
Q

What antibody is responsible for immediate intravascular haemolytic transfusion reactions?

39
Q

Following a blood transfusion a raised JVP, raised BP, low albumin, resp distress and renal impairment indicate what?

A

Transfusion associated circulation overload

40
Q

What is the management of transfusion associated fluid overload?

A

O2 + diuretic

41
Q

What is the management of a mild transfusion reaction caused a small fever or mild rash?

A

Continue

Consider paracetamol, anti-histamine

42
Q

What drug class is salbutamol? What is its mechanism? Does it bronchodilate or bronchoconstrict?

A

SABA
Beta agonist
Bronchodilate

43
Q

What is the management of a severe type 1 hypersensitivity transfusion reaction?

A

Adrenaline
Chlorampheniramine anti-histamine
Salbutamol
CCS

44
Q

What drug diverts blood to the cerebral and cardiac circulation? And causes peripheral vasoconstriction, bronchodilates and increases cardiac output

A

Adrenaline

45
Q

“IJ adrenaline at endoscopy, terlipressin, TIPSS” is the management of what cause of major haemorrhage?

A

Variceal bleed

46
Q

Disease of what GI organ causes a coagulopathy?

Y3 Haematology (15 decks)

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