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Histology > Blood and Blood Development > Flashcards

Blood and Blood Development Flashcards

1
Q

Makes up 55% of the total blood volume

A

plasma

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2
Q

What percentage of plasma is water?

A

90%

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3
Q

What percentage of plasma is proteins?

A

7%

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4
Q

Albumin is a major protein component that functions to maintain the …

A

osmotic pressure of blood

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5
Q

What percentage of plasma is amino acids, glucose, hormones, and other regulatory substances?

A

2.1%

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6
Q

What percentage of plasma is inorganic salts?

A

0.9%

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7
Q

A measurement of the average size of RBCs

A

mean corpuscular volume

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8
Q

is a calculation of the average amount of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin inside a RBC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin

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9
Q

is a calculation of the average percentage of hemoglobin inside a RBC

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

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10
Q

is a calculation of the variation in size of RBCs

A

Red cell distribution width

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11
Q

Typical hematocrit value for erythrocytes in females

A

35%-45%

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12
Q

Typical hematocrit value for erythrocytes in males

A

39%-50%

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13
Q

Typical hematocrit value for leukocytes and platelets (buffy coat)

A

1%

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14
Q

Typical hematocrit value for plasma

A

55%

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15
Q

plasma from which clotting factors have been removed

A

serum

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16
Q

main protein constituent; smallest protein; synthesized in the liver; acts as a carrier protein

A

albumin

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17
Q

albumin is the main protein component that functions to maintain the …, if this decreases fluid accumulates in tissues

A

BCOP

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18
Q

plasma protein also known as antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

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19
Q

plasma protein that is secreted by the liver and help maintain osmotic pressure, also serve as carrier proteins

A

non-immune globulins

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20
Q

largest plasma protein; synthesized in the liver

A

fibrinogen

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21
Q

fibrinogen is transformed to fibrin in

A

coagulation

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22
Q

RBC’s swell in hypotonic solutions and can burst leading to

A

hemolysis

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23
Q

RBC’s shrink in hypertonic solutions assuming a … appearance

A

crenated

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24
Q

Erythrocytes tend to stack into columns called …

A

rouleaux

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25
Q

What usually causes erythrocytes to stack into rouleaux?

A

increased levels of immunoglobulins in the blood

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26
Q

What attaches the underlying cytoskeleton to the cell membrane in RBCs?

A

glycophorin C

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27
Q

What binds hemoglobin and also anchors the cytoskeleton?

A

band 3 protein

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28
Q

Reside on the inner surface of the RBC cell membrane forming a 2-D hexagonal lattice network that contains spectrum, actin, band 4.1 protein, adducin, band 4.9 protein and tropomyosin.

A

peripheral membrane proteins

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29
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by an abnormal arrangement of the internal cytoskeleton due to a missing or abnormal …

A

spectrin or ankyrin molecule

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30
Q

most common in adults; 96% of total hemoglobin; consists of 2 alpha and 2 beta chains

A

HbA

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31
Q

1.5%-3% of total hemoglobin in adults; consists of 2 alpha and 2 delta chains

A

HbA_2

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32
Q

fetal hemoglobin; production decreases after birth but has a higher percentage in sickle cell anemia and thalassemia; consists of 2alpha and 2 gamma chains

A

HbF

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33
Q

Sickle cell anemia is caused by a point mutation in the DNA encoding the …

A

beta-chain of hemoglobin

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34
Q

The mutation associated with sickle cell anemia is due to what two amino acids being switched?

A

glutamic acid is replaced with valine

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35
Q

decrease in cell size

A

microcytosis

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36
Q

increase in cell size

A

macrocytosis

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37
Q

variability in cell size

A

anisocytosis

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38
Q

bluish tint to the cell due to a few ribosomes in young RBC’s

A

polychromasia

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39
Q

> 1/3 central pallor

A

hypochromasia

40
Q

2 distinct populations of cells

A

dimorphism

41
Q

hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia

42
Q

change in shape

A

poikilocytosis

43
Q

A fragment of an erythrocyte; does not have central pallor; “helmet cells”

A

Schistocytes (shizocytes)

44
Q

Schistocytes are formed when RBC’s are …

A

sheared passing through fibrin clots

45
Q

These cells are characterized by increased red cell surface area or else a decreased intracellular hemoglobin content

A

target cells

46
Q

Leukocytes or WBCs are involved in the body’s defense against invading/foreign material; they regularly leave the blood to carry out their functions in the …

A

connective tissue

47
Q

WBC’s exit the blood by squeezing between endothelial cells, a process known as

A

diapedesis

48
Q

Group of WBC containing two types of granules, specific and azurophilic

A

Granulocytes (segmented cells)

49
Q

Group of WBC containing one type of granule, azurophilic

A

Agranulocytes (mononuclear cells)

50
Q

Most abundant of the granular leukocytes; multilocular (segmented) nucleus with highly condensed chromatin; in females a Barr body is present; contains 3 types of granules

A

Neutrophils (PMNs)

51
Q

Neutrophil granule that is lysosomal in character, containing lysosomal enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and lactoferrin

A

Primary or Type A azurophilic granules

52
Q

Neutrophil granule that contains enzymes (alkaline phosphatase, collagenase), antimicrobial peptides (lysozyme and phagocytins), and complement activators

A

Secondary or type B specific granules

53
Q

Neutrophil granule that has 2 types one containing phosphates (phosphasomes) and the other containing metalloproteinses (collagenases)

A

Tertiary granules

54
Q

What may help facilitate migration of neutrophils through the connective tissue

A

collagenases

55
Q

The migration of neutrophils is controlled by the expression of … expressed on the surface that interact with ligands on endothelial cells

A

adhesion molecules

56
Q

Are actively phagocytic and function as the first line of defense against bacterial infection

A

neutrophils

57
Q

Binding of bacterial antigens to PMN receptors also induces the release of … such as IL-1, IL-3, and TNF-alpha

A

cytokines

58
Q

IL-1 is also known as

A

pyrogen

59
Q

pyrogen released from PMN induces the synthesis of

A

prostaglandins

60
Q

Prostaglandins act on thermoregulatory centers in the hypothalamus to …

A

increase body temperature i.e. fever

61
Q

Neutrophils release Neutrophils release … which promotes the adhesion of PMNs to endothelium and their migration into tissues among other functions such as being a potent vasoconstrictor.

A

leukotrienes

62
Q

Leukotrienes act as chemoattractants for other leukocytes such as …

A

eosinophils and monocytes

63
Q

leukotrienes increase the permeability of post-capillary venues which contribute to …

A

swelling at the site of injury/infection

64
Q

Neutrophils die after ingesting bacteria; dead neutrophils contribute to the formation of … at the site of the infection

A

pus

65
Q

Eosinophils moderate inflammatory reactions; phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes; modulate the functions of …

A

mast cells and basophils

66
Q

Individuals with allergies and parasitic infections have an increased percentage of … in blood

A

eosinophils

67
Q

Eosinophils have specific granules that contain several lysosomal hydrolyses, and 4 cationic proteins; these function to kill …

A

protozoans and parasites

68
Q

Specific eosinophil granules also contain … that functions to degrade histamine (thereby modulating the functions of basophils and mast cells in allergic reactions)

A

histaminase

69
Q

What specific granule of basophils has the function of: an anticoagulant

A

heparin

70
Q

What specific granule of basophils has the function of: increases permeability of small blood vessels

A

histamine

71
Q

What specific granule of basophils has the function of: dilating small blood vessels

A

heparin sulfate

72
Q

What specific granule of basophils has the function of: modified lipids that cause constriction of smooth muscle in pulmonary airways I1-4 and IL-3 -> promote synthesis of IgE

A

leukotrienes

73
Q

Plasma membrane of basophils contain receptors for the … antibody (important for hypersensitive, allergic reactions); degranulate when this is bound

A

IgE

74
Q

Mast cells and basophils come from the same progenitor cell …

A

BMCP

75
Q

BMCP differentiates into a basophil if it …

A

expresses a specific transcription factor C/EMPalpha

76
Q

If the transcription factor C/EMPalpha is not expressed, the BMCP migrates to the … to become a mast cell precursor

A

spleen

77
Q

MCP matures into a mast cell in the …

A

intestine

78
Q

Major function cells of the lymphatic system; principle agents of the body’s immune response; consists of 3 major functional classes: T, B, and NK

A

lymphocytes

79
Q

Largest of the circulating WBC’s

A

monocytes

80
Q

monocytes migrate from blood into connective tissue where they differentiate into …

A

macrophages

81
Q

Macrophages that differentiate from monocytes make up the …

A

mononuclear phagocyte system

82
Q

Thrombocytes (platelets) are produced from

A

megakaryocytes

83
Q

peripheral region of thrombocytes

A

hyalomere

84
Q

central region of thrombocytes

A

granulomere

85
Q

What platelet granule is most numerous; important for the initial phase of vessel repair, blood coagulation and platelet aggregation; contain fibrinogen, coagulation factors, plasminogen, plasminogen activator inhibitor, and PDGF?

A

alpha granules

86
Q

What platelet granules facilitate platelet adhesion and vasoconstriction in the injured area of the blood vessel; contain Ca, serotonin, pyrophosphate, ADP, ATP, and histamine?

A

delta granules

87
Q

What platelet granules contain lysosomal hydrolases?

A

gamma granules

88
Q

What platelet membrane channel is from the invaginations of the plasma membrane into the cytoplasm; may be pathways for the uptake of solutes and the discharge of secretory products

A

Open Cannaliculi system

89
Q

What platelet membrane channel originates from the rER of megakaryocytes; concentrates Ca and synthesizes prostaglandins

A

Dense Tubular System (DTS)

90
Q

(Clot Retraction) The clot contracts and condenses through the interactions of … and the platelet’s actin and myosin filaments. Blood flow through the vessel resumes.

A

thrombosthenin

91
Q

(Clot Dissolution) when the vessel wall heals, the clot is removed by the enzyme … and by enzymes (hydrolyses) released by the platelets’ gamma granules

A

plasmin

92
Q

Platelets are formed by the separation of cytoplasmic fragments through the fusion of …

A

Platelet Demarcation Channels (PDCs)

93
Q

The activator that converts the proenzyme, plasminogen to plasma is known as …

A

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

94
Q

TPA is released by what cells?

A

endothelial

95
Q

A synthetic form of TPA is used clinically as treatment for …

A

stroke victims

96
Q

platelets originate as portions of the cytoplasm of …

A

megakaryocytes

97
Q

The plasma membrane of megakaryocytes has many invaginations form channels called…

A

platelet demarcation channels (PDC)

Histology (8 decks)

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