Blood 2024 Flashcards

1
Q

Composition of the Blood

1) __________
2)_____________

A

Plasma

The Formed Elements

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2
Q

Formed elements include:

___________
____________
____________

A

Erythrocytes
Platelets
Leukocytes

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3
Q

Formed elements :Leukocytes (white blood cells, WBCs)

____________
____________

A

Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

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4
Q

Granulocytes : list them

Agranulocytes: list them

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

Lymphocytes
Monocytes

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5
Q

Major Functions of Blood

  1. Distribution & Transport
    a. _________ from lungs to body cells
    b. _________ from body cells to lungs
    c. _________ from GI tract to body cells
    e. _________ from glands to body cells
A

oxygen
carbon dioxide
nutrients
hormones

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6
Q

Major Functions of Blood
1. Distribution & Transport
a. oxygen from ________ to ________
b. carbon dioxide from ________ to ________
c. nutrients from ________ to ________
e. hormones from ________ to ________

A

lungs to body cells

body cells to lungs

GI tract to body cells

glands to body cells

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7
Q

Major Functions of Blood

Regulation (maintenance of homeostasis

a.Maintenance of normal body pH( ______________ system)

b.It helps in the exchange of _______,_________, and ________ between various body compartments

c.maintenance of ______________ (_______ skin)

A

bicarbonate system

water, electrolytes and hydrogen ions

temperature ; blushed skin

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8
Q

When excessive heat is generated, blood allows the —————- via __________ from the _______ and ______

A

loss of heat

evaporation of water

lungs and skin

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9
Q

Major functions of Blood

Protection
____________ , chemical agents,
_________, and _______ elements that
are important in the defence of the
body against infection or invasion by
foreign tissue/organism.

A

Humoral antibodies

enzymes

cellular elements

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10
Q

Major functions of Blood

1)_____________________
2) _____________________
3) _____________________

A

Distribution and Transport
Maintenance of homeostasis
Protection

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11
Q

General Properties of Whole Blood

  • Fraction of body weight : ___%
  • Volume : male _______; female _______
  • temperature: _________
  • pH : ___________
A

8%

Male: 5-6 L
Female: 4-5 L

38 C (100.4 F)

7.35 - 7.45

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12
Q

General properties of whole blood

-Viscosity (relative to water):
Whole blood: __________
plasma: _______

  • Osmolarity:_______
  • Mean salinity (mainly NaCl):_________
A

4.5-5.5
2.0

280-300 mOsm/L

0.85%

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13
Q

Hematocrit
RBCs as percent of total blood volume

  • Female: ____%-____%
  • male: ____%-____%
A

Female: 37%-48%
- male: 45%-52%

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14
Q

General Properties of Whole Blood

Hemoglobin Female: ________; male:_____

Mean RBC count: Female:_____; male:____

Platelet counts: _________-___________

Total WBC counts: _________-________

A

12-16 g/100 ml
13-18 g/100 ml

4.8 million/l
5.4 million/l

130,000-360,000/l

4,000-11,000/l

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15
Q

Composition of Plasma

Proteins : Total __-___ g/100 ml

Albumin
____% of total plasma protein

Globulin
____% of total plasma protein

Fibrinogen
——% of total plasma protein

Enzymes of diagnostic value :_______

A

6-9

60

36

4

Trace

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16
Q

Composition of plasma

Mention 15

A

Water
Proteins
Glucose
Amino acid
Lactic acid
Nitrogenous waste
Respiratory gases
Iron
Vitamins
Electrolytes
LDL
HDL
Triglycerides
Phospholipids
Cholesterol
Fatty acids

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17
Q

PLASMA
Plasma is a _______-colored clear liquid part of blood.

It contains ____% to ___% of water and ___% to ____% of solids
(organic and inorganic substances)

A

straw

91% ; 92%

8% ; 9%

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18
Q

Serum = _______ – ________

A

Plasma – Fibrinogen

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19
Q

__________ = Plasma – Fibrinogen

A

Serum

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20
Q

Plasma proteins are:
➢_______
➢____________
➢___________

A

albumin

globulin (α, β, γ)

Fibrinogen

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21
Q

Normal values of the plasma proteins are:
➢Total proteins :____ g/dL (__to ___g/dL)
➢Serum albumin : ——- g/dL
➢Serum globulin : ——- g/dL
➢Fibrinogen : ——- g/dl

A

7.3; 6;9

4.7

2.3

0.3

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22
Q

albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio is an important indicator of some diseases involving ______ or ________ .

A

liver or kidney

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23
Q

Normal A/G ratio is ____ : ____. (____-_____)

A

2 : 1. (0.8-2.0)

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24
Q

PROPERTIES OF PLASMA PROTEINS

MOLECULAR WEIGHT:

Albumin : _____
Globulin : _______
Fibrinogen : _______

A

69,000

156,000

400,000

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25
Q

Functions of Plasma Proteins

ONCOTIC PRESSURE : Plasma proteins are responsible for the oncotic or osmotic pressure in the blood.
Osmotic pressure exerted by proteins in the plasma is called ___________ (oncotic) pressure it is about _______ mm Hg.

A

colloidal osmotic

25

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26
Q

SPECIFIC GRAVITY : Specific gravity of the plasma proteins is ________.

A

1.026

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27
Q

FUNCTIONS OF PLASMA PROTEINS

  1. ROLE IN COAGULATION OF BLOOD : ____________ is essential for the coagulation of blood.
  2. ROLE IN DEFENSE OF THE BODY: ____________ play an important role in the defense mechanism of the body by acting as ____________ (immune substances). These proteins are also
    called ____________
A

Fibrinogen

Gamma globulins ; antibodies

immunoglobulins

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28
Q

FUNCTIONS OF PLASMA PROTEINS

  1. ROLE IN TRANSPORT : _________,_________,__________ are responsible for the transport of hormones. „
  2. ROLE IN MAINTENANCE OF OSMOTIC PRESSURE IN BLOOD :
    Osmotic pressure exerted by the plasma proteins plays an important role in the exchange of various substances between
    blood and the cells through ___________________
A

Albumin, alpha globulin and beta
globulin

capillary membrane

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29
Q

Functions of Plasma Proteins

ROLE IN REGULATION OF ACID-BASE BALANCE : Plasma proteins, particularly the _________ , play an important role in
regulating the acid base balance in the blood. They contribute ____%
of the buffering capacity of blood.

A

albumin ; 15%

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30
Q

Function of Plasma proteins

ROLE IN VISCOSITY OF BLOOD : Plasma proteins provide viscosity to the blood, which is important to maintain the blood pressure.
__________ provides maximum viscosity than the other plasma
proteins.

A

Albumin

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31
Q

Functions of Plasma Proteins

ROLE IN ERYTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE: ________ and ________ accelerate the tendency of ________ formation by the red blood cells.

A

Globulin

fibrinogen

rouleaux

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32
Q

Rouleaux formation is responsible for _______, which is an important diagnostic and prognostic tool.

A

ESR

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33
Q

Erythrocytes

Appearance:
- ________________ shape, which is suited for gas exchange.

The shape is flexible so that RBCs can
____________________________ , i.e.,
—————- .

A

biconcave disc

pass though the smallest blood vessels

capillaries.

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34
Q

RBCs was first describe by a Dutch Biologist , ———————— who used an early microscope in ———- to study the blood of _______

Unaware of this work, _________________ provided another microscopic
description in _______ . He described its precise structure and approximated their size as _________ times smaller than a fine grain of sand

A

Jan Swammerdam ;1658

frog ; Anton van Leeuwenhoek

1674 ; 25,000

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35
Q

Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells, RBCs)

Structure:
-Primary cell content is ________, the
protein that binds _______ and _________.

  • has no ________ nor _________
A

hemoglobin ; oxygen ; carbondioxide.

nucleus ; mitochondria

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36
Q

Hemoglobin consists of :
————- and _____________

HBA : ______ and ———-
HBF: _______ and ________

A

globin and heme pigment

2α and 2β

2α and 2γ

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37
Q

Globin
- Consists of ________ and _______ subunits
- Each subunit binds to a ______ group

A

Two alpha; two beta

heme

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38
Q

HB content
At birth :_____ g/dL
After 3rd month : ____ g/dL
After 1 year :_____ g/dL
From puberty onwards : _____ to ____ g/dL

A

25; 20; 17

14 to 16

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39
Q

Heme Groups

Each heme group bears an atom of _____, which binds (reversibly or irreversibly ?) with _____ molecule of _________

A

iron

reversibly; one

oxygen

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40
Q

___________ competes with oxygen for heme binding with a much higher affinity.

A

Carbon monoxide

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41
Q

Carbon monoxide competes with oxygen for heme binding with a much (lower or higher?) affinity.

A

Higher

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42
Q

Problem: deoxygenate hemoglobin

Treatment: __________________

A

hyperbaric oxygen chamber

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43
Q

Oxyhemoglobin
- (bound with or free of?) oxygen
- _______ color

Deoxyhemoglobin
- (bound with or free of?) oxygen
- ________ color

A

Bound with; red

Free of ; dark red.

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44
Q

Carbaminohemoglobin

_____ % of carbon dioxide in the blood binds to the ______ part of hemoglobin,
which is called carbaminohemoglobin.

A

20

globin

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45
Q

DIFFERENT BLOOD INDICES

  1. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) MCV is the __________________________ and it is expressed in __________________.
  2. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH) MCH is the __________________________. It is expressed in _________________
  3. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) : MCHC is the __________________________.
A

average volume of a single RBC ; cubic microns (cu μ).

quantity or amount of hemoglobin present in one RBC ; micromicrogram or picogram (pg).

concentration of hemoglobin in
one RBC.

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46
Q

DIFFERENT BLOOD INDICES

MCV : Normal MCV is _____ cu μ ( ____ to _____ cu μ).

MCH: Normal value of MCH is ____ pg
(____ to ____ pg).

MCHC: Normal value of MCHC is _____% (_____% to ____%).

A

90; 78 to 90

30; 27 to 32

30; 30 to 38

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47
Q

A single RBC can be hyperchromic .

T/F

A

F

hypochromic. A
single RBC cannot be hyperchromic .

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48
Q

Color Index (CI) : Color index is the ratio between the ____________________ and the ____________________ in the blood.

Actually, it is the average ________________ in one cell of a patient compared to the average ____________________

A

percentage of hemoglobin ; percentage of RBCs

hemoglobin content

hemoglobin content

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49
Q

Functions of Erythrocytes
1) Primary Function
____________ from the _____ to ________
and _____________ from _______ to the _______

2) _________________

A

Transport oxygen ; lung ; tissue cells

carbon dioxide ; tissue cells ; lung

Buffer blood pH

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50
Q

Production of Erythrocytes

Hematopoiesis
refers to _______________________________.

Erythropoiesis
refers specifically to ___________________________.

A

whole blood cell production

red blood cell production

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51
Q

All blood cells, including red and white, are produced in ___________________.

On average, one ounce, or _____________
blood cells, are made each day

A

red bone marrow

100 billion

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52
Q

Hematopoiesis
-The red bone marrow is a network of ____________________ that borders on wide blood capillaries called __________.

As ______________ mature, they migrate through the (thin or thick?) walls of the
_________ to enter the blood

A

reticular connective tissue

blood sinusoids

hemocytoblasts ; thin

sinusoids

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53
Q

All of blood cells including red and white arise from the same type of stem cell, the ____________ or ____________

A

hematopoietic stem cell

hemocytoblast

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54
Q

Erythrocytes are produced throughout
whole life

T/F

A

T

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55
Q

Stage of erythropoesis

List the stages

A

Haemocytoblasts
Proerythroblast
Early normoblast
Intermediate normoblast
Late normoblast
Reticulocyte
Mature rbc

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56
Q

Stages of Erythropoesis; important event; staining

Proerythroblast
Early normoblast
Intermediate normoblast
Late normoblast
Reticulocyte
Mature rbc

A

Synthesis of hemoglobin starts; basophilic

Nucleoli disappear; basophilic

Hemoglobin starts appearing; polychromophilic

Nucleus disappears; acidophilic

Reticulum is formed.Cell enters capillary from site of production; Basophilic
(organelles remnant’s)

Reticulum disappears, Cell attains biconcavity ; Acidophilic

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57
Q

What stage of erythropoesis does the haemoglobin start appearing??

A

Intermediate
normoblast

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58
Q

What stage of erythropoesis does the haemoglobin start getting synthesized??

A

Proerythroblast

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59
Q

What stage of erythropoesis does the nucleus disappear

A

Late normoblast

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60
Q

What stage of erythropoesis does the nucleoli disappear

A

Early normoblast

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61
Q

Feedback Regulation of Erythropoiesis

  • regulated by _____________ content.
A

renal oxygen content.

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62
Q

Erythropoietin, a __________ hormone,
produced by _______ cells in response to a decreased renal blood O2 content.

A

glycoprotein; renal cells

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63
Q

___________ stimulates erythrocyte
production in the red bone marrow.

A

Erythropoietin

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64
Q

A drop in renal blood oxygen level
can result from:

1) reduced numbers of red blood cells due to ____________ or excess ____________

2) reduced availability of oxygen to the
blood, as might occur at ____________ or
during ____________.

3) increased demands for oxygen (common in those who are engaged in ____________).

A

hemorrhage ; RBC destruction.

high altitudes ; pneumonia.

aerobic exercise

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65
Q

Ways to increase Red Blood Cell Count in Sports

Legal
raise RBC count by ___________________________

Illegal
use ___________,__________, or their
analogs

A

training athletes at high altitude

erythropoietin, androgen

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66
Q

Dietary Requirements for Erythropoiesis

List 3

A

Iron
Folic acid
vitamin B12

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67
Q

Dietary Requirements for Erythropoiesis
Iron Defieciecy will result in Iron
deficiency anemia ( _________ anemia))

Folic acid or vitamin B12 deficiency
(_____________ anemia)

Inability to absorb vitamin B12 as a
result of a lack of _______________________ (__________ anemia)

A

microcytic

megaloblastic

intrinsic factor from stomach secretions

Pernicious

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68
Q

READ UP IRON METABOLISM

• Total quantity of iron in the body is about ____ g.

• One gram of hemoglobin contains _____ of iron.

A

4 g.

3.34

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69
Q

Normally, 100 mL of blood contains ____ gm of hemoglobin and about ____ mg of iron (____ × ____).

A

15 gm

50 mg

(3.34 × 15).

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70
Q

Iron can also be lost during hemorrhage and blood donation. If 450 mL of blood is donated, about ______ mg of iron is lost.

A

225

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71
Q

So, if 100 mL of blood is lost from the body, there is a loss of about _____ mg of iron.

In females, during every menstrual cycle, about ____ mL of blood is lost by
which ____ mg of iron is lost.

A

50

50

25

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72
Q

The average life span of erythrocytes is
________

A

120 days.

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73
Q

Erythrocyte Disorders

Anemia
is a condition in which the blood has an
abnormally _____________ capacity.

A

low oxygen-carrying

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74
Q

Classification of anemia based on causes
1. ___________ anemia
2. ___________ Anemia
3. ___________ ___________
4. ___________ Anemia

A
  1. Blood loss anemia
  2. Aplastic Anemia
  3. Maturation failure
  4. Hemolytic Anemia
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75
Q

Classification of anemia based on causes
1. Blood loss anemia: due to haemorrhage, which can be acute (as in ____________ ) or chronic (as in ____________)

  1. Aplastic Anemia: Failure of ____________ to ____________
  2. Maturation failure: Due to deficiency of ____________, ____________ and ____________
A

deep matchet cut; heavy hookworm infestation

bone marrow ; produce RBCs

folic acid, Vit B12 and intrinsic factor

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76
Q

Classification of anemia based on causes

  1. Hemolytic Anemia: Due to excessive hemolysis of RBCs.

Can occur in patients with congenital ______________ ,___________ disease, ______________, heavy __________
parasitemia, ______________ reactions, ingestion of certain drugs and ____________________________
deficiency.

A

Spherocytosis ; sickle cell ; thalassemia

malaria ; transfusion

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
deficiency.

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77
Q

ABNORMAL HEMOGLOBIN (2 TYPES)

Hemoglobinopathies :

Hemoglobinopathy is a genetic
disorder caused by abnormal _____________ of hemoglobin.

A

polypeptide chains

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78
Q

ABNORMAL HEMOGLOBIN (2 TYPES)
1. Hemoglobinopathies :

i. Hemoglobin _____
ii. Hemoglobin _____
iii. Hemoglobin _____
iv. Hemoglobin _____

A

Hemoglobin S
ii. Hemoglobin C
iii. Hemoglobin È
iv. Hemoglobin M

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79
Q

ABNORMAL HEMOGLOBIN (2 TYPES)
1. Hemoglobinopathies :

i. Hemoglobin S: It is found in _________ anemia. In this, the α- chains are _________, and β-chains are _________.

ii. Hemoglobin C: The _____-chains are abnormal , and it is characterized by _________ anemia and _________.

iii. Hemoglobin E: the _____-chains are abnormal. It is present in people with hemoglobin E disease.

iv. Hemoglobin M: It is the abnormal hemoglobin present in the form of _________ .

A

sickle cell ; normal ; abnormal.

β-; mild hemolytic anemia ; splenomegaly.

β-chains

methemoglobin

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80
Q

Hemoglobin M

It occurs due to mutation of genes of
______________ chains, resulting in abnormal replacement of amino acids (__________ syndrome in children).

A

both the α and β chains

Blue baby

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81
Q

Abnormal Hemoglobin (2Types)

2) Hemoglobin in Thalassemia and Related Disorders

In thalassemia, different types of abnormal hemoglobins are present. The polypeptide chains are ________,________, or __________.

A

decreased,
absent or abnormal

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82
Q

In α-thalassemia, the α-chains are _________,__________, or ________ and in β-thalassemia, the β-chains are ________,_________, or __________

A

decreased, absent or abnormal

decreased, absent or abnormal

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83
Q

Polycythemia

is an abnormal ______ of erythrocytes that increases the _______ of the blood, causing it to _________ or _________

A

excess

viscosity

sludge or flow sluggishly.

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84
Q

Common causes of polycythemia include:

1) _________________
2) A response to reduced availability of
oxygen at ____________

A

Bone marrow cancer

high altitudes

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85
Q

Shape of RBCs is altered in many conditions

  1. Crenation: ___________ as in ___________ conditions.
  2. Spherocytosis: ___________ form as in ___________ conditions.
  3. Elliptocytosis: ___________ shape as in certain types of anemia.
  4. Sickle cell: ___________ shape as in sickle cell anemia.
  5. Poikilocytosis: Unusual ___________ due to deformed ___________. The shape will be of flask, hammer or any other unusual shape
A

Shrinkage ; hypertonic

Globular ;hypotonic

Elliptical

Crescentic

shapes ; cell
membrane.

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86
Q

JAUNDICE
Jaundice (_________) is the _______ coloration of the _______ of the eyes (the _______ of the eyes), the _______ (not easy to see
in dark skinned people) the _______ and other tissues.

It is caused by the presence of excess _______ in the plasma and tissue fluids.

A

icterus; yellow

sclera ; white ; skin ; nail bed

biluribin

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87
Q

Jaundice

Normal bilirubin level in adult
plasma is ____ -_____ mg/dl (___-___ μmol/L).

It is detectable when plasma bilirubin is greater than ____mg/dl (_____ μmol/L)

A

0.3 -1.0 mg/dl

5-18 μmol/L

2 mg/dl

34 μmol/L

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88
Q

JAUNDICE

Excess bilirubin in the plasma can result from :

excessive breakdown of red blood cells (___________ jaundice)

failure of the liver to excrete bilirubin (_________ Jaundice)

obstruction to the bile ducts (____________ Jaundice)

A

hemolytic jaundice

Hepatic Jaundice

Obstructive Jaundice

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89
Q

JAUNDICE

Excess bilirubin in the plasma can result from :

_______________________ (hemolytic jaundice)

_____________________ (Hepatic Jaundice)

______________________ (Obstructive Jaundice)

A

excessive breakdown of red blood cells

failure of the liver to excrete bilirubin

obstruction to the bile ducts

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90
Q

Leukocytes are grouped into two major
categories:

Granulocytes
- contain specialized membrane-bound
____________
- include _________,__________, and __________

Agranulocytes
- lack ___________
- include ________ and _________

A

cytoplasmic granules

neutrophils, eosinophils, and
basophils.

obvious granules

lymphocytes and monocytes

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91
Q

Leukocytes (WBCs) Count

__________-_________/ L

A

4,000-11,000

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92
Q

Function of Leukocytes:

________ against diseases

Leukocytes form a ________ that
helps protect the body from damage by
bacteria, viruses, parasites, toxins and
tumor cells.

A

defense

mobile army

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93
Q

Leukocytes circulate in the blood for various length of time.

Life span
- ____________ to ____________ for the
majority

  • ____________ for a few memory cells
A

several hours ; several days

many years

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94
Q

Neutrophils
- _____%-____\% WBCs
- Nucleus _______lobed (up to _______ lobes)
- Duration of development: _______
- Life Span: _______ to a _______
- About 12-14 μm in diameter
- Function: ______________

A

40%-70%

multilobed ;six lobes

6-9 days

6 hours to a few days

phagocytize bacteria

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95
Q

Eosinophils
- _____%-____% WBCs
- Nucleus _____lobed , its about 12-14 μm in diameter
- Development: _________
- Life Span: _________

A
  • 1%-4% WBCs

bilobed

6-9 days

8-12 days

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96
Q

Function of Eosinophils

Function:
1) Kill ___________
2) destroy ___________ complexes
3) inactivate some ___________ of ___________

A

parasitic worms

antigen-antibody complexes

inflammatory chemical of allergy

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97
Q

Basophils
- ______% WBCs
- Do not always have a _____\ nucleus
- its about 10-12 μm in diameter
- Development: _____ days
- Life Span: ________ to _________

A

0.5%

lobed

3-7 days

a few hours ; a few days

98
Q

Basophils

Function:

1) Release ________ and other mediators of ____________
2) contain ____________ , an _________

A

histamine ; inflammation

heparin ; anticoagulant

99
Q

Lymphocytes
- ____ cells and ___ cells
- ____%-____% WBCs
-Principal ones are small (_____ μm in diameter) while the big ones found in tissues are about ____ μm in diameter)
- Nucleus _________ or ________
- Development: ______ to ______
- Life Span: _____ to _______

A

T cells and B cells

20%-45%

10; 20μm

spherical or indented

days to weeks

hours to years

100
Q

Lymphocytes

Function

Mount _____________ by _________ (T cells) or via __________ (B cells)

A

immune response

direct cell attack

antibodies

101
Q

Monocytes
- ____%-_____% WBCs
- Nucleus ____-shaped

  • Development: ______days
  • Life Span: _________
A

4%-8%

U-shaped

2-3 days

102
Q

Largest of the circulating cells is the ???

A

Monocytes

103
Q

Monocytes

  • Function:
    ______________

develop into __________ in tissues

A

Phagocytosis

macrophages

104
Q

Leukocytes are deployed in the infected areas outside blood vessels via 3 steps.

1) _____________
2) _____________
3) _____________

A

1) Margination
2) Diapedesis
3) chemotaxis

105
Q

Margination of WBCs

__________ of the WBCs toward the
__________ during blood flow

A

Migration; endothelium

106
Q

Diapedesis:

Leukocytes _____ of the ______________

A

slip out

capillary blood
vessels.

107
Q

Chemotaxis Of WBCs:

Gather in large numbers at areas of tissue damage and infection by
following the __________________ released by ________ cells or other ________

A

chemical trail of molecules

damaged; leukocytes

108
Q

Phagocytosis

To Destroy _________ or _________

A

foreign substances

dead cells

109
Q

Leukocyte Disorders

Normal Leukocyte Count: _______ – _______/l

Leukopenia: _______/l normal leukocytes

Leukocytosis: _______ /l normal leukocytes

A

4,000 – 11,000/l

< 4,000

> 11,000

110
Q

Leuko_______ is one major side effect of chemotherapy

A

penia

111
Q

Why Leukopenia during chemotherapy?

  • Cancerous cells grow (slow or fast?) , which distinguish themselves from most of normal cells.
  • Chemotherapy is designed to ________________ by interrupting ____________.
  • Chemotherapy also kills a few _____________ cells including:
    _______,________,_________
A

fast

kill fast-growing cells ; mitotic cell division.

normal fast-growing

leukocytes
hair
intestinal epithelial cells

112
Q

Leukemia

  • Leukemia refers to a group of ________ of ______ blood cells.
  • extraordinarily ______ number of abnormal (cancerous) leukocytes
A

cancerous conditions; white

High

113
Q

Human Blood Groups

  • were learned from tragedies (death)
    caused by _______ during ————
    in ancient times.
A

mismatch; transfusion

114
Q

ABO blood types were identified in
_________ by ______ (1930 Nobel
laureate).
- Other blood types were identified later.

A

1900; Karl Landstein

115
Q

Blood type is determined by ???

A

Agglutinogens

116
Q

Agglutinogens

• are specific ___________ on ____________

A

glycoproteins

red blood cell membranes.

117
Q

All RBCs in an individual carry the
same specific type of agglutinogens.

T/F

A

T

118
Q

ABO Blood Groups

Type A: RBCs carry agglutinogen ____.
Type B: RBCs carry agglutinogen _____.
Type O: RBCs carry ________ agglutinogens.
Type AB: RBCs carry ______ agglutinogens

A

A

B

no A nor B

both A and B

119
Q

Type A blood

RBCs carry type _______ agglutinogens.

_______ contain preformed antibodies,
__________ , against _____ aagglutinogens.

A

A

Plasma

Agglutinin B

B

120
Q

Agglutinins
- are _________ in plasma
- bind to __________ that are not carried
by host RBCs
- cause ___________

A

preformed antibodies

agglutinogens

agglutination

121
Q

Agglutination

__________ and ___________ of incompatible RBCs.

A

aggregation and lysis

122
Q

Type B blood

-RBCs carry type ____ agglutinogens.
- Plasma contains agglutinin against __________

A

B

A
agglutinogens.

123
Q

Type O blood

RBCs carry ____________ agglutinogens.

Plasma contains agglutinin against __________________.

The person can accept only type ______
blood transfusion.

A

neither type A nor type B

both A and B agglutinogens

O

124
Q

Type AB blood

Agglutinogen(s) ?
Agglutinin(s) ?

A

A and B

None

125
Q

Agglutinogen is on _______

Agglutinin is in ????

A

Rbc

Plasma

126
Q

Blood type ; Agglutinogen ; agglutinin

Type A

Type B

Type O

Type AB

A

A ; B

B; A

None; A and B

A and B; none

127
Q

Rh Blood Groups

Rh posituve

  • RBCs contain ___________.
A

Rh agglutinogens

128
Q

About ____ per cent of all white people are Rh positive and ____ per cent, Rh negative.

In American blacks, the percentage of Rh-positives is about ______, whereas in African blacks, it is virtually _____ per cent.

A

85; 15

95; 100

129
Q

Rh negative
- The RBCs contain ______________.

  • Agglutinins against Rh-positive RBCs are produced ________________
A

no Rh agglutinogens

After Rh-negative blood sees Rhpositive RBCs.

130
Q

The problem with a Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive fetus

First Pregnancy: Protected by the
_______________ , the mother is not
exposed to Rh agglutinogens until the time of _______ due to ___________

Leading to Generation of ____________

Leading to ________ of the second pregnancy

A

placenta-blood barrier; childbirth

placental tearing; antiRh agglutinins

Haemolytic disease of the newborn

131
Q

Treatment for Hemolytic disease of the newborn:

use ______________ to mask Rh agglutinogens

A

anti-Rh  globulin

132
Q

STATISTICS ON HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF NEW BORN

• There is a 1 in _____ chance of rhesus iso-immuniztion during the first preganancy
• 1 in ____ during the second and 3rd pregnancy
• 1 in _____ during the 4th pregnancy and
• 1 in ____ during the 5th pregnancy

A

143

14

12

8

133
Q

The overall incidence of hemolytic disease of the newborn
is about 1 in ______ of all pregnancies.

A

200

134
Q

There is no risk of rhesus iso-immunization if ___________ are Rhesus negative or are Rhesus Postive or if a ___________ man marries a __________ woman.

The problem is with a ___________ man married with a __________ woman.

However with hyperimmune drugs
saftey can be assured

A

both couples

Rh negative ; Rhesus postive

Rhesus Positive ; Rhesus –ve

135
Q

Hemostasis refers to the ______________

A

stoppage of bleeding.

136
Q

Steps involved in Hemostasis
➢ ____________.
➢Formation of __________ .
➢Formation of __________ and __________.
➢Growth of __________ into the clot to form a permanent seal at the point of vessel damage.
➢Removal of ____________________
➢Repair of blood vessel __________.

A

Vascular Spasm.

platelet plug.

blood clot ; clot retraction.

fibrous tissue

excess fibrous tissue.

endothelium.

137
Q

Platelets are cells

T/F

A

F

Platelets are not cells but cytoplasmic fragments of extraordinarily large
called megakaryocytes.

138
Q

Normal Platelet Count:

________ – _________/

A

130,000

400,000

139
Q

Function of Platelets

•Secrete _________ that cause vascular
spasms in broken vessels

•)Form ____________ to stop bleeding

•) Secrete chemicals that attract ________ and _________ to sites of inflammation

•) Secrete ________ that stimulate mitosis in ___________ and ___________ and help maintain the linings of blood vessels

•)Dissolve ________ that have outlast their usefulness

A

vasoconstrictors

temporary platelet plugs

neutrophils and monocytes

growth factors ; fibroblasts ; smooth muscle

blood clots

140
Q

Coagulation (Clotting)

-Many clotting factors in ________ are involved in
clotting.

-These factors are
(active or inactive?) in the blood.

A

plasma

Inactive

141
Q

Clotting factors are activated when:
1) __________________ , or
2) _________________

A

blood vessel is broken

blood flow slows down.

142
Q

CLOTTING FACTORS
Factor I- ___________
Factor II- ___________
Factor III - ___________
Factor IV - ___________
Factor V- ___________ (___________)
Factor VII - ___________
Factor VIII - ___________
Factor IX - ___________ (or ___________ component).
Factor X- ___________ factor
Factor XI - ___________
Factor XII - ___________ Factor
Factor XIII - ___________ factor

A

Factor I- Fibrinogen
Factor II- Prothrombin
Factor III - Tissue Thromboplastin
Factor IV - Calcium ions
Factor V- Labile factor (Proaccelerin)
Factor VII - Stable factor
Factor VIII - Antihaemophilic factor
Factor IX - Christmas Factor (or Plasma
thromboplastin component).
Factor X- Stuart-Prower factor
Factor XI - Plasma thromboplastin antecedent
Factor XII - Hageman Factor
Factor XIII - Fibrin stabilizing factor

143
Q

Mnemonic for clotting factors

Freshers
Party
Tonight
Come
Let’s
Sing
And
Clap
Some
PHat
Fucking ass

A

You are welcome 🖤

144
Q

STEPS INVOLVED IN BLOOD CLOTTING

Formation of ___________

Both the Extrinsic and Intrinsic Pathway tends to arrive at the formation of _________ (__________ activator)

Conversion of __________ to _________
Conversion of ___________ to _________

A

thromboplastin

Thromboplastin

Prothrombin

prothrombin to Thrombin

fibrinogen to fibrin

145
Q

The sequential activation (reaction
cascade) of the clotting factors finally leads to the formation of _______________

Blood cells are _______ in this to form a
___________.

A

fibrin meshwork.

trapped; hard clot

146
Q

Coagulation Disorders

Thrombosis is the ___________________.

Thrombus is a ____________________.

Embolus is a ———————————-.

Embolism is the __________________.

Infarction refers to __________ that results from _________.

A

abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel

clot that attaches to the wall of blood vessel

clot that comes off the wall of blood
vessel and travel in the blood stream

blockage of blood flow by an embolus that lodges in a small blood vessel

cell death; embolism

147
Q

__________ is responsible for most strokes and heart attacks.

A

Infarction

148
Q

Bleeding Disorders
1) Thrombocytopenia

  • the number of _________ is _________
    (___________ /l )
  • causes ____________ from small blood vessels all over the body

2) Deficiency of clotting factors due to impaired ______ function (______ Deficiency) “______,______,_______,_______, and __________

A

circulating platelets; deficient; <50,000

spontaneous bleeding

liver; Vit K

Prothrombin, Factor VII,
IX, X and protein c.

149
Q

Bleeding Disorders

3) Hemophilias
Hereditary bleeding disorders due to deficiency of __________ in 85% of people and _________ in 15%.

It occurs in (Males or Females?) while (males or females?) are carriers but never
manifest the disease.

A

clotting factor VIII

factor IX

Males; Females

150
Q

Acids are constantly produced in the body.
T/F

A

T

151
Q

PH is the measure of ———- or _________ in a given solution.

It is given by the _____
concentration.

A

acidity or alkalinity

H ion

152
Q

The body pH varies for arterial blood (~______ ±0.02) and in venous blood is ~______ ± 0.02.

Reference PH for the body is _______

A

7.45; 7.35

7.4

153
Q

Increase body H ion concentration is _________ and decrease is ________.

A

acidosis; alkalosis

154
Q

Types of acids produced

Volatile acids: are derived from ________ .

Large quantity of ________ is produced during the metabolism of ________
and ________. This ________ is not a threat because it is almost totally removed through ________ by ________.

A

CO2

CO2 ; carbohydrates ; lipids.

CO2; expired air ; lungs.

155
Q

Types of acids produced

Non-volatile Acids: are produced during the metabolismof other nutritive substances such as ________. These
acids are real threat to the acid-base status of the body.

For example, _________ is produced during the metabolism of sulfur containing amino acids such as
________ and _________

A

proteins

sulfuric acid

cysteine ; metheonine

156
Q

COMPENSATORY MECHANISM
There are three primary systems that regulate the H+
concentration in the body fluids to prevent acidosis or
alkalosis:
(1) the _________________ systems of the body fluids, which immediately combine with acid or base to prevent excessive changes in H+ concentration;
(2) the __________ center (_________ buffering system) and which regulates the removal of ______ (and,
therefore, _________) from the extracellular fluid

(3)the ________ (_______ buffering system), which can excrete either ______ or ____________, thereby readjusting the extracellular fluid H+ concentration
toward normal during acidosis or alkalosis.

A

chemical acid-base

respiratory ; Respiratory ;CO2 ; H2C03

kidneys ;Renal ; acid or alkaline urine

157
Q

• A buffer is any substance that can ___________________. It prevent rapid changes in pH

A

reversibly bind H ion

158
Q

• Types of Buffer Systems
Body fluids have three types of buffer systems, which act under different conditions:
1. _________ buffer system
2. __________ buffer system
3. _________ buffer system.

A

Bicarbonate buffer system
2. Phosphate buffer system
3. Protein buffer system.

159
Q

Bicarbonate Buffer System
Bicarbonate buffer system is present in _______ (plasma).

It consists of the protonated
substance, ________(_______) which is a _______ and the unprotonated substance, _________ , which is a _________.

A

ECF

carbonic acid; H2CO3; weak acid

HCO3–; weak base.

160
Q

Bicarbonate buffer system

HCO3– is in the form of
_____ , i.e. ________ (_______).

A

salt

sodium bicarbonate

NaHCO3

161
Q

Bicarbonate Buffer System

H2C03 is formed in the body by the reaction of _______ and _______, with the enzyme , ____________

A

CO2 with H2O

Carbonic anhydrase

162
Q

Bicarbonate buffer system

The second component of the system,
bicarbonate salt, occurs predominantly as _________ (_______) in the extracellular fluid.

A

sodium bicarbonate; NaHCO3

163
Q

Bicarbonate buffer system

NaHCO3 ionizes almost
completely to form ________ and ———

A

HCO3- and Na+

164
Q

In the presence of strong acid like HCl;

HCO3ˉ + HCl ———-> ________ + _____

In the presence of strong base like NaOH
NaOH + H2CO3 ———-> _______ + _______

A

H2CO3; Clˉ

NaHCO3; H2O.

165
Q

_________ is the most important and abundant ECF buffer

A

Bicarbonate bigger system

166
Q

Phosphate buffers

Conc. in ECF is (low or high), about ___% that of HCO3

Not significant in ____ but in ______ , especially ________ and ____________

A

low ; 8%

ECF ; ICF ; renal tubules ; red blood cells

167
Q

When a strong acid like hydrochloric acid is mixed with a fluid containing phosphate buffer, ___________________ ( ____________– weak acid) is formed.

A

sodium dihydrogen phosphate

NaH2PO4

168
Q

If a strong base such as sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to the fluid containing phosphate buffer, a weak
base called _____________ ( __________ ) is
formed.

A

disodium hydrogen phosphate

Na2HPO4

169
Q

In the red blood cells, the (sodium or potassium?) ion concentration is higher than the (sodium or potassium ?)ion concentration.

So, the elements of phosphate buffer inside the red blood cells
are in the form of _____________
( __________) and _____________
(__________)

A

Potassium; sodium

potassium dihydrogen phosphate

KH2PO4

dipotassium hydrogen phosphate

K2HPO4

170
Q

Protein Buffer
Protein buffer systems are present in the blood; both in the ________ and _________

A

the plasma and erythrocytes.

171
Q

Protein buffer systems in plasma

Elements of proteins, which form the weak acids in the plasma are:
• i. ________________ group, ________________ group
and side-chain ________________ group of ________________

• ii. Side-chain _________ group of __________
• iii. ____________ group of ____________.

A

C-terminal carboxyl group, N-terminal amino group , side-chain carboxyl group of glutamic acid

amino group ; lysine

Imidazole ;histidine.

172
Q

Protein buffer systems in plasma are more powerful because of their ______________ in plasma and
because of their pK being very close to _____

A

high concentration

7.4

173
Q

Protein buffer system in erythrocytes (Hemoglobin)

Due to its high concentration
than the plasma proteins, hemoglobin has about ______ times more buffering capacity than the plasma
proteins.

A

six

174
Q

_____________ is the most effective protein buffer

_________ is the major buffer in blood.

A

Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin.

175
Q

The _______genated hemoglobin is a more powerful buffer than ______genated hemoglobin because of the higher pK.

A

deoxy

oxy

176
Q

When a hemoglobin molecule becomes
deoxygenated in the capillaries, it easily _________, which are released when _____ enters the capillaries.

A

binds with H+

CO2

177
Q

IMMUNE SYSTEM

Immunity can be defined as the body’s ability to _______________________ in the initiation of disease
processes.

A

defend against specific pathogens and/or foreign substances

178
Q

TYPES OF IMMUNITY
Immunity is of two types:
• I. _________ immunity.
• II. ___________ immunity

A

Innate

Acquired

179
Q

• Innate immunity, the body’s ______ line of defense, occurs (early or late?) and (more or less?) rapidly in response to foreign substances.

It is otherwise called the ________ or __________ immunity

A

first

Early ; more

natural or non-specific

180
Q

EXAMPLES OF INNATE IMMUNE PROCESSES IN MAN

  1. _____________ of bacteria and other invaders by white blood cells and cells of the tissue macrophage system.
  2. Destruction of swallowed organisms by the _____________ of the stomach and the digestive enzymes.
  3. Resistance of the skin to invasion by
    organisms.
A

Phagocytosis

acid secretions

181
Q

More innate immune response in man

certain chemical compounds in the blood that attach to foreign organisms or toxins and destroy them. Some of
these compounds are
(1) ___________
(2) __________, which react with and inactivate certain types of gram-positive bacteria;
(3) the _____________ that is described later,
a system of about 20 proteins that can be activated in
various ways to destroy bacteria; and
(4) _______________ that can recognize
and destroy foreign cells, tumor cells, and even some infected cells

A

lysozyme

basic polypeptides

complement complex

natural killer lymphocytes

182
Q

Acquired immunity
• This is the type of immunity is ___________ in the organism’s body.

It appears after _____________ to certain foreign organism or toxins that provoke its formation/ production of the
immune agent
• This type of immunity is also known as _________ immunity

A

not present naturally

organism has been exposed

specific

183
Q

(Acquired or Innate?) immunity is the most powerful immune
mechanism for protection.

A

Acquired

184
Q

___________ are responsible for acquired immunity

A

Lymphocytes

185
Q

Types of Acquired Immunity
Two types of acquired immunity develop in the body:
• 1. ________ immunity
• 2. ___________ immunity

A

Cellular immunity

Humoral immunity (

186
Q

Two types of acquired immunity develop in the body:

• 1. Cellular immunity (mediated by _______________)
• 2. Humoral immunity (involves production of _________ mediated by _____________)

A

T-lymphocytes

antibodies ; B-lymphocytes

187
Q

CYTOKINES
• Cytokines are hormone like ___________ that affect immune response.

•They can be secreted by _________, ___________ and in some instances
____________ cells, neurons, glial cells, and other types of cells .

A

chemical messengers

lymphocytes ; macrophages

endothelial cells

188
Q

A convention exist that once the amino acid sequence of a factor in human is known its name is changed to
_____________. Thus the name of B cell differentiation factor was changed to _______________

A

interleukin (IL)

interleukin 4

189
Q

The interleukins are usually numbered
sequentially in Arabic numerals and most of the principal cytokines are numbered _______ to _______ e.t.c

A

IL-1 to
IL-13

190
Q

Other cytokines that do not fit into this
Sequential Arabic numbering are ____________,___________, and ____________ .

Some of them have ______ or ————
subtypes

A

Tumour Necrotic Factor (TNF),
interferon, and Transforming Growth Factor (TGF)

alpha or Beta

191
Q

ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS

Antigen-presenting cells are the special type of cells in the body, which induce the ———————- from __________ and later present these materials to the _______________s.

A

release of antigenic materials

invading organisms

helper T cell

192
Q

Types of Antigen-Presenting Cells
Antigen-presenting cells are of three types

  1. Macrophages: Macrophages are the (small or large?) ________ cells, which ______ the invading organisms to release
    the antigen.

The macrophages are present along with
___________ in almost all the lymphoid tissues

A

Large; phagocytic

digest

lymphocytes

193
Q

Types of Antigen-Presenting Cells
Antigen-presenting cells are of three types

List them

A
  1. Macrophages
  2. Dendritic cells
  3. B-lymphocytes
194
Q

Types of Antigen-Presenting Cells

Dendritic Cells: Dendritic cells are (phagocytic or nonphagocytic?) in nature.

Based on the location, dendritic cells are classified into three
categories:
i. Dendritic cells of ________, which trap the antigen in ________.
ii. _________ dendritic cells in ________, which trap the
antigen in the ________.
iii. _________ dendritic cells in _____, which trap the organisms coming in contact with _____________.

A

nonphagocytic

spleen ; blood.

Follicular ; lymph nodes ; lymph.

Langerhans ; skin ; body surface.

195
Q

Types of Antigen-Presenting Cells

B Lymphocytes : B lymphocytes also act as antigen-presenting
cells.

Thus, the B cells function as both antigen-_________ cells and antigen ———— cells.

A

presenting; receiving

196
Q

However, ________ are the least
efficient antigen presenting cells and need to be activated by ————-

A

B cells

helper T cells.

197
Q

Role of Antigen-presenting Cells

Invading foreign organisms are either _____________ by ________
through phagocytosis or _________ by __________. The antigen from these organisms is _______ into ————- products.

These antigenic peptide products move towards the ________ of the antigen-presenting cells and bind with _______________.

A

engulfed by macrophages ; trapped by dendritic cells

Digested; small peptide ; surface

human leukocyte antigen (HLA).

198
Q

HLA is a genetic matter present in the molecule of ______________ , which is situated on the ______ of the antigen-presenting cells.

A

class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

surface

199
Q

MHC and HLA

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a (small or large?) molecule present in the _____ arm of chromosome _____.

It is made up of a group of genes which are involved in immune system. It has
more than _______ genes including HLA genes.

A

Large; short; 6

200

200
Q

MHC molecules in
human beings are divided into two types:

  1. Class I MHC molecule: It is found in _______ cell in human body. It is specifically responsible for presentation of __________ antigens to __________ cells.
  2. Class II MHC molecule: It is found on ____________,________,____________ . It is responsible for presenting
    the __________ antigens to ________cells.
A

every; endogenous ; cytotoxic T

B cells, macrophages and
other antigen-presenting cells

exogenous; helper T

201
Q

Presentation of Antigen
Antigen presentation

  1. _________ cell recognizes the antigen displayed on the surface of the APC with the help of its own surface receptor protein called _____________ .
  2. This initiates a complex interaction between the ___________ & the ________ which activates __________ cells.
  3. At the same time, macrophages (the APC’s) release __________, which facilitates the activation & proliferation of _________ cells.
  4. ______________ cells proliferate and enter the circulation for further actions
  5. Simultaneously, the antigen which is bound to class _____ MHC molecules activates the ______ cells also,
    resulting in the development of ________immunity
A

Helper T ; T cell receptor.

helper T cell receptor ; the antigen

interleukin-1 ; helper T cells.

Activated helper T cells

class II MHC ; B cells ; humoral immunity

202
Q

Cellullar immunity
• Cellular immunity is mediated by ___________ (_______- dependent lymphocytes).

A

T-lymphocytes

thymus

203
Q

During the processing of T-lymphocytes in the _______, each lymphocyte develops specific reactivity against _____
antigen until there are different thymic lymphocytes with specific reactivity against literally ______ of
different antigens

A

thymus; one; millions

204
Q

Each T cell has _________ of receptor molecules on its surface and ________ bind with these receptors in the
same way they bind with antibodies.

A

thousands

antigens

205
Q

T-lyhmpocytes that are processed in the _________ are _________ to ensure that the T-lymphocytes eventually released into the circulation do not ___________________.

A

thymus

screened

react with the bodies own tissues

206
Q

• The T lymphocytes that fail the screening test by reactivity with the body’s own tissues are _________ and __________ instead of being
released. About _____% are destroyed in this process.

A

destroyed

phagocytized

90

207
Q

Types of T-cells
There are four types of T-Cells
1. __________ cells
2. __________ or __________ cells
3. __________ cells
4. __________ cells

A

Helper T cells
2. Cytotoxic or Killer T cells
3. Suppressor T cells
4. Memory T cells

208
Q

ROLE OF HELPER T CELLS

• Helper T cells (CD4 cells) which enter the circulation , help to ________ all the ____________ and _________ .

Normal, CD4 count in healthy adults varies between ______ and ______ per cubic millimeter of blood.

A

activate

other T cells and B cells

500 ; 1500

209
Q

Helper T cells are of two types:

List them

A

Helper-1 (TH1) cells
Helper-2 (TH2) cells

210
Q

Helper T cells are of two types:

Helper-1 (TH1) cells: TH1 cells are concerned with ______ immunity and secrete _________ and _____________.

Helper-2 (TH2) cells:TH2 cells are concerned with ________ immunity and secrete ________ and __________

A

cellular immunity ; interleukin -2 ; Gamma Interferon.

humoral immunity ;interleukin-
4 ; interleukin-5.

211
Q

ROLE OF CYTOTOXIC T CELLS

Cytotoxic T cells, activated by _________ cells, circulate in the blood, lymph and lymphatic tissues to _______ the
invading organisms by attacking them (directly or indirectly ?)

A

helper T

destroy

Directly

212
Q

Other Actions of Cytotoxic T Cells

  1. Cytotoxic T cells also destroy ———- cells, __________ cells
  2. Cytotoxic T cells destroy even the body’s ____________________________,
    particularly _________.
A

cancer

transplanted

own tissues which are affected by foreign bodies

viruses

213
Q

ROLE OF SUPPRESSOR T CELLS

Suppressor T cells are also called ___________ cells. These T cells ________ the activities of the _________ cells.

Thus, the suppressor T cells play an
important role in preventing the ______ cells from _____________________________.

A

regulatory T cells

killer T cells ; killer T cells

destroying the body’s own tissues along
with invaded organisms

214
Q

Suppressor cells suppress the activities of helper T cells

T/F

A

T

215
Q

ROLE OF MEMORY T CELLS

Some of the T cells activated by an antigen do not _____________________ but remain in ____________. These T cells are called memory T cells.

In later periods, the memory cells migrate to various lymphoid tissues throughout the body.

When the body is exposed to the same organism for the second time.

A

enter the circulation

lymphoid tissue

216
Q

DEVELOPMENT OF HUMORAL IMMUNITY

Humoral immunity is defined as the immunity mediated by _________, which are secreted by __________.

A

antibodies

B lymphocytes.

217
Q

B lymphocytes secrete the
antibodies into the ______ and _______.

A

blood and lymph

218
Q

___________ are the _______ globulins produced by B lymphocytes.

A

Antibodies

gamma

219
Q

ANTIBODIES OR IMMUNOGLOBULINS
• Antibody is ___________ in nature, and it is also called ________________

A

gamma globulin

immunoglobulin (Ig).

220
Q

Types of Antibodies : Five types of antibodies are identified:
1. Ig___ (Ig ______ )
2. Ig___ (Ig ______)
3. Ig___ (Ig ______)
4. Ig___ (Ig ______)
5. Ig___ (Ig ______).

A
  1. IgA (Ig alpha)
  2. IgD (Ig delta)
  3. IgE (Ig epsilon)
  4. IgG (Ig gamma)
  5. IgM (Ig mu).
221
Q

IgG forms ______% of the antibodies in the
body

A

75

222
Q

Functions of Different Antibodies
1. IgA plays a role in localized defense mechanisms in _____________ like _______.
2. IgD is involved in _____________ by B lymphocytes
3. IgE is involved in ________ reactions
4. IgG is responsible for ______________
5. IgM is also responsible for ______________

A

external secretions ; tears.

recognition of the antigen

allergic reactions

complement fixation

complement fixation

223
Q

most antitoxins and antibodies belong to this class (Ig___)

blood group antibodies anti-A and Anti-B belongs to the Ig___ class)

A

G

M

224
Q

Passive Natural Immunization

Passive natural immunization is acquired from the _____________________.

Before birth, immunity is transferred from the mother to the fetus in the form of __________ antibodies (mainly Ig____) through the ________.

After birth, the antibodies (Ig___) are transferred through _________.

A

mother before and after birth.

maternal antibodies ; IgG

placenta.

(IgA) ; breast milk.

225
Q

Passive Artificial Immunization
• Passive artificial immunization is developed by injecting ______________ antibodies using _______ from humans
or animals.

A

previously prepared

serum

226
Q

• The serum containing the antibody ( _________ ) is administered to people who have developed the disease
( ____________ ).

• This type of immunity is useful for providing immediate protection against (acute or chronic?) infections like ________,_________,__________ , etc. and for ________ by insects, snakes and
venom from other animals.

A

antiserum; therapeutic

Acute

tetanus, measles, diphtheria

poisoning

227
Q

Active Artificial Immunization
• Active artificial immunization is a type of immunization achieved by the administration of ________ or _________.

A

vaccines or toxoids

228
Q

Vaccines : is a substance that is introduced into the body to prevent the disease produced by certain pathogens.

Vaccine consists of ______ pathogens or _________________ organisms.

A

dead

live but attenuated (artificially weakened)

229
Q

___________ produced the first live vaccine. He produced the vaccine for ———- from ________ virus.

A

Edward Jenner

smallpox; cowpox

230
Q

Toxoids

• Toxoid is a substance which is normally _______ and has been processed to _____________ but retains its capacity to _________________________ by immune
system.

A

toxic ; destroy its toxicity

induce antibody production

231
Q

IMMUNE DEFICIENCY DISEASES
CONGENITAL IMMUNE DEFICIENCY DISEASES

Congenital diseases are inherited and occur due to defects in B cells or T cells or both.

The common examples are ________ (due to ___________ ) and _____________ (due to _________ or the ____________\).

A

DiGeorge syndrome

absence of thymus

severe combined immune deficiency

lymphopenia; absence of
lymphoid tissue

232
Q

ACQUIRED IMMUNE DEFICIENCY DISEASES
• This occurs due to infection by some organisms. The most common disease of this type is _______________, which is an infectious disease caused by _________________

A

acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

immune deficiency virus (HIV).

233
Q

A person is diagnosed with AIDS when the CD4 count is below ______ cells per cubic millimeter of blood.

Infection occurs when a ________ from HIV binds to ________ receptors of ________,_________,________, and __________ leading to the destruction of these cells.

It causes a slow progressive decrease in immune function, resulting in
opportunistic infections of various types

A

200

glycoprotein; surface

T lymphocytes, monocytes,
macrophages and dendritic cells

234
Q

AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES
• Autoimmune disease is defined as a condition in which the immune system mistakenly ______________. Normally, an antigen induces the immune response in the body but the body has the
___________ against ____________.
• However, in some occasions, the ________ fails or becomes incomplete against ____________. This state
is called autoimmunity

A

attacks body’s cells and tissues.

tolerance ; self-antigen.

tolerance ; self-antigen.

235
Q

COMMON AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES

List 5

A

COMMON AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES
1. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
2. Myasthenia gravis
3. Hashimoto thyroiditis
4. Graves disease
5. Rheumatoid arthriti

236
Q

ALLERGY AND IMMUNOLOGICAL
HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS
• The term allergy means ___________. It is defined as an abnormal __________ to a chemical or physical agent (allergen).

• During the first exposure to an allergen, the immune response does __________________________ but another subsequent exposure to the
allergen causes ______________________.

These responses are called allergic reactions or immunological hypersensitivity reactions

A

hypersensitivity ; immune response

not normally produce any reaction in
the body

a variety of inflammatory responses.

237
Q

Immunological hypersensitivity reactions may be ________ or _________ . These reactions are mediated mostly by _________.

A

innate or acquired

antibodies

238
Q

Common immunological hypersensitivity reaction symptoms include _________,_________, and ________

A

sneezing, itching and skin
rashes.

239
Q

Common allergic conditions are:
1. _______ allergy
2. Allergic _______
3. ________ _______
4. ___________

A
  1. Food allergy
  2. Allergic rhinitis
  3. Bronchial asthma
  4. Urticaria
240
Q

Hypersensitive reactions are classified into five
types:
• Type I or _______________ reactions.
• Type II or _______________ reactions.
• Type III or _______________ reactions.
• Type IV or _______________ reactions.
• Type V or _______________ reactions

A

• Type I or anaphylactic reactions.
• Type II or cytotoxic reactions.
• Type III or antibody-mediated reactions.
• Type IV or cell-mediated reactions.
• Type V or stimulatory/blocking reactions