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Block 2: Fundamentals of Medicine > Block 2B Exam > Flashcards

Block 2B Exam Flashcards

1
Q

ID cell type

A

elastic cartilage (with perichondirum)

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2
Q

Lipid droplet

A

energy store/source of lipids - may be used in steroid hormone formation. not enclosed by a membrane

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3
Q

Series Elastic component (SEC)

A

connect contractile proteins to the bone- remain stretched out so there’s a delay in transmission of force from cross bridges to muscle surface

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4
Q

where do osteoclasts come from?

A

hematopoetic stem cell lineage - share ancestor with monocyte/macrophage

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5
Q

hemicholinium

A

blocks the choline transporter causing the nerve ending to be depleted of Ach

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6
Q

What is this?

A

Medullary cords and sinuses

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7
Q

1

A

euchromatin

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8
Q

monocilia

A

nonmotile promary cilia

chemosensors, osmosensors, mechanosensors - essential for normal tissue morphogenesis during embryogenesis; located at the primitive node

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9
Q

botulinum toxin

A

causes blocking of muscarinic receptors/prevents release of Ach causing flaccid paralysis (skeletal muscle weakness)

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10
Q

zonula occludens (tight junction)

A

located apically in the lateral domain - encircles the cell and is a narrow region where the PM of each cell comes together to seal off intracellular space (not a continuous seal though)

regulates the selective passage of substances (blood brain barrier)

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11
Q

is the nicotinic Ach receptor ligand gated or voltage gated?

A

LIGAND!!

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12
Q

indian hedgehog (IHH)

A

produced by prehypertrophic and early hypertrophic chondrocytes – stimulates secretion of PTH-RP and regulates formation of periosteal bone collar

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13
Q

clonidine

A

alpha2 agonist treats high blood pressure, ADHD, withdrawal in addicts

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14
Q

desmolase

A

enzyme that cleaves the side chain of cholesterol, located in the mitochondria. first step of steroid hormone synthesis

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15
Q

proteins that associate with intermediate filaments in cytoplasm of cells; are a part of desmosomes

A

plakoglobin and plakophilin

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16
Q

sample size is determined by:

A
  1. desired magnitude of difference you wish to detect 2. alpha level desired (Type I error rate) 3. beta level desired (type II error rate)
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17
Q

what supports a microvillus?

A

actin

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18
Q

smooth muscle comes from

A

splanchnic mesoderm

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19
Q

cross linking of actin filaments in the microvilli is called the __________

A

terminal web

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20
Q

alpha level

A

probability that investigator is willing to accept there is a difference when no difference exists (false positive)

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21
Q

power

A

probability of detecting a difference when a true difference does exist

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22
Q

synchondrosis

A

bones united by hyaline cartilage for very little movement (ex epiphyseal plates and costal cartaliges connecting ribs to sternum)

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23
Q

organophosphate poisoning would do the following:

A

DUMBBELS

diarrhea

urination

miosis

bronchospasm

bradycardia

excitation of CNS

lacrimation

sweat/salivation

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24
Q

alpha actinin

A

main protein that attaches actin to Z line

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25
Q

first order elimination

A

concentration dependent - there is a certain amount of drug eliminated per unit time, proportional to the amount of drug in the body

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26
Q

important protein in focal adhesion

A

integrins: major TM protein that transmit signals to the interior of cells where they have effects

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27
Q

hassals corpuscules

A

ERCs (keratinized) that secrete interleukins for T cell maturation

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28
Q

sarcolemma

A

plasma membrane+basal lamina

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29
Q

Lamin function

A

Support the nucleus and maintain its shape; coats the inner surface of the nuclear membrane (the nuclear lamina)

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30
Q

propranolol

A

nonselctive beta antagonist; used in HTN, prophylactic migraine treatment, stage fright, thyroid storm. causes local Na channel blockade

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31
Q

thrombasthenia

A

platelets lack integrain aIIbb3-fibrinogen binding site

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32
Q

calsequestrin

A

storage protein in the terminal cisternae of sarcoplasm

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33
Q

prothrombin time

A

reflection of extrinsic pathway – used to monitor vitamin K antagonists

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34
Q

albuterol

A

beta2 agonist treats asthma

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35
Q

multilocar adipocyte

A

(brown)

fetal life/first decade after birth; serves to regenerate heat rather than storage

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36
Q

sheets of membrane stacked adjacent to each other with fluid or matrix in between is called

A

lamellar

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37
Q

edema

A

pathophysiological condition of reduced albumin

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38
Q

What is the diff between white and red pulp in the spleen?

A
  • White: central artery, PALS and nodules – contains lymphocytes
  • Red: splenic sinuses and cords
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39
Q

What type of CT contains tons of fibers but less cells/ground substance?

A

Dense CT

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40
Q

pyridostigmine

A

AchE inhibitor used in long term MG treatment

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41
Q

4

A

white pulp

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42
Q

if OR >1

A

there is a positive association (risk is greater in exposed by ___x)

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43
Q

von willebrand

A

binds collagen on one side and platelet on the other

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44
Q

inverse agonist

A

binds to inactive conformational state of the receptor inhibiting function so much that is reverses the activity of the receptor

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45
Q

hyalauronic acid

A

part of the ground substance of CT

important in development, major component of cartilage

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46
Q

atenolol

A

beta1 antagonist, decreases CO and BP

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47
Q

ID cell type

A

fibrocartilage

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48
Q

volkmans canals

A

transverse/oblique canals that connect hasversian systems with one another from the blood coming from the periostium

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49
Q

Amphetamines inhibit what?

A

MAO and VMAT

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50
Q

thrombin

A

converts fibrinogen to fibrin (key component in clotting cascade)

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51
Q

nominal variable

A

characteristic measured as unordered categories (blood type, male/female, type of cancer)

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52
Q

hypertrophic chondrocytes secrete type ___ collagen and _____

A

type X collagen

VEGF

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53
Q

epinephrine contstricts

A

vascular smooth muscle (alpha1 receptors)

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54
Q

Eion Nernst equation

A

E=-61/z x log (Cin/Cout)

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55
Q

4 steps of EC couling process

A
    1. Generation of AP in muscle and depolarization of T tubule
    1. Release of Ca from SR
    1. Binding of Ca to TnC and initiation of cross bridge cycling
    1. Resequestration of Ca into SR
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56
Q

a fluid containing sac or cavity is a

A

cisternae

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57
Q

mast cell

A

nucleus in center and has lots of IgE receptors. cytoplasm is filled with dense basophilic secretory granules containing heparin, histamine, etc.

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58
Q

orthosteric

A

site that interacts with endogenous ligand

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59
Q

case report

A

anecdotal report of interesting observations (unusual cluster of symptoms, departure of normal disease pattern)

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60
Q

Where does glycogen get made in cells?

A

SER

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61
Q

ionotropic receptor

A

neurotransmitter receptor is part of one of the ion channel protein subunits itself

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62
Q

allow for direct electrical and chemical communication between cells; ensure molecules don’t leak into intercellular space

A

gap junction

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63
Q

4 types of tissue

A
  1. epithelia
  2. connective tissue
  3. muscle
  4. nerve
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64
Q

the minimum potential that can cause an axon to reach current

A

rheobase

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65
Q

varenicline

A

partial nicotinic agonist; stimulates enough dopamine relief to relieve nicotine craving (for smokers trying to quit)

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66
Q

plakoglobin

A

interacts directly with intracellular of cadherins and also binds to desmoplakin and plakophillin; important in intercalated discs

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67
Q

albuterol

A

beta2 agonist that dilates the bronchioles and arterioles in the lungs for asthma and bronchospasms

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68
Q

the signal for neurotransmitter release is

A

calcium

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69
Q

paracellular transport occurs across the ______

A

zonula occludens

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70
Q

IV discs, pubic symphysis, and menisci of knee are

A

fibrocartilage

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71
Q

length constant

A

distance where the voltage is only 37% of that at x=0

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72
Q

desmosine and isodesmosine

A

2 uncommon AAs in elastin responsible for cross linking elastic fibers; enable their stretch and recoil like rubber bands

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73
Q

epitope

A

region od antigen that reacts with antibody

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74
Q

what is spherical, basophillic, contains rRNA and proteins?

A

nucleolus

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75
Q

transcription factor of skeletal muscle

A

MyoD

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76
Q

what induces osteoclast formation and activation?

A

RANK and RANK-L

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77
Q

where is muscle creatine kinase located in the sarcomere?

A

M line

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78
Q

the most common cell in CT

A

fibroblasts

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79
Q

carvedilol

A

nonselective beta antagonist and alpha1 antagonist used in CHF management. causes vasodilation by increasing NO production

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80
Q

PAM

A

left shift in dose response curve

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81
Q

diapedesis

A

migration of inflammatory cells from the circulation to sites of action in CT

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82
Q

sudan black is used to stain _________.

A

lipids (myelinated axons)

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83
Q

ecologic study

A

evaluations of associations between exposure and outcomes in populations, not in individuals. usually based on existing population data (ex. high fat diet linked to breast cancer?)

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84
Q

physostigmine

A

AchE inhibitor treats glaucoma, alzheimers

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85
Q

dense bodies

A

contain a variety of plaque proteins where thin filaments are attached to

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86
Q

thrombin time

A

tells if fibrinogen is defective

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87
Q

OPG (osteoprotegrin)

A

produced by osteoblasts as a decoy receptor. the ratio of RANKL/OPG is proportional to number of osteoclasts (more RANKL, more OCs, more OPG, less OCs)

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88
Q

what does someone with fatal organophosphate poisoning die from?

A

respiratory failure

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89
Q

metoprolol

A

beta1 antagonist, decreases CO and BP

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90
Q

type IIa muscle fibers

A

moderately fast contraction time, fairly high resistance to fatigue

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91
Q

electrolytes

A

substances that dissolve into cations and anions when dissolved in water

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92
Q

The image on the left is normal bone. The image on the right is?

A

Osteoporosis

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93
Q

the membrane current (in unmyelinated cells) is carried by what ion?

A

K+

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94
Q

What is a yellow brown pigment that accumulates in aging cells? (circled in yellow)

A

Lipofusion

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95
Q

microtubules (cilia) are arranged in ____ pattern

A

9+2

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96
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

body makes antibodies to receptors of Ach –> weak muscle contraction/droopy eyelids

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97
Q

zonula adherens

A

(anchoring junction): proides cell-cell attachment by linking the actin cytoskeleton of adjacent cells. important in creating structural integrity of the epithelium

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98
Q
A
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99
Q

three ways to deactivate a neurotransmitter

A
  1. reuptake
  2. degradation
  3. autoreceptors
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100
Q

Na conc outside of cell

A

142 mM

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101
Q

period prevalence

A

number of people who have had disease at any time during the specific time interval

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102
Q

type IIb muscle fibers

A

very fast contraction time, low resistance to fatigue

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103
Q

for neurovascular coupling (linked to blood brain barrier), regulation of intracellular fluid in brain. Provides neurons with neurotransmitters and energy – take uip glucose from the blood and convert to glycogen . break back down to lactate when necessary then the neuron can use it

A

astrocyte

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104
Q

closely packed finger like projections of plasma membrane that increase SA of cell

A

microvilli

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105
Q

intrinsic activity

A

the ability of a drug to induce a response upon binding the receptor

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106
Q

cross sectional study

A

snapshots of health of specific population at one point in time

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107
Q

point prevalence

A

prevalence of disease at one point in time

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108
Q

unilocular adipocyte

A

(white, common)

large lipid droplet surrounded by cytoplasm ring - nucleus flattened to the periphery. secretes retiuclar fibers that surround adipocyte

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109
Q

ratio variable

A

possible values limited only by precision of measurement, 0 has real meaning, negative values invalid (height, weight, cholesterol, BP)

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110
Q

claudin and occludin are important proteins in _______

A

tight junctions

they attach to ZO proteins then to the actin filament - also communicate with the cytoskeleton of the cell

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111
Q

IQR

A

Q3-Q1

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112
Q

Ca conc outside of cell

A

1 mM

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113
Q

agglutinin

A

naturally occuring antibodies produced in response to the agglutinogens not present in your blood

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114
Q

Dosing rate

A

CL x TC

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115
Q

transference equation

A

Em=Ektk+ENatNA

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116
Q

1

A

epithelial reticular cell

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117
Q

ID cell type

A

lymphocyte

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118
Q

z value equation

A

value - mean / SD

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119
Q

what does Vmat do?

A

puts catecholamines into vesicles - need ATP to pump in because needs a proton gradient to pump H out catecholamine in

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120
Q

PTH-RP

A

produced by chondrocytes, tells cells to proliferate

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121
Q

sonic hedgehog (shh)

A

secreted GF that binds PTC receptor on cell membrane. Involved in neural tube/motor neurons, organizing limb axis formation, and development of lung and pancreas

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122
Q

most local anesthetics block ____ to prevent an AP?

A

Na conductance

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123
Q

the RER stains intensely with _____ dyes

A

basophilic

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124
Q

pH outside of cell

A

7.4

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125
Q

Which organelle has the following functions?

  1. post translational modification of proteins
  2. condensation and packing of proteins into membrane bound gradules
  3. synthesis of lipoproteins
  4. processing of acid hydrolases
  5. formation of acrosome in sperm
  6. sorting of proteins
A

Golgi

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126
Q

what is a very fine type III collagen fiber that forms a 3D network; supoprts hematopoetic and lymphoid organs?

A

reticular fibers

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127
Q

ID cell type

A

mast cell

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128
Q

costal cartilage is what type of cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage

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129
Q

positive selection in the thymus

A

selects cells that can bind to MHC, removes cells that cant be recognized. Self or foreign antigen/TCR necessary

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130
Q

interval variable

A

equal distance between values but 0 point is arbitrary (IQ, quality of life)

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131
Q

junctions that break down and form again - important in migration and wound healing

A

focal adhesions

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132
Q

what type of dyes do mitochondria stain well with?

A

acidophilic

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133
Q

Loading dose

A

Css x Vd

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134
Q

hemicholinium

A

blocks choline uptake

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135
Q

proteins directly involved in fusion of presynaptic vesicles with presynaptic plasma membrane

A

SNAREs

136
Q

atropine

A

cholinergic antagonist - more potent on the heart, intestine, and bronchial smooth muscle. used as weak CNS stimulant followed by more prolonged sedation. dry salivary secretions can increase body temp (atropine fever). causes mydriasis, cycloplegia, reduced lacrimal secretion, and dry eyes. low doses can cause bradycardia, high doses can cause tachycardia REVERSES ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING

137
Q

scopolamine

A

cholinergic antagonist used to prevent motion sickness (but has potent effects on the eye). high doses can cause delirium, mental confusion and memory loss

138
Q

neostigmine

A

AchE inhibtor used to treat MG; only symptoms treated

139
Q

What is this and where is it found?

A

Polyribosome

Found in cytosol or on RER membranes

140
Q

blood thymus barrier

A

ERCs and macrophages, a thickened capillary wall and peribascular CT to prevent thymocyte contact with antigens

141
Q

clearance (CL)

A

rate that body eliminates drug - related to the functional capacity of the liver and kidney

142
Q

glanzman’s thrombasthenia

A

platelet disorder where absent or defective fibrinogen receptor on platelets in the Ca binding domain – prolonged bleeding from minor wounds. Dec platelet count, abnormal clot retention

143
Q

what type of collagen is in the reticular lamina

A

type III colagen

144
Q

Homeobox (hox)

A

DNA sequene within genes involved in morphogenesis (Hox genes)

145
Q

thrombocytosis

A

higher than normal platelet count

146
Q

isotonic contraction

A

muscle develops force and shortens (afterload)

147
Q

Neostigmine

A

AchE inhibitor improves muscle tonie/after anesthesia to reduce effects of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants

148
Q

isoproterenol

A

nonselective beta agonist; vasodilation, relaxation, bronchodilation

149
Q

what is this and how do u know

A

microvilli

has a cap - only in microvilli!

150
Q

NAM

A

right shift in dose response curve

151
Q

allows proliferation of muscle to continue without differentiation

A

Pax7

152
Q

3 types of cells specialized for protein secretion

A
  1. pancreatic acinar cell
  2. hepatocyte
  3. plasma cell (secretes antibodies)
153
Q

fasia adherens

A

atatches actin filament to Z line

154
Q

diff between medullary cords and sinuses?

A
  • Cords: lymphocytes, macrophages, APCs, reticular cells
  • Sinuses: processes from macrophages and reticular cells, slow moving lymph, transformed (cancer) cells
155
Q

law of electroneutrality

A

the positive charge that entered the cella as Na current must either:

  1. leave the cell
  2. be balanced by the entry of negative charge

*ENa and EK can’t be changed so gNa and gK and Em change*

156
Q

binary variable

A

only 2 possibilities exist (present/absent, alive/dead, yes/no, male/female)

157
Q

Why is the AP in an axon in one direction?

A

Because the membrane already excited is in its refractory period - Na channels are inactivated so can’t reopen!

158
Q

collagen in basal lamina

A

type IV and VII

159
Q

zero order elimination

A

constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time, independent of concentration

160
Q

syndesmosis

A

joined by areas of dense CT or fibrocartilage with limited movement (pubic symphysis or IV disc)

161
Q

what is net flux?

A

directly proportional to the concentration difference

162
Q

opsonization

A

labeling something with antibodies to tell the body to get rid of it

163
Q

where are nicotinic receptors found?

A

adrenal medulla skeletal muscle sympathetic ganglia parasympathetic ganglia NMJ (motor end plates)

164
Q

osmolarity outside of cell

A

290 millimol/L

165
Q

what blocks reuptake of DAT, SERT, and NET?

A

cocaine

166
Q

hemotoxylin

A

the most common basophillic stain

167
Q

SER function

A

functions in the uptake and release of calcium in muscle cells. essential in cardiac and skeletal muscle. occurs in steroid secreting cells; enzymes found in making steroid hormones are located in SER membrane and the enzymes in liver cells involved in making/breaking down glycogen

168
Q

person time

A

how long someone experienced something for

169
Q

what proteins link cadherins (transmembrane proteins) to actin filaments of the cytoskeleton?

A

catenins, vinculin, and alpha actinin

170
Q

potency

A

dose needed to gain a specific response

171
Q

if OR <1

A

there is a negative association (risk is less in exposed population; subtract answer from 1)

172
Q

the minimum stimulus time that will cause an AP using a current twice the rheobase current is called the

A

chronaxie

173
Q

ID cell type

A

plasma cell

174
Q

cytoplasm has the tendency to draw water into the cell (thru osmosis). why dont cells burst from too much water?

A

Na/K ATP pump! Uses ATP, but pumping Na out makes water leave too to draw water out

175
Q

cleidocranial dysplasia

A

mutation in Runx2 - autosomal dominant

causes absence of clavicles, teeth abnormalities, scoliosis, short

176
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

dense lymphatic tissue *lymphatic nodule*

177
Q

propranolol

A

nonselective beta antagonist treats HTN

178
Q

ficks first law of diffusion

A

J=D x (deltaC / deltaX)

J=flux (flow per unit area)

D=diffusion coefficient

deltaC=change in concentration

deltaX=membrane thickness

179
Q

main TM protein in desmosomes

A

desmoglien

180
Q

thrombophilia

A

deficiency of protein C or factor V leiden - increased risk of clotting/DVT/PE

181
Q

syntosis

A

bones united by bone tissue – no movement (cranial sutures)

182
Q

twitch contraction phases

A
  1. Latent period: before onset of contraction due to excitation/contraction coupling
  2. Contraction phase: tension developing due to cross bridge cycling
  3. Relaxation phase: tension is decreasing and is longer than the contraction phase – due to the time it takest to get all the Ca sequestered
183
Q

a collection of proteins in the cytoplasm that recognize ubiquitin

A

proteosome

184
Q

transcription factor for osteoblast diff

A

Runx9

185
Q

prevalence equation

A

incidence rate x duration

186
Q

collagen in dermis, tendon, bone, fibrocartilage

A

type I

187
Q

steady state

A

when amount of drug absorbed = amount of drug eliminated

188
Q

ecologic fallacy

A

making causal inferences about individual phenomena based on group observations

189
Q

burden of proof lies on those who would reject the

A

null

190
Q

odds ratio

A

number of ways the event can occur to the number of ways it cannot = AD/BC

191
Q

transcription factor required for expression of cartilage specific ECM

A

Sox9

192
Q

2

A

heterochromatin

193
Q

ID structure in blue

A

SER

194
Q

triad is at ____ line in cardiac and ___ line in skeletal

A

Z line in cardiac

AI line in skelatal

195
Q

connexon

A

6 connexin monomers - link up to form an intercellular channel. high Ca or low pH closes the channel

196
Q

a sheath of dense CT surrounding most cartilage is the

A

perichondrium

contains vasculature, nerves, lymph vessels

197
Q

2

A

T cell (very basophilic so stains dark blue)

198
Q

tamsulosin

A

alpha1 antagonist smooth muscle relaxation in bladder and pancreas (used to treat BPH)

199
Q

efficacy

A

maximum effect of a drug (height of dose response curve)

200
Q

plasma cells

A

make single class of antibodies in response to antigen; has wheel nucleus

201
Q

an amorphous coat of glycoprotein above the microvilli

A

glycocalyx

202
Q

von willebrand’s disease

A

adhesion of platelets to vessels is defective

203
Q

which equation quantitates osmotic pressure across a membrane?

A

vant hoff equation (delta pi =nRT delta C)

204
Q

case control study

A

select subjectes with outcome/disease of interest versus amount without disease/outcome to determine exposure of all subjects

205
Q

the base of the cilia is called the

A

basal body

206
Q

catenin

A

structural protein in zonula adherens, transcription factor

207
Q

when the frequency of Aps is high enough to prevent any relaxation of contraction between Aps and the force – is a sustained contraction (not a twitch)

A

tetanus

208
Q

Gi

A

adenylyl cyclase inhibition

209
Q

type II error

A

(beta error) (false negative) in favor of alternative but not enough data to reject null/not statistically significant

210
Q

ohms law

A

i=g(Em-Eion)

i=ionic current

211
Q

Gq

A

PLC activation

212
Q

sclerotome

A

forms the axial skeleton (comes from somite)

213
Q

mortality rate is good reflection of incidence when:

A
  1. case fatality rate is high 2. disease duration is short
214
Q

mortality

A

number of deaths that occur during a specific period of time in a population at risk for dying

215
Q

limbs are specified by what 3 factors?

A

retanoic acid, fgf, hox

216
Q

reflection coefficient (sigma) is 1. what does this mean?

A

membrane is absolutely impermeable to the solute

217
Q

asymmetricla structures anchoring the basal domians of an epithelial cell to the underlying basal lamina; important in skin

A

hemidesmosome

218
Q

basal lamina

A

made of 1. lamina lucida and 2. lamina densa

felt like ECM made of proteins (laminin, collagen, glycoproteins, proteoglycans)

structurally important in epithelial cells, compartmentaliztion of CT, tissue scaffolding

219
Q

carbachol

A

nicotinic and muscarinic agonist, causes pupillary constriction (also treats glaucoma). can cause excessive salivation (like pilocarpine) - want to get rid of the aqueous humor creating pressure in the eye

220
Q

volume of distribution (Vd)

A

body volume that drug can distribute within - related to the amount of drug in the body and concentration of drug in the blood/plasma

221
Q

prazosin

A

alpha1 antagonist; dilates arteries/veins to decrease peripheral resistance and BP (use in HTN/CHF and in PTSD). can lead to first dose syncope

222
Q

growth that results from mitotic division of pre existing chondrocytes within the cartilage matrix is called

A

interstitial growth (ex. growth plate)

223
Q

activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)

A

test for intrinsic pathway

224
Q

ID cell type

A

eosinophil

225
Q

how are plasma and serum different?

A

serum is plasma without the clotting factors

(take blood in glass tube, let it clot then spit it down –> serum)

(take blood in glass tube and spin it down before it clots –> plasma)

226
Q

synaptic delay

A

time necessary for presynaptic depolarization to produce postsynaptic conductance – due to process of vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release – not due to time for diffusion across 15 nm synaptic cleft

227
Q

M1, M3, and M5 are coupled to

A

Gq

228
Q

What is the tissue in the center of this image?

A

diffuse lymphatic tissue

229
Q

high extracellular K does what?

A

makes the cell less excitable

  • depolarizes cells
  • inactivates Na channels
  • activates some K channels
230
Q

secondary active transport

A

use energy available in the gradient of electrochemical potential across the membrane (usually Na gradient)

231
Q

aIIB beta3

A
  • a fibrinogen receptor, necessary for formation of platelet plug
232
Q

cadherins are important in _______ and depend on _________.

A

zonula adherens

calcium

*they are transmembrane proteins in ZA

233
Q

what attaches the basal lamina to the underlying CT?

A

anchoring fibrils (type VII collagen) - binds basal lamina to reticular lamina

234
Q

difference in electrical potential (voltage diff) between the outside and inside of cell

A

resting membrane potential

235
Q

how big is an RBC

A

7-8 micrometers

236
Q

ID cell type

A

neutrophil

237
Q

ID cell type

A

elastic cartilage (can see lacunae - spaces were occupied by live cells at one point)

238
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

type I collagen mutation (mutation in glycines in collagen so bad triple helix) – tons of fractures

239
Q

ordinal variable

A

characteristic measured as ordered categories ex. stage of cancer response to treatment (complete, partial…) opinions on questionnaires (disagree, somewhat disagree…)

240
Q

transcytose

A

done by M cells in peyers patches

endocytose antigen from the intestinal lumen, exocytose it to the peyers patch

241
Q

ion trapping

A

drug has to be unionized state to cross membrane

242
Q

Max firing rate of a neuron (in Hz)

A

(1000 ms)/(absolute refractory period)

243
Q

statistic

A

estimates of parameters derived from samples

244
Q

case fatality rate

A

the proportion of people diagnosed as having disease who died during a specific period of time after diagnosis

245
Q

time constant

A

time at which it reaches 63% of the final voltage

246
Q

ID cell type

A

basophil

247
Q

pilocarpine

A

muscarinic agonist - treats xerostomia (dry mouth) and glaucoma contracts ciliary muscles and causes outflow of aqueous humor –> blurring of vision because pupils don’t dilate when they need to also causes mouth secretions

248
Q

type I error

A

(alpha error) (false positive) probability of concluding difference when the null is true

249
Q

initial concentration equation

A

dose/Vd

250
Q

primary active transport

A

uses ATP as energy source

251
Q

M2 and M4 are coupled to

A

Gi

252
Q

Kp equation

A

solubiltiy in oil / solubility in water

253
Q

phenylephrine

A

alpha1 agonist nasal decongestant/vasoconstriction

254
Q

ID cell type

A

hyaline cartilage (with perichondrium)

255
Q

the wave of depolarizaiton or hyperpolarization which moves thru the cell with a graded potential is known as

A

local current flow

256
Q

osteopetrosis (marble bone disease, albers-schonberg disease)

A

genetic disorder caused by mutations that make osteoclasts ineffective so decreased bone resorption - increased fractures, anemia., cranial nerve deficits (blind/deaf)

257
Q

endomytosis

A

mitotic division without cell divison –> process in megakaryocyte development

258
Q

petechiae

A

small red/purple bruises resulting from platelet injury to blood capillaries due to mechanical stress/inflammation

259
Q

ID cell type

A

macrophage

260
Q

makes blood nerve barrier

A

perineurium

261
Q

2

A

trabeculae

262
Q

kartageners syndrome

A

structural abnormalty that results in absence of dyenin arms –> dysfunctional cilia –> respiratory diseases (like bronchitis)

263
Q

case series

A

cluster of observations in short period or small area (new epidemic of known disease or new disease)

264
Q

length of muscle prior to contraction

A

preload

important in isometric contraction

265
Q

ID cell type

A

monocyte

266
Q

neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

A

neutrophils extrude their NA which trap pathogens to kill and clear them. Also release free histones into the blood which is bad - can cause sepsis sometimes due to v strong positive charge

267
Q

pralidoxime

A

(putting a lid on toxic spray) reverses organophosphate poisoning by regenerating AchE at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors reversing cholinergic toxicity, inducing flaccid paralysis

268
Q

diapedesis

A

process by which WBC leave blood by mirating between epithelial lining of capillaries to enter CT - increases during inflammation

269
Q

IgA

A

binds to epithelial cells and protects mucosa – prevents pathogens from adghering to mucosal surfaces

passive immunity in neonates!

270
Q

do B or T cells form nodules?

A

B CELLS!!!!

271
Q

ID cell type

A

neutrophil

272
Q

K conc outside of cell

A

4 mM

273
Q

zellweger’s syndrome

A

proteins never make it to the peroxisome so they are empty; leads to build up of LCFA in skeletal muscle and brain –> hypotonia –> lethal

274
Q

isometric contraction

A

length doesn’t change – muscle develops a preload but isn’t allowed to shorten (imagine picking up a 500 lb dumbbell)

275
Q

tonicity

A

the concentration of particles outside the cell that can’t cross the membrane (isotonic, hypertonic, hypotonic)

276
Q

_______ causes Na channel to be activated more easily? (will modulate excitability)

A

low extracellular Ca

277
Q

g conductance equation

A

1/resistance

278
Q

osmotic pressure

A

the minimum amount of pressure needed to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of water across a semipermeable membrane

279
Q

half life equation

A

(0.7 x Vd) / CL

280
Q

3 steps of hemostasis

A
    1. VASCULAR SPASM: BV constrict when damaged
    1. PLATELET PLUG FORMATION
      * a. platelet adhesion to exposed collagen
      * b. platelet release reaction (attracts more platelets by releasing TX A2) – promotes vasoconstriction
      * c. platelet aggregation à platelet plug. Blocks blood loss in small vessels (not as effective in large vessels)
    1. COAGULATION
      * gel formation (clotting) in blood traps formed elements
281
Q

prevalence

A

number of existing cases of disease in a population at one point in time during a period of time = (number of existing cases)/(total number of people in population)

282
Q

2 flavors of guanylyl cyclase

A
  1. integral part of receptor, activated by binding 2. cytoplasmic form, activated by NO
283
Q

epinephrine

A

alpha2 agonist vasoconstrictor in local anesthesia

284
Q

differentiation of chrondrocytes from the perichondrium is called

A

appositional growth

285
Q

Wnt

A

regulate cell cell interactions during embryogenesis – binds to frizzled and LRP to eventually faciliatate transcription

286
Q

physostigmine

A

AchE inhibitor with central effects (crosses the blood brain barrier); used to treate atropine OD (phys ed teacher carrying away atropine boy)

287
Q

collagen in hyaline cartilage, IV disc

A

type II

288
Q

clusters of cells that come from the same progenitor cell s are called

A

isogenous groups

289
Q

natural killer cells

A

non-specific lymphocytes coated with antobideis that release perforins/granzymes (induce apoptosis)

part of innate immunity

290
Q

what links the cytoskeleton to the ECM

A

integrins

291
Q

Maintenance dose

A

CL x TC x time

292
Q

desmosome

A

(macula adherens)

specialized structure for cell-cell adhesion; form very strong attachments. protein complexes are attaached to intermediate filaments

293
Q

bethanechol

A

cholinomimetic used to treat nonobstructive GI disorders inactive/nonobstructed bladder/bowel

294
Q
A
295
Q

M-CSF

A

stimulates early commitment to osteoclast lineage

296
Q

four zones of endochondral bone formation

A
  1. resting zone
  2. proliferating zone
  3. hypertrophic zone
  4. ossification
297
Q

H conc outside of cell

A

40 nM

298
Q

Gs

A

adenylyl cyclase stimulation

299
Q

negative selection in the thymus

A

removes strongly self reactive T cells

300
Q

Tropicamide

A

antimuscarinic drug used for pupillary dilation - can see the back of the eye

301
Q

the receptor for the stretch reflex to adjust muscle tone is in the

A

neuromuscular spindle

302
Q

What is this?

A

High endothelial venules - can see lymphocytes squeezing out of blood stream into the parenchyma of lymph node

(duh)

303
Q

graded potentials

A

depolarizations/hyperpolarizations whose strength is proportional to the strength of the triggering event, they are not action potentials!

can be summated spatially and temporally!

304
Q

diad

A

in cardiac muscle cells - t tubule and sarcoplasmic reticulum

305
Q

Cl conc outside of cell

A

105 mM

306
Q

ID type of cells

A

chondrocytes

307
Q

pralidoxome

A

undoes covalent bond between organophosphate and cholingergic receptor

308
Q

phenylephrine in the eye

A

can treat uveitis/wide angle glaucoma (pupillary dilation but no cycloplegia, which is loss of accomodation due to ciliary muscle paralysis)

309
Q

timolol

A

nonselective beta antagonist used for HTN, can also lead to sedation

310
Q

Factor XIIIa

A

cross links fibrin network to form very strong secondary clot held together by covalent bonds

311
Q

integral membrane proteins in gap junctions

A

connexin

312
Q

3

A

Red pulp

313
Q

thrombomodulin

A

alters substrate specific of thrombin so it doesn’t cleave factors; instead it cleaves and activates protein C to activated protein C

314
Q

if OR = 1

A

there is no association (risk exposed=unexposed)

315
Q

type I muscle fibers

A

slow contraction time, high resistance to fatigue

316
Q

The arrow is pointing to what?

A

enlarged hassal’s corpuscules (thymus)

317
Q

Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)

A

genetic disorder of ectopic bone formation – mutation encoding BMP type I receptor causing endochondral ossification in skeletal muscle, tendons, ligaments triggered by trauma

318
Q

mesenchymal stem cells give rise to four types of cells. what are they?

A
  1. chondrocytes
  2. osteoblasts
  3. myoblasts
  4. adipocytes
319
Q

IgG

A

binds to macrophages and neutrophils to activate phagocytosis and complement cytotoxic response

320
Q

stereocilia

A

long non-motile apical specialization (structurally similar to microvilli) that faciltate absorption

in ear, very sensitive to mechanical vibrations

321
Q

paramer

A

fixed characteristic of a given population

322
Q

complement system

A

part of innate immunity

fixing antibodies to pathogens - 20 plasma proteins made by the liver that circulate in the plasma. faciliate lysis of bacteria, oposnization, and bringing phagocytes to site of reaction

323
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases of disease that occur in a specific time in population at risk of developing the disease =(number of new cases)/ number of persons at risk

324
Q

what type of cells make tartrate resistant acid phosphatases (TRAP)?

A

osteoclasts

325
Q

p value

A

measures how consistent data are with null compared to alternative; smaller p value = stronger evidence against null in favor of alternative. measures actual probability of detecting a difference if the groups are the same

326
Q

what type of connective tissue is loosely arranged, contains tons of cells/ground substance and fewer fibers?

A

loose CT

327
Q

-stigmine

A

AchE inhibitors - increase Ach receptors at NMJ endplates to increase strength of contractions

328
Q

reticular fibers cotains type ___ collagen

A

III

329
Q

osteomalacia/rickets

A

defective vitamin D intake/metabolism

330
Q

edrophonium

A

AchE inhibitor that transiently reverses MG symptoms; useful diagnostic tool to see cholingeric crisis if being overtreated, edro can’t fix if being undertreated, will reverse muscle weakness

331
Q

The einstein relationship

A

the displacement of a molecule is a function of time.

  1. the distance is nonlinear
  2. doubling time doesnt double distance, only increases by sq root of 2

means that diffusion is fast over short distances

332
Q

1

A

capsule

333
Q

Yellow arrow is pointing to

A

serous cell

in the salivary gland, secretes watery/thin fluid (as opposed to mucous cell)

334
Q

Type of tissue?

A

stratified squamous keratinized

335
Q

ID tissue type

A

dense irregular CT

336
Q

ID tissue type

A

Dense regular CT

337
Q
A

Block 2: Fundamentals of Medicine (11 decks)

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