black and yellow book info Flashcards

1
Q

head and neck cancer common route of spread

A

direct invasion and spread by lymphatics

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2
Q

most commonly involved lymph nodes of head and neck cancers

A

jugulodigastric nodes

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3
Q

most common paranasal sinus tumors

A

maxillary sinus

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4
Q

maxillary sinus route of spread

A

direct extension into the orbit, oral cavity, nasal cavity, and base of skull

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5
Q

most common salivary tumor

A

parotid gland

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6
Q

signs and symptoms of lung cancer

A

cough, chest pain, hoarseness, weight loss, loss of appetite, bloody sputum, shortness of breath, recurring chest infections, onset of wheezing

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7
Q

commonly found histopathology of the lower part of the esophagus

A

adenocarcinoma

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8
Q

delete

A

axillary lymph nodes

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9
Q

what kind of diet can lead to colorectal cancer?

A

diet low in fiber, high in fat

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10
Q

most common site for colorectal mets

A

liver

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11
Q

what is the most common site for bladder cancers

A

trigone

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12
Q

most common met site for prostate cancer

A

bone

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13
Q

most common risk factor for cervical cancer

A

HPV

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14
Q

what are the three layers of the uterus

A

endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium

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15
Q

most common histopath of endometrial cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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16
Q

most common primary brain tumor

A

glioma

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17
Q

most common brain tumor in children

A

astrocytoma

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18
Q

most common brain tumor in adults

A

glioblastoma multiforme

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19
Q

originates in the medulla, pons, or midbrain- type of cancer

A

brainstem glioma

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20
Q

originates in the schwann cells which surround the cranial nerves and other nerves responsible for hearing and balance

A

schwannoma

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21
Q

originates in the ependymal cells which line the ventricles.

A

ependymoma

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22
Q

second most common type of brain tumor in children

A

medulloblastoma

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23
Q

most common brain tumor

A

metastatic

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24
Q

signs and symptoms of metastatic brain tumors

A

headache, nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision

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25
Q

what can be used (medication) to reduce cerebral edema

A

corticosteroids like decadron

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26
Q

what is the most common renal tumor in children

A

wilms tumor

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27
Q

most common site of metastasis of wilms tumor

A

lung

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28
Q

what is cancer formed in the bone marrow cells that form lymphocytes

A

acute lymphocytic leukemia

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29
Q

what is cancer formed in the bone marrow cells that form red blood cells, some white blood cells, and platelets

A

acute myelogenous leukemia

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30
Q

what is cancer formed in the lymphocytes

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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31
Q

what is cancer formed int he myelocytes

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia

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32
Q

most common types of leukemia in adults are

A

AML and CLL

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33
Q

most common leukemia in children

A

ALL

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34
Q

second most common bone tumor in children

A

Ewing sarcoma

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35
Q

most common bone tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

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36
Q

what is a tumor below the skin surface that appears as raised, red, purple, or brown blothces

A

kaposi sarcoma

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37
Q

most common form of cutaneous t-cell lymphoma

A

mycosis fungoides

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38
Q

50-150 kV is used in what

A

superficial units

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39
Q

150-500 kV is used in what

A

orthovoltage units

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40
Q

what type of radiation travels short distances

A

alpha particles

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41
Q

what is shielded with low Z materials

A

beta particles

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42
Q

___ wavelength is greater energy and penetrating power. (shorter or longer)

A

shorter

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43
Q

the thickness of a given material that reduces the intensity of the radiation beam by one half

A

half value layer

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44
Q

xray beam ___ increases with half value layer thickness. (energy, quality, intensity)

A

quality

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45
Q

transfer of total energy of a photon to an inner electron of an atom

A

photoelectric effect

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46
Q

an electron from an outer shell fills the vacancy and gives off ___

A

characteristic radiation (x-ray)

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47
Q

delete

A

photoelectric effect

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48
Q

photons interact with an outer shell electron, absorbs all the energy and the electron is ejected

A

Compton scatter

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49
Q

what interaction is most dominant in soft tissue

A

Compton scatter

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50
Q

what interaction is most common in radiation therapy

A

Compton scatter

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51
Q

what interaction is most common in PET scans

A

pair production

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52
Q

in pair production, the incoming photon must have an energy of at least

A

1.02 MeV

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53
Q

high energy photon interacts with the nucleus

A

pair production

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54
Q

what is created in pair production after the photon interacts with the nucleus

A

negative and positive electrons

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55
Q

two 511 keV photons traveling in opposite directions

A

annihilation

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56
Q

an interaction of an electron with the nucleus of an atom

A

bremsstrahlung radiation

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57
Q

photon interacts with inner shell electron ejecting it from the atom

A

characteristic radiation

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58
Q

rate that energy is deposited as it travels through matter

A

linear energy transfer

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59
Q

x and gamma rays, secondary electrons: small particles travel great distance (low or high LET)

A

Low LET

60
Q

protons, alpha particles: bulky particles travel small distance

A

high LET

61
Q

particles interact with the nucleus of an atom causing damage to the DNA of the cell (direct or indirect)

A

direct ionizations

62
Q

hair loss occurs at

A

1000 cGy

63
Q

permanent hair loss occurs at

A

4500 cGy

64
Q

skin erythema occurs at

A

1000 cGy

65
Q

temporary sterility occurs at

A

300 cGy

66
Q

permanent sterility occurs at

A

1500-2000 cGy

67
Q

T/F exposure of reproductive organs increases the risk of abnormal mutations and genetic changes

A

true

68
Q

hematopoietic syndrome occurs at

A

200-1000 cGy

69
Q

GI syndrome occurs at

A

1000-5000 cGy

70
Q

symptoms of hematopoietic syndrome

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, leukopenia, hemorrhage

71
Q

symptoms of GI syndrome

A

electrolyte imbalance, lethargy, fatigue, and shock

72
Q

CNS syndrome occurs at

A

2000-5000 cGy

73
Q

mean survival of CNS syndrome

A

0-3 days

74
Q

CNS syndrome symptoms

A

edema of the brain

75
Q

the probability of an effect rather than the severity of an effect

A

stochastic effects

76
Q

severity of the effect varies with the radiation dose

A

non stochastic effects

77
Q

exposed to ionizing radiation and excited electrons are trapped in the crystal

A

TLD

78
Q

what type of device is inexpensive, easy to process, and relatively accurate

A

film badges

79
Q

small ionization chambers

A

dosimeters

80
Q

a small electronic probe placed on the body or inside a body cavity to measure the actual amount of radiation being delivered to a predetermined point

A

diodes

81
Q

useful for locating a lost source or small amount of radioactive contamination

A

GM counter

82
Q

gas filled detector used to detect or measure ionizing radiation

A

ion chambers

83
Q

portable ionization chamber. useful in determining the exposure rate outside a radioactive implant patients room

A

cutie pie detector

84
Q

ionization chamber filled with BF3 gas

A

neutron detector

85
Q

the basic methods of radiation protection rae

A

time, distance, shielding

86
Q

what is designed to attenuate the direct radiation beam

A

primary beam

87
Q

what is designed to attenuate stray radiation

A

secondary beam

88
Q

unrestricted area receives less than

A

2 mrem in one hour

89
Q

restricted area occupied by radiation workers and access is controlled for the protection of individuals from exposure to radiation

A

50 hours/week for workers in area of 2 mrem/hour

90
Q

how should chemotherapy spills be handled

A

isolate the spill, apply double gloves, gown and eye protection. absorb with a towel or spill kit. place contaminated items in a biohazard bag

91
Q

measure of ionization in air

A

exposure

92
Q

measure of the energy imparted to a mass by ionizing radiation

A

absorbed dose

93
Q

what is most common interaction in cobalt 60

A

Compton scatter

94
Q

most common cause of tissue damage

A

hypoxia

95
Q

the two most probably radiation interactions are

A

direct and indirect

96
Q

splitting of water

A

radiolysis

97
Q

rate that energy is deposited as it travels though matter

A

linear energy transfer

98
Q

what does the cell survival curve depict?

A

the number of cells surviving versus the radiation dose delivered

99
Q

the most potent chemical factor in ionizing radiation is

A

the presence of oxygen

100
Q

compares the response of the cells to radiation with and without the presence of oxygen

A

oxygen enhancement ratio

101
Q

cells are most sensitive to radiation during

A

the M phase

102
Q

cells are least sensitive to radiation during

A

the S phase

103
Q

ionizing radiation is more effective against cells that are

A

actively mitotic, undifferentiated (immature, stem, or precursor)

104
Q

dna replication becomes selective and reproduces a certain gene at an increased rate

A

gene amplification

105
Q

broken cell fragments try to repair and rejoin

A

chromosome translocation

106
Q

cells create the wrong genetic codes

A

gene transposition

107
Q

provides federal protection for personal health information, and gives the patient rights to that information

A

HIPAA

108
Q

legal document in which patients have control of their future, and the family’s wishes do not override the patients

A

living will

109
Q

legal document that gives a family member or friend the authority to make critical decisions if the patient becomes incapacitated

A

health care proxies

110
Q

non criminal disputes such as disagreements over contracts, property ownership, and personal property damages

A

civil law

111
Q

a legal wrong against a person or property, excluding contract disagreements or disputes

A

tort law

112
Q

threat of touching in an injurious way

A

civil assault

113
Q

touching without permission

A

civil battery

114
Q

intentional confinement

A

false imprisonment

115
Q

written defamation of character

A

libel

116
Q

oral defamation of character

A

slander

117
Q

information released, or patient exposed improperly or unnecessarily

A

invasion of privacy

118
Q

neglect or omission of reasonable care

A

negligence

119
Q

result of professional misconduct, incompetence, or lack of skills

A

malpractice

120
Q

written context of what the professional can do based on education and preparation

A

scope of practice for a profession

121
Q

delineates the proper procedure and how an action should be performed

A

standard of practice for a profession

122
Q

must take responsibility of own actions

A

personal liability

123
Q

holding the employer responsible for negligent acts of an employee

A

doctrine of respondent superior

124
Q

a defendant can explain events and a court can decide outcome with no witness present

A

res ipsa loquitor

125
Q

knowledge of actions or lack of information that could cause injury

A

doctrine forseeability

126
Q

identifies causes of accidents and implements programs to prevent them

A

risk management

127
Q

provides civil rights protection to those with disabilities

A

Americans with disabilities act 1990

128
Q

what late side effects can occur 6 months to 5 years after treatment

A

fibrosis, telangiectasis, lymphedema

129
Q

dryness of the mucous membranes in the oral cavity

A

xerostemia

130
Q

atrophy of skin occurs when

A

4-6 weeks after treatment is completed

131
Q

T/F oxygen does not require a doctors order

A

false. oxygen administration requires a doctors order

132
Q

bone marrow cells are taken from a donor

A

allogenic

133
Q

bone marrow cells are removed from the patient before treatment, multiplied, and re-injected

A

autologous

134
Q

a two dimensional unit based on the matrix size and the field of view

A

pixel

135
Q

a three dimensional unit that includes slice thickness

A

voxel

136
Q

an array of numbers in rows and columns

A

matrix

137
Q

the maximum diameter of the area of the scan that can be seen in the reconstructed image

A

field of view (FOV)

138
Q

computer generated two dimensional radiograph displaying skeletal anatomy rendered from a three dimensional data set

A

digitally reconstructed radiograph

139
Q

viewpoint of the radiation beam as it travels from the radiation source

A

beam’s eye view

140
Q

the process of spatially aligning two or more image datasets of the same area, taken at different times

A

image registration

141
Q

combining image datasets and displaying the data

A

image fusion

142
Q

what is a good modality for the delineation of bony pathology, or to detect small nodules

A

CT

143
Q

what is a good modality for imaging soft tissue lesions and can display high tissue contrast

A

MRI

144
Q

the area of decreased dose at the edge of the beam

A

penumbra

145
Q

a sum of the dose contributed from a portion of the primary beam at the field edge and scatter radiation

A

physical penumbra

146
Q

defines the width of the beam’s penumbra and is independent of field size

A

geometric penumbra