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Human Bio ATAR > BIOTECHNOLOGY > Flashcards

BIOTECHNOLOGY Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

define biotechnology

A

the use of natural cellular processes to make products that are of use to humans

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2
Q

define genome

A

complete set of genetic information of an organism

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3
Q

define genome

A

complete set of genetic information of an organism

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4
Q

why do we use gel electrophoresis?

A

technique used to separate DNA fragments according to their size

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5
Q

what does the gel in gel electrophoresis allow?

A

gel = porous
dna is cable to travel through ‘maze’ separating smaller fragments which move through quicker and larger fragments which don’t travel through as fast or as long

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6
Q

what is the purpose of a dna ladder

A

is a standard sample of known sizes which is out into the gel aswell so that the exact fragments in the sample can be determined through comparing them to the ladder

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7
Q

what is the gel stained with

A

dna binding - dye
allowing dna fragments to be seen as bands

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8
Q

what is the purpose of the electric current in gel electrophoresis

A

makes dna move through gel , towards the positive electrode

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9
Q

what is the purpose of the buffer solution in gel electrophoresis

A

carries charge and completes the circuit

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10
Q

what does the loading dye allow?

A

allows dna to sink into wells and shows dye-front to know when to stop the system

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11
Q

why is dna negatively charged and what does this allow?

A

due to the phosphate group (negative charge) allowing to to move toward the positive electrode

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12
Q

what does PCR stand for?

A

polymerase chain reaction

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13
Q

what is the purpose of the PCR process?

A

used to make millions of copies of a particular region of dna
amplifies DNA to make enough to be analysed

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14
Q

what are the 6 components needed in a PCR test

A

dna sample
primers
nucleotides
taq polymerase
buffer mix
PCR tube

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15
Q

what characteristic must the dna polymerase used in PCR have and what polymerase is usually used?

A

Heat-stable
Taq polymerase is usually used due to its high heat-tolerance which can withstand high temperatures and not denature

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16
Q

what is the role of the buffer solution in PCR and what does it contain?

A

necessary to create optimal conditions for Taq polymerase

contains:
Mg ions - cofactor dna polymerase and stabilise negative charge of DNA phosphate
other components optimise ph for polymerase to prevent denature

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17
Q

what are primers and how many are required in each reaction?

A

short sequence of nucleotides that provide a starting point for Taq polymerase
2 primers used

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18
Q

what temperature is required for denaturation?

A

96 degrees

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19
Q

what occurs during denaturation?

A

strongly heated to completely separate / denature dna strands

providing 2 single stranded templates

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20
Q

what temperature is required for annealing to occur?

A

55-65 degrees

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21
Q

what occurs during annealing?

A

reaction is cooled allowing primers to bind to the complimentary sequences on the single stranded template dna

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22
Q

what temperature is required for extension to occur?

A

72 degrees

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23
Q

what occurs during extension?

A

the temperature is raised so that Taq Polymerase extends the primers, synthesising new strands

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24
Q

what is the PCR machine called?

A

Thermocycler

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25
Q

what are restriction enzymes used for?

A

cutting the dna into fragments at specific points called recognition sites

capable of cutting sticky ends (staggered)
or blunt ends (same cut)

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26
Q

what does STR stand for

A

SHORT TANDEM REPEATS

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27
Q

what are short tandem repeats?

A

2-5 nucleotides in the non-coding region on your genome which can be presented in varying numbers or repeats

more mutations can occur

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28
Q

define dna sequencing

A

the process of determining the sequence of nucleotides in a piece of dna

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29
Q

what do dideoxynucleotides lack?

A

the OH (hydroxyl) group on the 3’ carbon of the sugar ring

this means no further nucleotides can be added to it

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30
Q

define recombinant dna

A

the process of recombining fragments of dna from different sources

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31
Q

what are 3 reasons to do recombinant dna

A

introduce new genes into species
replace faulty genes
make useful proteins
make identical dna copies

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32
Q

why are plasmids used in recombinant dna ?

A

bacteria already carries plasmid and can then uptake plasmid with inserted gene inside

33
Q

what is used to paste dna and plasmids together in recombinant dna?

A

dna ligase

34
Q

where to restriction enzymes cut dna?

A

at specific recognition sites

35
Q

why is the same restriction enzyme used to cut both plasmid and gene if interest?

A

creates the same complimentary sticky ends
allowing to anneal / joined together

36
Q

what is recombinant dna used for (3)

A

biopharmaceuticals
gene therapy
gene analysis

37
Q

what is the aim of gene therapy

A

find a faulty/mutated gene and replace it by inserting a healthy/functioning gene

38
Q

what does exvivo gene therapy do

A

cells are removed from body and genes are edited / replaced OUTSIDE OF BODY and then transplanted back into body

39
Q

what does invivo gene therapy do?

A

cells are NOT removed from the body
vector carries healthy genes into affected cells

40
Q

what are 4 types of variation

A

new/different alleles
new/different combination of alleles
sexual reproduction randomness
failure of meiosis occurring properly

41
Q

define gene mutations

A

changes in single genes so that traits normally produced by that gene are altered/not present at all

42
Q

define chromosome mutations

A

all/part of chromosome is affected including multiple traits/genes

43
Q

define a spontaneous mutations
give an example for chromosome and gene mutations

A

due to random error in a biological process

chromosome - cell division error
gene - dna replication error

44
Q

define induced mutations and what causes these

A

due to exposure to mutagenic agents
giving rise to both gene and chromosome mutations

45
Q

define mutagens

A

things that are known to mutate dna / increase the frequency of mutations occurring above the rate of naturally occurring mutations

46
Q

give a physical example of mutagens

A

ionising radiation - UV light, X rays, radioactive waste

47
Q

give a chemical example of mutagen

A

mustard gas
formaldehyde
altering dna structure and interfere with transcription

48
Q

where does the mutation occur in germ-like mutations

A

occurring in reproductive cells

49
Q

where are somatic mutations formed

A

inside of body in body cells

50
Q

which out of germ line and somatic mutations are passed on to offspring

A

germ line mutations are passed to offspring

somatic are passed to daughter cells

51
Q

which out of germ-line and somatic mutations effects the individual

A

somatic effects individual
germline effects individuals offspring

52
Q

what are the 4 types of gene mutations

A

substitution
inversion
deletion
addition/insertion

53
Q

define silent mutations

A

substitution of a base that still codes for the same amino acid as the original base

54
Q

define missense mutations

A

substitution of a bad that codes for a different amino acid
the protein has a single amino acid different which may alter the function of the protein

55
Q

define nonsense mutations

A

substitution of a base that leads to premature ‘stop codon’ to be coded for
protein synthesis stops earlier than it should causing the protein to not function properly

56
Q

what happens during deletion of a gene mutation

A

nucleotide is lost/deleted from the sequence
leading to a frameshift of downstream codons to no longer being read properly

57
Q

what is caused by insertion in gene mutations

A

nucleotide is inserted/added into dna sequence
causing downstream of codons to not be read properly (frameshift)

58
Q

what occurs during inversion of a gene mutation

A

order of bases is swapped
resulting in altering protein function

59
Q

what are the two types of chromosome mutations

A

chromosome block mutations
chromosome number mutations

60
Q

what are the 2 types of chromosome block mutations

A

deletion
inversion
translocation
duplication

61
Q

what are 2 types of chromosome number mutations

A
  1. polyploidy - extra set of chromosomes in cell (down syndrome)
  2. Aneuploidy - extra or missing chromosomes - non disjunction in cell division (turners)
62
Q

define allele frequency

A

the frequency of alleles (variants of genes) in a population

63
Q

define migration / gene flow

A

exchange of individuals between populations which removes or introduces alleles from a particular population

64
Q

define natural selection

A

environment selects which individuals are more likely to live, reproduce and pass on their advantageous alleles and which die and are unable to reproduce due to disadvantageous alleles

65
Q

define random genetic drift

A

change is frequency of existing alleles (gene variant) in a population due to random sampling of organisms

66
Q

when is random genetic drift most effective

A

most effective / has a bigger effect in smaller populations where change has a large effect on gene pool

67
Q

what may random genetic drift cause

A

variants / alleles to disappear to decrease genetic variation and cause initially rare alleles to become more frequent

68
Q

define founder effect

A

small section of the population leaves a larger population to colonise a new habitat
gene pool of founder population is likely to differ from original population

69
Q

how do founder effect populations become different from the original population

A

different selection pressures due to different environment
limited breeding alleles

70
Q

define genetic bottleneck

A

population numbers decrease due to predation, disease, climate change or natural disaster

gene pool significantly differs from original due to some alleles being lost, small random group of alleles surviving

71
Q

define emigration

A

removing alleles from a gene pool

72
Q

define immigration

A

introducing alleles to gene pool

73
Q

define isolation

A

development of separate gene pools

74
Q

what are the 2 barriers of gene flow

A

geographical barrier - oceans, mountains, lakes, rivers

socioeconomic barrier - economic status, educational background, religious background

75
Q

what do genetic diseases result in

A

changes to allele frequency’s within gene pools

76
Q

what was Darwin’s 3 observations of natural selection

A
  1. VARIATION - members of species vary
  2. BIRTH RATE - all living organisms reproduce at rate greater than which food supply and resources increase
  3. NATURES BALANCE - although birth rate of animals is high, each species remains level
77
Q

define struggle for existence

A

animals must compete /struggle because of excessive birth rate and limited resources

78
Q

define survival of the fittest

A

those with characteristics that are favourable / best suited to the environment are more likely to survive, reproduce and pass on these traits /alleles

79
Q

3 types of natural selection

A

directional selection
stabilising selection
disruptive selection

Human Bio ATAR (7 decks)

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