Biopsychology Knowledge Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the two major physiological systems that regulate behaviour in response to the environment?

A

Nervous system and endocrine system

These systems work together to manage how organisms respond to internal and external stimuli.

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2
Q

What is the primary function of the nervous system?

A

To collect, process and respond to information in the environment and to coordinate the working of different organs and cells in the body

The nervous system plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and facilitating communication within the body.

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3
Q

What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)

These divisions help to categorize the functions and structures of the nervous system.

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4
Q

What does the central nervous system consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

The CNS is essential for processing information and making decisions.

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5
Q

What is the role of the brain in the central nervous system?

A

It is the centre of all conscious awareness and the origin of all complex commands and decisions

The brain’s functions are vital for cognitive processes and voluntary actions.

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6
Q

What distinguishes human mental functions from those of animals?

A

The cerebral cortex

The cerebral cortex is involved in higher-level functions such as reasoning, problem-solving, and language.

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7
Q

How many hemispheres does the brain have?

A

Two (left and right)

Each hemisphere is associated with different cognitive functions and processes.

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8
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain?

A

Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal

Each lobe has specific functions related to processing different types of information.

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9
Q

What is the function of the spinal cord?

A

Responsible for reflex actions and passing messages to and from the brain

The spinal cord also connects the CNS to the PNS.

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10
Q

What is the role of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Transmits messages to and from the CNS via millions of neurons

The PNS is crucial for communication between the brain and the rest of the body.

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11
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system (ANS) and somatic nervous system (SNS)

These subdivisions have different roles in managing bodily functions.

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12
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system govern?

A

Vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, digestion, sexual arousal, and stress responses

The ANS operates involuntarily, meaning it functions without conscious control.

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13
Q

What are the two subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system

These systems have opposing effects on bodily functions.

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14
Q

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Activates internal organs and increases bodily activities

This system is often referred to as the ‘fight or flight’ response.

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15
Q

What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Relaxes internal organs and decreases bodily activities

This system is associated with ‘rest and digest’ functions.

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16
Q

What does the somatic nervous system transmit?

A

Information from receptor cells in the sense organs to the CNS and directs muscles to act

The SNS has a voluntary effect, allowing conscious control of movements.

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17
Q

What are neurons?

A

Nerve cells that process and transmit messages through electrical and chemical signals.

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18
Q

How many neurons are in the human nervous system?

A

100 billion neurons.

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19
Q

What percentage of neurons are located in the brain?

A

80%.

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20
Q

What is the role of sensory neurons?

A

Carry nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the spinal cord and brain.

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21
Q

Where are the receptors of sensory neurons located?

A

On or near the body’s surface.

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22
Q

What is the axon length of sensory neurons?

A

Short.

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23
Q

What is the dendrite length of sensory neurons?

A

Long.

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24
Q

What is the role of relay neurons?

A

Allow sensory and motor neurons to communicate with each other.

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25
Q

Where are relay neurons primarily located?

A

Brain, spinal cord, and visual system.

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26
Q

What is the axon length of relay neurons?

A

Short.

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27
Q

What is the dendrite length of relay neurons?

A

Short.

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28
Q

What is the role of motor neurons?

A

Carry nerve impulses from the spinal cord and brain to the effectors (muscles and glands).

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29
Q

Where are motor neuron axons linked?

A

Directly or indirectly linked to muscles.

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30
Q

What is the axon length of motor neurons?

A

Long.

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31
Q

What is the dendrite length of motor neurons?

A

Short.

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32
Q

What is the first step in the process of synaptic transmission?

A

An electrical impulse travels down a pre-synaptic neuron, along the axon, to the terminal branches.

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33
Q

What do synaptic vesicles contain?

A

Neurotransmitters.

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34
Q

What happens when neurotransmitters are released?

A

They travel across the synaptic cleft.

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35
Q

What is the ‘lock and key’ model in synaptic transmission?

A

The receptors on the dendrites of the post-synaptic neuron are known as the lock, and the neurotransmitters are the key.

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36
Q

What determines if an electrical impulse is created in the post-synaptic neuron?

A

Whether the neurotransmitters are excitatory or inhibitory.

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37
Q

What is reuptake in the context of neurotransmitters?

A

The process when the neurotransmitter is taken back up by the pre-synaptic neuron.

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38
Q

What is synaptic transmission?

A

The process of neurotransmitters being released and binding to receptors.

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39
Q

What are the effects of excitatory neurotransmitters?

A

Increase the likelihood of a neuron firing.

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40
Q

What is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter?

A

Noradrenaline.

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41
Q

What happens to the post-synaptic neuron when inhibitory neurotransmitters are present?

A

The neuron becomes negatively charged and less likely to fire.

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42
Q

What is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

Serotonin.

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43
Q

What is summation in the context of neurotransmission?

A

The process of summing excitatory and inhibitory influences on a post-synaptic neuron.

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44
Q

What triggers the action potential in the post-synaptic neuron?

A

If the sum of the excitatory and inhibitory signals reaches the threshold.

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45
Q

How do drugs affect synaptic transmission?

A

By increasing or decreasing the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft.

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46
Q

What is the role of the pituitary gland?

A

Controls the release of hormones from all other glands in the body.

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47
Q

What hormone do the testes release?

A

Testosterone.

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48
Q

What hormone do the ovaries release?

A

Oestrogen.

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49
Q

What hormone is released by the adrenal gland?

A

Adrenaline.

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50
Q

What is the impact of adrenaline?

A

Stimulates the fight or flight response.

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51
Q

Fill in the blank: The endocrine system works alongside the _______ system to control vital functions.

A

[nervous]

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52
Q

True or False: The endocrine system works more quickly than the nervous system.

A

False.

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53
Q

What is the fight or flight response?

A

The way an animal responds when stressed, preparing to fight or flee

It is a reflexive response that occurs without conscious awareness or thought.

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54
Q

Which systems work together during the fight or flight response?

A

The endocrine system and the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

The ANS consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

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55
Q

What does the hypothalamus do in response to a threat?

A

Recognizes the threat in the environment

This triggers the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.

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56
Q

What hormone is released by the pituitary gland during the fight or flight response?

A

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

ACTH signals the adrenal glands to release adrenaline.

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57
Q

What is the role of adrenaline in the fight or flight response?

A

It stimulates physiological changes to prepare the body for action

Adrenaline travels via the bloodstream to target organs.

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58
Q

What happens to the body once the threat has passed?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system brings the body back to its normal resting state

This helps restore balance after the stress response.

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59
Q

What is adrenaline?

A

A hormone produced by the adrenal glands as part of the stress response system

It primarily affects the cardiovascular system.

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60
Q

List the biological changes associated with the sympathetic state when adrenaline is present.

A
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased breathing rate
  • Dilated pupils
  • Inhibited digestion
  • Inhibited saliva production
  • Contracted rectum
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61
Q

List the biological changes associated with the parasympathetic state when adrenaline is not present.

A
  • Decreased heart rate
  • Decreased breathing rate
  • Constricted pupils
  • Stimulated digestion
  • Stimulated saliva production
  • Relaxed rectum
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62
Q

True or False: The fight or flight response is a conscious reaction to stress.

A

False

It is a reflexive response that occurs without conscious thought.

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63
Q

What do fMRIs detect to indicate increased neural activity?

A

Changes in blood oxygenation and blood flow

This is known as the ‘haemodynamic response’.

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64
Q

What do fMRIs produce to show brain activity?

A

Three-dimensional images (activation maps)

These maps show which parts of the brain are involved in particular mental processes.

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65
Q

What do EEGs record?

A

Changes in electrical activity using electrodes attached to the scalp

EEGs provide an overall account of brain activity from millions of neurons.

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66
Q

What can unusual arrhythmic patterns in EEGs indicate?

A

Neurological abnormalities, e.g., epilepsy

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67
Q

What do ERPs record?

A

Changes in electrical activity using electrodes, related to a specific stimulus

ERPs filter out extraneous brain activity to focus on responses to specific tasks.

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68
Q

What is the purpose of post-mortem examinations?

A

To examine abnormalities in the structure of the brain and explain psychological abnormalities

They may involve comparison with a neurotypical brain.

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69
Q

What significant event happened to Phineas Gage in 1848?

A

A metre-length pole passed through his skull, damaging his left frontal lobe

This incident changed his personality, suggesting the frontal lobe’s role in mood regulation.

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70
Q

What did Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke contribute to neuroscience?

A

They discovered that specific areas of the brain are associated with particular functions

This led to the development of the localisation of function theory.

71
Q

What does the holistic theory of the brain propose?

A

All parts of the brain are involved in the processing of thought and action

72
Q

What separates the two hemispheres of the brain?

A

The cerebral cortex

The cortex is about 3mm thick and is more developed in humans compared to other animals.

73
Q

Name the four lobes of the cerebral cortex.

A
  • Frontal lobe
  • Parietal lobe
  • Occipital lobe
  • Temporal lobe
74
Q

What is the role of the motor cortex?

A

Controls voluntary movement in the contralateral side of the body

The complexity of movement dictates the number of neurons needed.

75
Q

Where is the somatosensory cortex located?

A

At the front of the parietal lobe

76
Q

What does the somatosensory cortex represent?

A

Sensory information from the skin (touch, heat, pressure)

77
Q

What is the consequence of damage to the visual cortex?

A

Loss of specific areas of the visual field

78
Q

What is the role of the auditory cortex?

A

Analyses speech-based information

79
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

In the left temporal lobe

80
Q

What happens when Wernicke’s area is damaged?

A

People produce nonsense words; speech is fluent but meaningless

81
Q

What is the role of Broca’s area?

A

Responsible for speech production

82
Q

What is a consequence of damage to Broca’s area?

A

Slow speech that lacks fluency

83
Q

What are Broca and Wernicke’s areas examples of?

A

Localisation

84
Q

In which hemisphere do Broca and Wernicke’s areas occur?

A

Left hemisphere

85
Q

What is the term for something specialised to one hemisphere?

A

Hemispheric lateralisation

86
Q

What does plasticity refer to in the context of the brain?

A

The brain’s tendency to change and adapt due to experience and new learning

87
Q

At what age do the number of synaptic connections in the brain peak?

A

2-3 years

88
Q

What process involves the deletion of rarely used connections in the brain?

A

Synaptic pruning

89
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus according to Maguire et al. (2000)?

A

Facilitate spatial memory in the form of navigation

90
Q

What was the aim of Maguire et al.’s study on taxi drivers?

A

To examine structural changes in the brain due to extensive experience of spatial navigation

91
Q

How many taxi drivers participated in Maguire et al.’s study?

A

16 right-handed male taxi drivers

92
Q

What significant finding was reported in the brains of taxi drivers compared to controls?

A

Increased grey matter in the right and left hippocampi

93
Q

What correlation was found in Maguire et al.’s study?

A

Between the amount of time spent as a taxi driver and volume in the right posterior hippocampus

94
Q

What was the main conclusion of Kuhn (2014) regarding video game training?

A

It resulted in new synaptic connections in brain areas associated with skills important for playing the game

95
Q

What changes were observed in the brains of individuals who practiced meditation according to Davidson et al. (2004)?

A

Greater activation of gamma waves in practitioners compared to non-practitioners

96
Q

What did Lazar et al. (2005) find regarding the cortex of experienced meditators?

A

They had a thicker cortex than non-meditators

97
Q

What increase in grey matter was found in individuals who participated in Holzel et al.’s (2011) mindfulness course?

A

Increase in grey matter in the left hippocampus

98
Q

What effect did four weeks of meditation have according to Tang et al. (2012)?

A

Increased white matter in the anterior cingulate cortex

99
Q

What is functional recovery in the context of neuroscience?

A

The brain’s ability to redistribute functions to undamaged areas after trauma

100
Q

What is spontaneous recovery?

A

Quick recovery of function after brain damage

101
Q

What is axonal sprouting?

A

The growth of new nerve endings connecting with undamaged nerve cells

102
Q

What occurs during denervation supersensitivity?

A

Axons become aroused to a higher level to compensate for lost functions

103
Q

What is one factor that affects functional recovery after brain trauma?

A

Perseverance

104
Q

What is lateralisation?

A

The idea that the two brain hemispheres are functionally different

105
Q

What does damage to the left hemisphere typically impair?

A

Language abilities

106
Q

What visual field is processed by the right hemisphere?

A

Left visual field

107
Q

What is the primary role of the left hemisphere?

A

Speech and language

108
Q

In split brain patients, what happens to the two hemispheres?

A

They operate independently

109
Q

What phenomenon allows split brain patients to draw an image shown in the left visual field?

A

Using their left hand, which is controlled by the right hemisphere

110
Q

Which hemisphere is dominant for recognizing faces?

A

Right hemisphere

111
Q

What are biological rhythms?

A

Cyclical changes in biological systems

112
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers?

A

Internal body clocks regulating biological rhythms

113
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

Any cycle that lasts about 24 hours

114
Q

What is the strongest sleep drive time?

A

2-4 am and 1-3 pm

115
Q

What was Siffre’s finding about his circadian rhythm during his underground studies?

A

It extended to around 25 hours

116
Q

What did Aschoff and Wever (1976) find regarding participants in the bunker?

A

Circadian rhythms extended between 24 and 25 hours

117
Q

What did Folkard et al. (1985) study in their dark cave experiment?

A

The effects of a fixed clock time on biological rhythms

118
Q

What is the typical range of circadian rhythm observed in participants?

A

Between 24 and 25 hours

An anomalous participant had a cycle extended to 29 hours.

119
Q

What role do exogenous zeitgebers play in circadian rhythms?

A

They entrain humans’ circadian rhythms to the 24-hour day

Examples include the number of daylight hours and typical mealtimes.

120
Q

What did Folkard et al. (1985) study involve?

A

12 people living in a dark cave for 3 weeks

They went to bed at 11.45pm and woke at 7.45am, but the clock was sped up.

121
Q

What was the outcome of Folkard et al.’s study regarding circadian rhythm?

A

Only one participant adjusted to a shorter day

This suggests a strong free-running circadian rhythm.

122
Q

Which hormone is produced and released from the pineal gland?

A

Melatonin

Melatonin encourages feelings of sleep.

123
Q

When is melatonin production highest?

A

When it is dark

Less melatonin is produced when it is light.

124
Q

What is the lowest body temperature recorded and at what time?

A

36 degrees centigrade at about 4.30am

It varies up to 38 degrees centigrade by 6pm.

125
Q

What happens to body temperature during sleep?

A

It drops

This drop in temperature is associated with sleep onset.

126
Q

What occurs to body temperature during the last few hours of sleep?

A

It rises

This rise causes people to feel alert in the morning.

127
Q

What time frame can cause small drops in body temperature leading to sleepiness?

A

Between 2 and 4 pm

This accounts for afternoon sleepiness.

128
Q

How does body temperature influence cognitive performance?

A

Warmer internal temperature improves cognitive performance

Studies show better recall and comprehension at warmer temperatures.

129
Q

What did Folkard et al. (1977) find regarding story recall in children?

A

Children showed superior recall when stories were read at 3pm

Compared to those who heard stories at 9am.

130
Q

What did Gupta (1991) discover about IQ test performance?

A

Improved performance at 7pm compared to 2pm and 9am

This indicates the influence of time of day on cognitive abilities.

131
Q

What are endogenous pacemakers?

A

Internal body clocks that regulate biological rhythms

Example: Influence of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) on the sleep/wake cycle

132
Q

How do endogenous pacemakers function in relation to the environment?

A

They can function without environmental cues, but this alters the circadian rhythm

133
Q

What is the purpose of resetting endogenous pacemakers?

A

To keep human bodies in synchrony with the outside world

134
Q

What is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN)?

A

The most influential endogenous pacemaker in the human body

135
Q

Where is the SCN located?

A

In the hypothalamus, above the optic chiasm

136
Q

What role does the SCN play in circadian rhythms?

A

It maintains circadian rhythms and is regulated by light from the environment

137
Q

What hormone does the pineal gland produce during the night?

A

Melatonin

138
Q

What effect does melatonin have on the brain?

A

It induces sleep by inhibiting wakefulness mechanisms

139
Q

What happens to melatonin production as light levels increase?

A

Melatonin production is decreased

140
Q

What did DeCoursey et al. (2000) demonstrate about the SCN?

A

The SCN is crucial for regulating the sleep/wake cycle

141
Q

What was the outcome of Ralph et al.’s (1990) experiment involving SCN transplantation?

A

Normal hamsters adopted a 20-hour sleep/wake cycle after receiving SCN cells from mutant hamsters

142
Q

What did Morgan (1995) find regarding SCN neurons and circadian rhythms?

A

Transplanting SCN neurons from abnormal hamsters resulted in normal hamsters displaying a 20-hour circadian rhythm

143
Q

What are exogenous zeitgebers?

A

External cues that impact or entrain biological rhythms

144
Q

How do exogenous zeitgebers affect the human body?

A

They synchronize the body to the environment through entrainment

145
Q

What is the primary function of light in relation to the SCN?

A

It resets the SCN and affects hormone secretion

146
Q

What was the finding of Campbell and Murphy (1998) regarding light exposure?

A

Light exposure can produce significant deviations in sleep/wake cycles

147
Q

What did Shih-Yu Lee et al. (2013) discover about bright light therapy?

A

It improved sleep quality in mothers of premature babies

148
Q

What was the outcome of Steel et al. (2008) regarding constant daylight?

A

Participants developed a free-running sleep/wake cycle longer than 24 hours

149
Q

What are social cues in the context of sleep/wake cycles?

A

Schedules imposed by society that influence sleep/wake behavior

150
Q

How did Aschoff et al. (1971) demonstrate the role of social zeitgebers?

A

Individuals adjusted to the absence of natural light by responding to social cues

151
Q

What did Klein and Wegmann (1974) find regarding air travelers and circadian rhythms?

A

Circadian rhythms adjusted more quickly when travelers were exposed to social cues

152
Q

At what age do babies begin to establish circadian rhythms?

A

Around six weeks of age

153
Q

When do babies’ sleep/wake cycles typically become entrained by parental schedules?

A

By about 16 weeks of age

154
Q

What are infradian rhythms?

A

Rhythms that have a duration greater than 24 hours, such as cycles lasting days, weeks, months, or annually.

155
Q

What is an example of a weekly rhythm in humans?

A

The grouping of seven days into a unit called a ‘week’.

156
Q

How do male testosterone levels vary in relation to the weekly cycle?

A

Male testosterone levels are elevated at weekends.

157
Q

What is the most common duration of the menstrual cycle?

A

28 days.

158
Q

What is ovulation?

A

The release of an egg from the ovary, accompanied by an oestrogen peak for 16-32 hours.

159
Q

What happens to the egg if pregnancy does not occur?

A

The egg is absorbed into the body and the womb lining comes away, resulting in menstrual flow.

160
Q

What did Stern and McClintock (1998) investigate?

A

Whether menstrual cycles synchronise as a result of the influence of female pheromones.

161
Q

What were the findings of Stern and McClintock’s study?

A

68% of women experienced changes to their cycle that brought them closer to the cycle of their ‘odour donor’.

162
Q

What is Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)?

A

A depressive disorder with a seasonal pattern of onset, often triggered during the winter months.

163
Q

What role does melatonin play in Seasonal Affective Disorder?

A

During winter, lack of light prolongs melatonin secretion, which affects serotonin production linked to depressive symptoms.

164
Q

What is the relationship between winter and heart attacks?

A

There is an increase in heart attacks during winter, with most deaths occurring in January.

165
Q

What are ultradian rhythms?

A

Biological rhythms that last less than 24 hours, such as the sleep cycle.

166
Q

How long does a complete sleep cycle last?

A

Approximately 90 minutes.

167
Q

What characterizes stages 1 and 2 of sleep?

A

Light sleep where the person can be easily woken, characterized by alpha waves and sleep spindles.

168
Q

What is deep sleep also known as?

A

Slow wave sleep.

169
Q

What happens during REM sleep?

A

The body is paralysed, brain activity speeds up, and dreaming occurs.

170
Q

What is the Basic Rest Activity Cycle?

A

A 90-minute cycle during the day where individuals move from alertness to physiological fatigue.

171
Q

How do breaks relate to the Basic Rest Activity Cycle?

A

The human mind can focus for about 90 minutes, leading to a natural need for breaks afterward.

172
Q

Fill in the blank: The menstrual cycle varies between ______ days.

A

23 and 36

173
Q

True or False: The evidence for weekly infradian rhythms in humans is strong.

A

False

174
Q

What hormone helps the womb lining grow thicker after ovulation?

A

Progesterone.