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Applied Anatomic Pathology > Biopsies/Smalls > Flashcards

Biopsies/Smalls Flashcards

1
Q

what is the CPT code for a frozen section

A

88331

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2
Q

what is the CPT code for decalcification

A

88311

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3
Q

define a sentinel event

A

unexpected events that results in a patient’s death or a serious physical or psychological injury

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4
Q

define an adverse event

A

any error that would have resulted in a sentinel event but was caught and did not affect the outcome in a negative way - a “near miss”

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5
Q

every specimen must have a minimum of ___ patient identifiers

A

two

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6
Q

the descriptor “cylindrical” should be used for which types of specimens

A

those with no lumen like core biopsies

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7
Q

how many dimensions do cylindrical specimens have

A

just 2

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8
Q

the descriptor “tubular” should be used for which types of specimens

A

those with a lumen like vas deferens

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9
Q

define varigated

A

multiple colors

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10
Q

how should gross dimensions be ordered

A

largest to smallest

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11
Q

how should range dimensions be ordered

A

smallest to largest

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12
Q

when would you use “in toto”

A

when a specimen is submitted intact and not cut

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13
Q

when would you use “entirely”

A

when a specimen is cut and submitted completed

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14
Q

when would you use the descriptor “pedunculated”

A

when you have a polyp attached to a segment of colon

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15
Q

when would you use the descriptor “stalk”

A

when you have a surgical GI polyp specimen

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16
Q

what is the CPT code for lymph nodes and lung specimens

A

88305

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17
Q

what is the CPT code for liver

A

88307

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18
Q

what should you do with a fresh biopsy for quantitative analysis of copper or iron

A

send it out

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19
Q

what should you see in a kidney biopsy that contains glomeruli

A

red dots

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20
Q

what should you see in a kidney biopsy that does not contain glomeruli

A

no red dots

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21
Q

what is the CPT code for kidney biopsies that are being sent out

A

88300 (gross only)

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22
Q

what are the three medias you must divide kidney biopsies into

A

glutaraldehyde, Zeus (Michel’s tranport medium), and 10% NBF

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23
Q

what is glutaraldehyde used for

A

electron microscopy

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24
Q

what is Zeus (Michel’s transport medium) used for

A

immunofluorescence

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25
Q

what is the CPT code for bone/bone marrow biopsies

A

88305 (bone) and 88311 (decal)

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26
Q

what is the fixation and decalcification order for handling a bone specimen

A

fix then decal

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27
Q

what is the minimum formalin fixation time for bone

A

2 hours

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28
Q

what are two “gentle” decal solutions for bone biopsies for possible malignancy and why are they used

A

EDTA and Formical-4 - allows immunohistochemistry tests to still be run on the tissue

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29
Q

what is the CPT code for prostate biopsies

A

88305

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30
Q

what is the CPT code for breast biopsies

A

88305

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31
Q

what does cmFN stand for

A

cm from nipple

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32
Q

how long should breast biopsies fix according to ASCO

A

6 to 72 hours - need to be placed in formalin within an hour

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33
Q

what is the CPT code for mucosal biopsies

A

88305

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34
Q

what is the CPT code for muscle biopsies

A

88305 if processing there; 88300 if sending out (gross only)

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35
Q

what is RPMI used for

A

flow cytometry

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36
Q

what is the CPT code for ECCs and EMBs

A

88305

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37
Q

how long do EMCs and EMBs need on the processor

A

8-10 hours

38
Q

what is the CPT code for a POC less than 20 weeks

A

88305

39
Q

what is the most important thing to submit if you have a POC

A

villi and fetal structures if present (foot length)

40
Q

define bosselated

A

bumpy

41
Q

what should you do if there is mucin within an appendix

A

submit the entire thing

42
Q

what is the CPT code for an appendix

A

88304

43
Q

krukenberg tumors are most common in which four locations

A

stomach, colon, appendix, and breast

44
Q

define biliary dyskinesia

A

gallbladder does not empty properly

45
Q

how do you gross TURP or prostate chip specimens

A

weigh (do not include formalin)
measure in aggregate
remove any calculi

46
Q

what is the CPT code for a TURP

A

88305

47
Q

what is the CPT code for a TURBT

A

88307

48
Q

why is a TURBT done

A

to remove superficial bladder cancer - down to the bladder muscularis

49
Q

how do you gross a TURPT specimen

A

measure in aggregate
remove any calculi
do not weigh
submit entirety of tissue (up to 15-20 cassettes)

50
Q

what is the CPT code for a tonsil specimen from a younger patient

A

88300

51
Q

what is the CPT code for a tonsil specimen from an older patient

A

88304

52
Q

what are the four types of tonsils

A

adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils)
tubal tonsils
palatine tonsils
lingual tonsils

53
Q

how should you process a tonsil to rule out lymphoma

A

section superficially with sterile kit before inking to maintain sterile field

54
Q

what is the CPT code 88329 used for

A

gross examination of tissue in OR (sectioning and evaluation only)

55
Q

which salivary gland is the most common gland for tumor

A

parotid

56
Q

what are the three major salivary glands

A

parotid
submandibular
sublingual

57
Q

which salivary gland is most common for malignant tumor

A

sublingual

58
Q

what is the CPT code for a salivary gland

A

88307

59
Q

what are sialoliths mainly made of

A

carbonate apatite

60
Q

what is the most common type of parotid tumor

A

pleomorphic adenoma

61
Q

what is the second most common benign salivary tumor

A

warthog’s tumor

62
Q

what is the most common type of malignant salivary gland tumor

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

63
Q

what is a major risk factor for the development of malignant salivary tumors

A

smoking

64
Q

who, adults or children, are most affected by salivary gland tumors

A

adults - mostly females

65
Q

what is the most common salivary gland tumor in infants/chidlren

A

hemangioma

66
Q

what’s an important thing to look for with salivary gland specimens

A

nerves

67
Q

how should you section a salivary gland

A

along the short axis

68
Q

what is most important for salivary gland tumor staging

A

size

69
Q

what is ENE

A

extra nodal extension - metastasis of tumor to lymph node (through the lymph node’s capsule)

70
Q

what is the CPT code for sinus contents and papillomas

A

88304

71
Q

what are the three types of nasal papillomas

A

inverted
fungiform nasal
oncocytic nasal

72
Q

what is the most common type of nasal papilloma

A

inverted

73
Q

what are the two CPT codes used for bone

A

88307 and 88311 (decal)

74
Q

which CPT code is used for bone marrow

A

88305

75
Q

which three conditions can cause lipomas

A

gardner syndrome
adiposis dolorosa
familial multiple lipomatosis

76
Q

what is the most common type of hernia

A

inguinal - bladder or intestine protrudes through abdominal wall

77
Q

what is the CPT code for a lipoma

A

88304

78
Q

what is the CPT code for a hernia

A

88302

79
Q

what is the CPT code for a hydrocele

A

88302

80
Q

what is the CPT code for a spermatocele

A

88304

81
Q

what is the difference between a hydrocele and spermatocele

A

hydrocele: around testicle
spermatocele: epididymis

82
Q

what is the CPT code for a cyst

A

88304

83
Q

what is the CPT code for an intervertebral disc

A

88304

84
Q

what is the CPT code for a foreskin from someone other than a newborn

A

88304

85
Q

what is the CPT code for a hemorrhoid

A

88304

86
Q

what is the CPT code for a joint/loose body

A

88304

87
Q

what is the CPT code for skin tags

A

88304

88
Q

what is the CPT code for vulvar tags

A

88305

89
Q

what is the CPT code for aortic valves

A

88305

90
Q

what are calcifications of heart valves suggestive of

A

rheumatic heart disease

91
Q

what are the three main types of prosthetic, mechanical heart valves

A

starr-edwards
tilting dics
St. Judes

Applied Anatomic Pathology (17 decks)

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