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Applied Anatomic Pathology > Autopsy 3: Adult Organ Findings > Flashcards

Autopsy 3: Adult Organ Findings Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four types of pericardial effusion

A

transudative, exudative, hemorrhagic, and malignant

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2
Q

what is often referred to as “bread and butter” pericarditis

A

fibrinous pericarditis

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3
Q

what is an empyema

A

intrapleural fibrinosuppurative reaction
usually develops from spread of bacterial or fungal infections of the lung parenchyma

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4
Q

what is a chylothorax

A

accumulation of milky fluid of lymphatic origin in the pleural cavity

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5
Q

what is the most common malignant tumor of the larynx

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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6
Q

what is dorsal lividity in the lung

A

blood settling in the lungs due to gravity postmortem

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7
Q

what are the 4 types of emphysema

A

centriacinar
panacinar
paraseptal
irregular

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8
Q

what are the four stages of lobar pneumonia

A

congestion
red hepatization
gray hepatization
resolution

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9
Q

where is the most common location for carcinoma in the esophagus

A

50% of cases occur in the middle third

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10
Q

what are the most common malignant tumors of the esophagus

A

squamous cell carcinomas

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11
Q

where are stress ulcers most commonly located

A

stomach

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12
Q

where are peptic ulcers most commonly located

A

proximal duodenum

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13
Q

what is a common, benign incidental finding of the stomach

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs)

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14
Q

what is the most common type of malignant tumor found in the stomach

A

gastric carcinoma

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15
Q

what is the diffuse type of gastric carcinoma

A

linnitus plastica

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16
Q

in which condition would you see yellow plaques in the colon

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

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17
Q

what is the cause of pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

clostridium difficile

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18
Q

what are some colonic features of Crohn disease

A

narrowing of lumen
thickening of wall
cobblestone
fissures
skip lesions

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19
Q

what are some colonic features of ulcerative colitis

A

mostly found in distal colon
ulcerations
continuous pattern of involvement - no skip lesions

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20
Q

what is the most common location for diverticula of the colon

A

sigmoid

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21
Q

what are grooves on the liver called

A

leibermeister grooves

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22
Q

what is nutmeg liver

A

chronic, passive congestion of the liver

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23
Q

what is cholesterolosis of the gallbladder

A

yellow stippling of the mucosa - made of cholesterol

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24
Q

what is the one of the first organs to go through autolysis post mortem

A

pancreas

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25
Q

what is an ococytoma

A

benign, classic mahogany colored tumor of the kidney

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26
Q

at which pole do 90% of horseshoe kidneys occur

A

lower pole

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27
Q

what is the normal texture of the mucosa of a bladder

A

trabecular

28
Q

what happens to the bladder postmortem

A

epithelial shedding which can cause urine to look cloudy and give the bladder a more smooth appearance

29
Q

what does a highly trabeculated bladder suggest

A

long term catheterization

30
Q

what is a communicating hydrocele

A

collection of clear fluid in the tunica vaginalis - leads to a enlarged scrotal sac which is a common finding at autopsy
mostly commonly due to excess abdominal fluid (ascites)

31
Q

what is a non-communicating hydrocele

A

collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis that is not associated with fluid from the peritoneal cavity
can be caused by trauma or inflammation

32
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in men over 60 years of age

A

lymphoma

33
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in young men (15-34 yrs of age)

A

germ cell tumors

34
Q

what should you pay special attention to if a male patient has cystic fibrosis

A

testicles and epididymis - look for atrophy of the epididymis

35
Q

what is BPH

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy - enlarging of the prostate, typically due to age

36
Q

what must you do with fresh bone

A

fix first then decalcify

37
Q

what can small holes in the bone be confused with

A

small holes (which are actually vertebral blood supply) can be confused with osteoporosis

38
Q

what is the best muscle to take a representative section from during autopsy

A

iliopsoas muscle

39
Q

what three things should you take generally sections of for documentation purposes in an autopsy

A

skin, muscle, and nerve

40
Q

what would an Alzheimer brain look like

A

you would see degeneration of the sulci, leaving elevated gyri

41
Q

what should you look for in the brain of a Parkinson’s patient

A

look at the midbrain, specifically the substantia nigra
lack of darkly pigmented line is suggestive of Parkinson’s

42
Q

what is a subfalcine herniation (cingulate)

A

expansion of the cerebral hemisphere displaces the gyri under the falx

43
Q

what is a transtentorial herniation

A

medial aspect of temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium

44
Q

what is a tonsillar herniation

A

displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

45
Q

what are concentrations on either side of the superior sagittal sinus of the brain

A

arachnoid granulations - not meningeal pathology

46
Q

what is the arterial border (water-shed) zone of the brain - mostly likely to harbor small ischemic lesions

A

superior and middle frontal gyri

47
Q

what is seen in a “ventilator” brain

A

swollen with areas of necrosis

48
Q

what is the most frequent cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

rupture of a berry aneurysm in a cerebral artery

49
Q

what is the most common location for a saccular (berry) aneurysm

A

anterior communicating artery

50
Q

what is the most common cause of sudden death in the United States

A

ischemic heart disease

51
Q

how can you get color back to a specimen after its been fixed to take a better photograph

A

run it under 80% ethanol (alcohol) for 30 minutes

52
Q

what is the ideal tissue size for submission

A

2.5 x 1.5 x 0.3 cm

53
Q

according to CAP, how long does tissue need to be held onto after the final autopsy report is signed out

A

3 months

54
Q

what does CAP stand for

A

college of american pathologists accreditation

55
Q

when should a PAD be finished by according to CAP

A

2 working days

56
Q

when should a final diagnosis be finished by according to CAP

A

30 days for routine cases; 90 days for complicated cases

57
Q

when should a PAD be finished according to the joint commission for hospital accreditation

A

2 days

58
Q

when should a FAD be finished according to the joint commission for hospital accreditation

A

60 days

59
Q

what is the most important complication of atherosclerosis

A

myocardial infarction

60
Q

what is the most common location for a coronary artery MI

A

left anterior descending

61
Q

you have a heart that has a dark, mottled appearance with NO yellowing, how old is this MI?

A

anywhere from 4-24 hours

62
Q

you have a heart that has a mottled appearance with a yellowing center, how old is this MI?

A

anywhere from 1 to 7 days

63
Q

you have a heart that has a yellow, tan appearance with red margins, how old is this MI?

A

7-10 days

64
Q

you have a heart that has a scar, how old is this MI?

A

anywhere from 2-8 weeks

65
Q

how do you structure a PAD

A

list diagnosis in order of clinical importance
1.) underlying disease process that lead to the patients demise
2.) consequences of pervious disease or injury
3.) list of all findings (diagnosis first, then comma. then site or organ)

66
Q

what is the main difference between a PAD and a death certificate

A

PAD: underlying causes
death certificate: terminal event (ex. cardiac arrest due to coronary artery atherosclerosis)

Applied Anatomic Pathology (17 decks)

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