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*CPH Exam 2021 > Biology + Human Disease Risk > Flashcards

Biology + Human Disease Risk Flashcards

1
Q

strength of association (Hills Criteria)

A

strong associations are more likely to be causal than weak associations

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2
Q

consistency

A

repeated observations of an association in different populations under different circumstances

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3
Q

specificity

A

requires that a cause leads to a single effect, not multiple effects.

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4
Q

temporality

A

the necessity that the cause precedes the effect in nature

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5
Q

biologic gradient

A

refers to the presence of a uni-directional dose-response curve

Ex: more smoking = more carcinogenic exposure

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6
Q

plausability

A

refers to the biologic plausibility of the hypothesis;

often flawed

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7
Q

coherence

A

implies that a cause and effect interpretation for an association does not conflict with what is known of the natural history and biology of the disease

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8
Q

The Epidemiologic Triangle

A

models the relationship between:

agent - host - environment

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9
Q

Chain of Infection

A

Agent - Reservoir - Portal of Exit - Mode of Transmission - Portal of Entry - Susceptible Host

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10
Q

Agent

A

causes disease

ex: bacteria, viruses, parasites

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11
Q

Reservoir

A

habitat where agent normally lives, grows, and multiples

ex: humans, animals, environment (soil, water)

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12
Q

Zoonosis

A

an infectious disease that is transmissible under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to humans

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13
Q

Portal of exit

A

path by which an agent leaves the host

ex: mouth, cuts, urine or stool

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14
Q

Mode of Transmission

A

transfer of agent from reservoir to a host

Direct -or- Indirect

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15
Q

Direct transmission

A

direct contact (person or soil)

droplet spread (aerosols produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking)

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16
Q

Indirect transmission

A

airborne (dust or droplet suspension),

vehicles (food, water, blood, fomites)

vectors (mosquitos, fleas, ticks)

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17
Q

portal of entry

A

manner in which agent enters a susceptible host;

dermal, transplacental, oral, respiratory/inhalation

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18
Q

susceptible host

A

depends on genetics, immunity, or other determinants of health

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19
Q

Louis Pasteur

A

proved that germs caused disease (Germ Theory);

created first vaccines for rabies and anthrax

invented technique of treating milk to stop bacterial contamination (pasteurization)

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20
Q

Koch’s postulates

A

4 criteria to establish a causal relationship between agent and disease

anthrax; tuberculosis; later generalized to other diseases

Not all 4 postulates is required to demonstrate causality

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21
Q

Koch postulate 1

A
  1. agent must be found in all organisms with the disease, but not in healthy organisms
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22
Q

Koch postulate 2

A
  1. agent must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in culture
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23
Q

Koch postulate 3

A
  1. cultured agent should cause disease in a healthy organism
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24
Q

Koch postulate 4

A

agent must be re-isolated and matched with original agent

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25
Q

mechanical vector transmission

A

living organism carries an agent from one host to another, but not as an infection

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26
Q

biological vector transmission

A

living organism carries an agent from one host to another as an infection

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27
Q

vehicle transmission

A

food, water, blood, fomites;

non-living item passively carries agent

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28
Q

fomite

A

inanimate objects that become contaminated with the agent

classical example: park water fountain

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29
Q

malaria biological vector

A

anopheles mosquito

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30
Q

break-bone/dengue fever biological vector

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

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31
Q

yellow fever biological vector

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

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32
Q

west nile fever biological vector

A

culex mosquito

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33
Q

west nile fever reservoir

A

birds

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34
Q

zika biological vector

A

Aedes aegypti mosquito

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35
Q

trachoma mechanical vector

A

housefly

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36
Q

plague biological vector

A

flea

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37
Q

lyme disease biological vector

A

tick

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38
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever biological vector

A

tick

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39
Q

sleeping sickness biological vector

A

tsetse fly

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40
Q

leishmaniasis biological vector

A

sandflies

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41
Q

river blindness biological vector

A

black flies

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42
Q

guinea worm biological vector

A

water fleas

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43
Q

malaria causative agent

A

plasmodium (protozoan parasite)

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44
Q

break-bone/dengue fever causative agent

A

dengue virus

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45
Q

yellow fever causative agent

A

yellow fever virus

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46
Q

west nile fever causative agent

A

west nile virus

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47
Q

zika causative agent

A

zika virus

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48
Q

trachoma causative agent

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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49
Q

plague causative agent

A

Yersinia pestis

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50
Q

lyme disease causative agent

A

borrelia burgdoferi

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51
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever causative agent

A

rickettsia rickettsii

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52
Q

sleeping sickness causative agent

A

trypanosoma bruceii

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53
Q

Japanese encephalitis biological vector

A

culex mosquito

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54
Q

Japanese encephalitis causative agent

A

Japanese encephalitis virus

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55
Q

SEIR Model

A

Susceptible, Exposed, Infected, Recovered

models progress of epidemic; not the most accurate predictors, but helpful in identifying drivers of infection

56
Q

surveillance

A

monitors disease trends; identifies epidemics or new syndromes; planning public health policy; evaluating public health policy/intervention

57
Q

passive surveillance

A

providers or labs report cases to health departments;

most common b/c efficient, simple and inexpensive, is continuous

cons: incomplete data due to underreporting

58
Q

active surveillance

A

health department contacts providers and labs requesting case info.

Pro: More complete data; capture more cases
cons: expensive and time consuming

59
Q

Epidemic prevention strategies

A

pasteurization, disinfection, barrier methods, antibiotics, quarantine, vaccination

60
Q

How vaccines work

A

trigger the body’s adaptive immune system (antibody production) to target a specific agent

61
Q

acquired immunity

A

immunity that develops during your lifetime

62
Q

active immunity

A

develops in response to a direct infection

natural: actual infection
artificial: vaccination

63
Q

passive immunity

A

develops after receiving antibodies from someone or treatment

natural: from mother through breast milk
artificial: treatment (gamma globulin injection or infusion)

64
Q

herd immunity

A

resistance within a population to a certain infection

different thresholds for different diseases

higher infectious disease require higher thresholds

65
Q

antigenic drift

A

minor change within genes

ex: point mutations in seasonal flu viruses

occurs in both influenza A & B viruses

may cause epidemics

66
Q

antigenic shift

A

major change within genes, creates a new subtype

ex: exchange of gene segments

occurs in ONLY influenza A

may cause pandemic

67
Q

disease is caused by:

A

complex interactions between genes and environment

68
Q

demographic transition

A

high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates

agricultural to industry

infectious to chronic diseases

69
Q

congenital defects

A

defects present at birth

70
Q

What is part of the recommended uniform newborn screening panel?

A
  • metabolic disorders;
  • endocrine disorders;
  • hemoglobin disorders;
  • hearing loss
71
Q

most genetic conditions screened for in newborn panels follow _____.

A

an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance

72
Q

teratogens

A

agents that induce defects during prenatal development;

half are unknown

73
Q

teratogens: 3 types

A
  1. ionizing radiation
  2. chemicals
  3. pathogens
74
Q

teratogen: ionizing radiation (2)

A

gamma rays
x-rays

cause microcephaly or intellectual disabilities

75
Q

teratogen: chemicals (5)

A
  • Accutane: birth defects
  • Alcohol: fetal alcohol syndrome
  • Cigarette use: LBW, stillbirth, miscarriage
  • Dioxin: linked to cancer
  • Thalidomide: absence of long bones
76
Q

teratogens: pathogens (3)

A
  • rubella: congenital defects
  • syphilis: microcephaly or intellectual disabilities
  • toxoplasmosis: stillbirth, miscarriage, developmental disabilities
77
Q

most teratogens affect the embryo during _____.

A

organogenesis

78
Q

currently the most common cause of unintentional deaths for adults in the US?

A

unintentional poisoning; drug abuse

79
Q

Clean Air Act

A

requires EPA to set National Ambient Air Quality Standards;

regulated vehicle emissions

80
Q

National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)

A

6 primary criteria air pollutants:

  1. sulfur dioxide
  2. nitrogen oxides
  3. carbon monoxide
  4. ozone
  5. lead
  6. particulate matter
81
Q

sulfur dioxide (NAAQS)

A

acid rain;

linked to respiratory effects

affects asthma

82
Q

nitrogen oxides (NAAQS)

A

smog, acid rain;

linked to respiratory effects;

affects asthma

83
Q

carbon monoxide (NAAQS)

A

reduces oxygen in body tissue;

affects cardiovascular conditions

84
Q

ozone (NAAQS)

A

causes airway irritation, coughing, difficulty breathing;

affects asthma and COPD

85
Q

lead (NAAQS)

A

linked to neurological defects;

86
Q

particulate matter (NAAQS)

A

smaller than 10 micrometers;

linked to respiratory effects;

affects asthma

87
Q

natural ozone

A

O3; found in stratosphere;

absorbs most of sun’s UV radiation

88
Q

ground-level ozone

A

principal component of smog;

causes aging lung tissue and breathing problems

89
Q

How climate change affects public health

A
  • warm winters and hot, wet summers lead to increase vector borne diseases
  • increased rain and flooding lead to increased mosquitos
  • higher CO2 levels lead to increased pollen which increases asthma rates
90
Q

greatest driver of climate change

A

greenhouse gases

  • created by humans
91
Q

greenhouse gases (5)

A
  1. carbon dioxide
  2. methane
  3. nitrous oxide
  4. ozone
  5. water vapor
92
Q

non-point source pollution

A

unclear, indirect source

93
Q

point-source pollution

A

clear, direct source;

runoff

94
Q

organophosphates

A

widely used in insecticides

95
Q

chloroflurocarbon

A

volatile organic compounds

96
Q

EPA regulates the following pathogens in water sources:

A
  • cryptosporidium
  • giardia lamblia
  • legionella
  • enteric viruses
97
Q

Steps in Water Treatment

A
  1. Coagulation + Flocculation
  2. Sedimentation
  3. Filtration
  4. Disinfection
98
Q

Coagulation + Flocculation

A
  • chemicals with + charge are added to water;
  • neutralizes - charge of dirt
  • causes particles to bind with chemicals and form larger particles called floc
99
Q

Sedimentation

A

floc settles to the bottom of the water due to weight

100
Q

Filtration

A

clear water above settled floc passes through filters

101
Q

Disinfection

A

chlorination kills remaining parasites, bacteria, viruses

102
Q

Legionnaire’s Disease causative agent

A

legionella pneumophila (bacteria)

103
Q

Legionnaire’s Disease source

A

contaminated water that contained the bacteria

104
Q

legionella pneumophila (bacteria) causes 2 disease

A
  1. Legionnaire’s

2. Pontiac River Fever

105
Q

cryptosporidium can become a problem in water supplies because _____.

A

it can survive the chlorine treatment process

106
Q

Danger Zone

A

40F to 140F

107
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by _____.

A

E. coli strain 0157:H7

108
Q

Pregnant women are 10 time more likely to become infected with _____, which may cause _____.

A

Listeria;

may cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or preterm labor

109
Q

Common pathogens associated with chicken (3)

A
  1. salmonella,
  2. campylobacter,
  3. Listeria
110
Q

Common pathogens associated with fish (2)

A
  1. scombroid toxin

2. ciguatoxin

111
Q

Common pathogens associated with produce (2)

A
  1. salmonella

2. Listeria

112
Q

HACCP

A

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point

system for reducing the risk of safety hazards in food

113
Q

HACCP Steps:

A
  1. Conduct hazard analysis
  2. identify the critical control point
  3. establish critical limits
  4. establish monitoring procedure
  5. establish corrective action
  6. establish record keeping procedures
  7. establish verification procedures
114
Q

The Love Canal

A

Entire town was relocated when hazardous waste was discovered to be disposed below the town.

high rates of miscarriage, birth defects, and cancer

near Niagara Falls in 1952

115
Q

Superfund

A

created and administered by the EPA;

responsible parties must assume liability for the clean up of environmental hazards they cause

116
Q

Superfund site

A

any land contaminated by hazardous waste and identified by the EPA as a candidate for cleanup due to risk to human health

117
Q

In the U.S., which is the largest source of radiation dose to the general public?

A

radon gas

118
Q

toxicology

A

study of how chemicals cause injury to living cells

119
Q

dose

A

amount of chemical in the body

120
Q

risk

A

probability that harm will occur

= toxicity x exposure

121
Q

acute toxicity

A

one time exposure causes systemic damage

ex: hydrogen sulfide exposure

122
Q

chronic toxicity

A

long-term, low-level exposure to chemicals causes harmful systemic effects

ex: asbestos exposure

123
Q

dose-response curve

A

assumes higher dose = greater
effects

exception: carcinogens (no safe threshold)

124
Q

LD50

A

dose level at which 50% of the test population will die

125
Q

LD0

A

dose level with no deaths

126
Q

Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)

A

mandated safety and health data on chemicals;

required EPA to regulate substances that pose a risk to human or environment health

127
Q

Clean Water Act

A

formerly the Water Pollution Control Act;

Established national standards for waterways and set limits on pollutant discharges.

128
Q

Comprehensive and Environmental Response Compensational and Liability Act (CERCLA)

A

created superfunds to provide clean up of existing inactive and abandoned hazardous waste sites

129
Q

Federal Water Pollution Control Act in 1972

A

was later renamed to Clean Water Act of 1977;

Established national standards for waterways and set limits on pollutant discharges.

130
Q

Safe Drinking Water Acts

A

regulated public drinking water systems;

allowed EPA to set maximum contaminant levels for water pollutants in drinking water

131
Q

Comprehensive Air Quality Act of 1967

A

1st attempt to develop regional approach for air pollution control through Air Quality Control Regions;

oversight of air quality was at state level

132
Q

Clean Air Act (1970)

A

moved oversight of air quality from state to federal level EPA

133
Q

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

A

prevents hazardous waste problems at active sites;

mandated cradle-to-grace tracking system

134
Q

Community Right-to-Know Act

A

private and public facilities are required to report publicly their waste production for hazardous wastes

135
Q

Hazardous materials transportation act

A

provided guidance on the transportation of hazardous materials;

overseen by Department of Transportation;

states can set more stringent provisions

*CPH Exam 2021 (10 decks)

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