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MCAT > Biology 1 (complete) > Flashcards

Biology 1 (complete) Flashcards

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MCAT flashcards
1
Q

where is non-nuclear DNA found

A

mitochondria

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2
Q

where are three places cilia is found

A

in the lungs (respiratory system), ependymal cells (nervous system), uterine tubes (reproductive system)

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3
Q

what is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella

A

e: whipping motion; microtubules made of tubulin
p: spinning motion; simple helices made of flagellin

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4
Q

smooth ER

A

lipid synthesis (CREATION ONLY, not metabolization)

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5
Q

rough ER

A

covered with ribosomes that transcribe proteins

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6
Q

peroxisomes

A

detoxify

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7
Q

nucleus

A

DNA is found here, and cannot leave

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8
Q

nucleolus

A

site of rRNA transcriptions and ribosome assembly

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9
Q

mitochondria function and structure

A

powerhouse

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10
Q

lysosomes

A

digests cell parts and does apoptosis

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11
Q

golgi apparatus

A

package and transport

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12
Q

endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria evolved from aerobic prokaryotes that were engulfed by a larger “host” prokaryote.

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12
Q

centrosome

A

organizes things and plays a role in cell division

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13
Q

what are the 4 kinds of membrane transport and which require atp

A

simple: no atp
facilitated: no atp
active: atp
secondary active: no atp

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14
Q

describe active transport

A

when something is being moved against the concentration gradient or electron potential

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15
Q

what kind of membrane transport is osmosis

A

facilitated

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16
Q

what is osmosis

A

diffusion of water across a semi-permeable membrane

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17
Q

distinguish between hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic

A

hypertonic: shriveled up cell because the solutions are more concentrated than the cell so water leaves it
hypotonic: too much water in the cell, cell can burst
isotonic: equal concentration solutions

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18
Q

what are tight junctions and where are they found

A

water proof barriers; epidermis of the skin

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19
Q

what are gap junctions and where are they found

A

tunnels between adjacent cells allowing exchange; cardiac tissues, smooth muscle tissue etc

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20
Q

what are adherens junctions and where are they found

A

strong mechanical attachments; found in epithelium and between cardiac muscle cells

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21
Q

what are desmosomes and where are they found

A

strongest cellular junctions, but not water proof; found in the tissues prone to stress like epidermis

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22
Q

function of: epithelial tissue
nervous tissue
connective tissue

A

epithelial: covers the body and lines cavities
nervous: neurons, astrocytes, Schwann cells etc
Connective: bone, cartilage, blood, lymphatic, fat etc

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23
Q

Which of the following is not classified as nervous tissue?
A. ependymal B. oligodendrocytes C. lymphatic D. microglia

A

C - connective tissue, not nervous

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24
Q

true or false: it is safe to assume that if it cannot be classified as epithelial tissue or nervous tissue, it is connective tissue

A

true

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25
Q

cell communication:
endocrine

A

hormone signaling; cell targets a distant cell through bloodstream (receptor is usually far away)

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26
Q

cell communication:
paracrine

A

signal molecules come from one cell and bind to receptors on the local area of other cells; cell targets nearby cell

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27
Q

cell communication:
autocrine

A

signal molecules come from one cell and bind to receptors on the same cell; cell targets himself

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28
Q

cell communication:
intracrine

A

signal molecules bind to receptors within the same cell that made them

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29
Q

what is an example of a signal molecule via intracrine

A

steroids

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30
Q

cell communication:
juxtacrine

A

signaling needs direct contact between two cells

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31
Q

cell communication:
nervous system

A

signaling is happening through neurons

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32
Q

In the cell division phase G0, which cells are considered ‘frozen’/do not divide?

A

fully differentiated neurons and cardiac muscle cells

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33
Q

what is apoptosis and what organelle is in charge of it

A

programmed cell death caused by lysosomes

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34
Q

when is apoptosis initiated

A

whenever cells are exposed to extreme heat, radiation, viral infection, DNA damage, or to remove healthy but unwanted cells

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35
Q

how many chromosomes do humans have before and after replication?

A

46 before 46 after

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36
Q

do the number of chromosomes differ before and after S-phase? if so, how?

A

no, both are 46

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37
Q

how many chromosomes are are in diploid cells? haploid cells?

A

46 in diploid, 23 in haploid

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38
Q

what is the purpose of chromosomes

A

package long DNA strands so they can be stored while the divisions are happening

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39
Q

actin filaments is how long?

A

7nm

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40
Q

how long are microtubules

A

25nm

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41
Q

how long are intermediate filaments

A

8-12nm

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42
Q

actin filaments are polymers of?

A

actin monomers

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43
Q

what is the structure of an actin filament

A

globular protein arranged in a helix

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44
Q

what is the function of actin filament

A

major contractile component of muscle cells

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45
Q

what is the function of microtubules?

A

they play a role in cell structure, organization, mitosis, and movement

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46
Q

what is the function of the intermediate filaments

A

they are the structural protein in eukaryotic cells

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47
Q

what are the three things the cell membrane is made up of (3 components of a phospholipid)

A

phosphate bond; glycerol backbone; fatty acid tails

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48
Q

what are the three types of membrane transport and explain how they work

A

uniport: when S goes through in just one way
symport: when S1 goes in and S2 goes in the same way
antiport: S1 goes in one way and S2 goes in the opposite way

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49
Q

which of these membrane transport methods qualify as “cotransport”?
A. uniport
B. symport
C. antiport

A

both symport and antiport

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50
Q

give examples of nervous tissue

A

brain, spinal cord, and nerves

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51
Q

give examples of muscle tissue

A

cardiac muscle
smooth muscle
skeletal muscle

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52
Q

give examples of epithelial tissue

A

lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs
skin surface (epidermis)

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53
Q

give examples of connective tissue

A

fat and other soft padding tissue
bone
tendon

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54
Q

what are the 4 main phases of the cell cycle

A

G1, S, G2, Mitosis

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55
Q

what happens in the G1 phase of the cell cycle

A

G1 is known as the growth phase; most of cell life is here, they are making organelles and proteins

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56
Q

what happens during the S phase of the cell cycle

A

S phase is the synthesis phase; DNA is replicated here (goes from 23 pairs to 46 pairs)

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57
Q

what happens during the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

A

the preparation of mitosis happens here, making of microtubules occurs

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58
Q

what happens during the mitosis phase of the cell cycle?

A

this is where active cell division occurs

59
Q

when does interphase occur and what is it?

A

interphase occurs in G1, S, and G2.
interphase is when cell growth happens but not cell division

60
Q

what is G0?

A

a phase when there is no more cell division (ex. neurons)

61
Q

what are the 4 phases of mitosis

A

prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase

62
Q

what happens during prophase

A

DNA condenses into the X shape; centrosomes migrate to each side; nuclear membrane breaks down

63
Q

what happens during metaphase

A

sister chromatids line up in the middle and attach to the microtubules

64
Q

what happens during anaphase

A

sister chromatids are pulled apart, making them chromosomes now

65
Q

what happens during telophase

A

DNA starts to unwind and the nuclear membrane begins to form

66
Q

true or false: the splitting of the cells is also known as cytokinesis

A

true

67
Q

what is the starting and ending result of mitosis

A

starts with 46 chromosomes for humans; the end result is 2 identical daughter cells, each with 46 chromosomes

68
Q

what is the starting and ending result of ALL parts of meiosis

A

starts with 46 chromosomes; after meiosis 1, there will be 2 daughter cells that are different from parent cells, each with 23 chromosomes each; after meiosis 2 there will be 4 daughter cells

69
Q

where does crossing over occur

A

meiosis 1 - prophase 1

70
Q

what are the 4 DNA bases

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

71
Q

which bases bind with which bases (DNA bases?)

A

thymine with adenine
guanine with cytosine

72
Q

in terms of DNA bases, which have 2 H bonds and which have 3 H bonds

A

guanine and cytosine have 3 H bonds
adenine and thymine have 2 H bonds

73
Q

what is the function of a N-H bond in the DNA base?

A

it is there to attack sugars

74
Q

split DNA bases into purines and pyrimidines

A

purines: adenine & guanine
pyrimidines: cytosine, thymine, and uracil

75
Q

what are the three kinds of repair mechanisms for DNA

A

base excision, mismatch repair, nucleotide excision

76
Q

what kind of damage is associated with base excision?

A

spontaneous damage

77
Q

what kind of damage is associated with mismatch repair

A

DNA copy errors

78
Q

what kind of damage is associated with nucleotide excision

A

chemical radiation

79
Q

explain what proofreading is in terms of DNA repair?

A

DNA polymerase exhibits a substantial proofreading function that catches and repairs most mismatched base pairs on the spot

80
Q

explain what mismatch repair system is in terms of DNA repair

A

enzymes that scan newly copied DNA and locate, excise and replace mismatched base pairs missed by the proofreading of DNA polymerase

81
Q

explain what base excision is in terms of DNA repair

A

base portion only is excised first via a DNA glycosylase; other enzymes then remove the sugar-phosphate backbone; then DNA polymerase and ligase replace the nucleotide

82
Q

explain what nucleotide excision is in terms of DNA repairs

A

excision of an oligonucleotide that includes several bases on either side of the error. DNA polymerase and ligase replace the missing segment

83
Q

what is the southern blot

A

used to verify the presence/absence of specific DNA sequence; also indicate the relative size of restriction fragments

84
Q

what is the northern blot

A

used to verify the presence/absence of specific RNA sequence; also indicate the relative size of restriction fragments

85
Q

what is the western blot

A

used to verify the presence/absence of specific protein sequence; also indicate the relative size of restriction fragments; probes used are radiolabeled antibodies rather than nucleotide sequences

86
Q

what is the eastern blot

A

similar to a western blot but it is used to verify post-translational modification; probes bind to lipids, carbohydrates, and phosphates

87
Q

what is the Hardy Weinberg equation?

A

p^2+2pq+q^2=1
p+q=1

88
Q

in the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what does the “p” represent? what does the “q” represent?

A

p= frequency of the dominant allele
q= frequency of recessive allele

89
Q

which kind of gram cell has the thicker layer of peptidoglycan?

A

gram positive

90
Q

what is the lytic cycle known as?

A

the reproductive cycle of a bacteriophage

91
Q

true or false: the lysogenic cycle kills bacteria

A

false: lysogenic cycle does not kill bacteria

92
Q

what does the lysogenic do/result in?

A

many copies of the viral DNA

93
Q

what are lysogenic phages known as and what are lytic phages known as?

A

lysogenic: temperate
lytic: virulent

94
Q

what is a flagella

A

lash-like appendage that protrudes from the cell body

95
Q

what is cilia

A

slender protuberances that project from the much larger cell body

96
Q

in simple diffusion, what kind of molecules are more likely to go through the gradient?

A

non polar & hydrophobic

97
Q

when it comes to the transport of Na+/K+, what kind of membrane transport (from the 4) needs to be used?

A

Na+ requires facilitated diffusion because it does not go against any concentration gradient
K+ requires active transport because it goes against the concentration gradient

98
Q

what are the three steps of PCR

A
  1. denaturation
  2. annealing
  3. elongation
99
Q

in PCR, what does denaturation do

A

heat is increased to separate the DNA strands

100
Q

in PCR, what does annealing do

A

heat is lowered to allow primers to bind to the DNA strands

101
Q

in PCR, what does elongation do

A

DNA replication occurs

102
Q

why are PCR and DNA cloning done

A

further tests can be done such as southern blots

103
Q

PCR results in…

A

increased DNA concentration exponentially

104
Q

DNA 4 bases vs RNA 4 bases

A

DNA: thymine, adenine, guanine, cytosine
RNA: uracil, adenine, guanine cytosine

105
Q

in terms of structure, what is the difference between DNA base structure and RNA base structure

A

DNA has a the extra OH which makes it a DEOXYribonucleic acid

106
Q

how many strands does DNA have? RNA?

A

DNA has 2 and RNA has 1

107
Q

location of DNA vs RNA

A

DNA: stays in the nucleus
RNA: exits nucleus and travels elsewhere in the cytoplasm

108
Q

what are the three types of RNA

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

109
Q

what is the function of mRNA

A

messenger RNA: read by a ribosome in the process of synthesizing a protein

110
Q

what is the function of tRNA

A

transfer RNA: helps to decode information present in mRNA sequences into proteins

111
Q

what is the function of rRNA

A

ribosomal RNA: part of ribosome

112
Q

what strands go from 5’—->3’?

A

template strands, anti coding strands, anti sense strands

113
Q

what strands go from 3’—->5’?

A

mRNA
nontemplate strands
coding strands
sense strands

114
Q

what are the start codon(s)

A

AUG

115
Q

what are stop codon(s)

A

UAG,UAA,UGA

116
Q

order these in the lac operon
Promoter
lacZ
lacY
lacA
Operator
lacl(regulator gene)

A

lacl(regulator gene)
promoter
operator
lacZ
lacY
lacA

117
Q

what does the presence of lactose remove? what does that result in

A

removes the repressor
allowing RNA polymerase to function normally and transcribe mRNA

118
Q

what is a mutation

A

any change in the DNA sequence

119
Q

germ cell vs somatic cell

A

germ: gametes, sperm, eggs
somatic: everything else

120
Q

what is cancer

A

uncontrolled division of mutated cells due to failure of cellular regulatory mechanisms

121
Q

what is a phenotype

A

physical appearance of an organism as a result of its genes

122
Q

what is a genotype

A

actual genetic makeup of an organism

123
Q

law of segregation

A

alleles segregate independently of one another

124
Q

law of independent assortment

A

genes located on different chromosomes assort independently

125
Q

what is a wild type

A

normal genotype, usually used as a control against an altered genotype

126
Q

chromosome of male vs female

A

male: XY
female: XX

127
Q

what is codominance

A

blue + yellow = blue/yellow

128
Q

what is incomplete dominance

A

blue + yellow = green

129
Q

natural selection is

A

when mutations lead to a change in the gene pool. requires an individual to have a beneficial polymorphism and for individual to produce more offspring than normal

130
Q

what are unlinked genes?

A

when genes are found on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosomes, they assort independently

131
Q

what are linked genes?

A

when genes are close together/on the same chromosome
this means that the alleles already together on one chromosome will be inherited as unit more frequently than not

132
Q

what is divergent evolution

A

for example, there was a wolf as a common ancestor. this resulted in a fox and a domestic dog

133
Q

what is convergent evolution

A

there would be no common winged ancestor but through their respective ancestor there came a bird, butterfly, and bat

134
Q

order these in taxonomy: largest to small
genus
order
family
species
kingdom
phylum
class

A

kingdom
phylum
class
order
family
genus
species

135
Q

true or false: members of 2 different species can mate a produce a viable and fertile offspring

A

false

136
Q

are fungi heterotrophs or autotrophs

A

heterotrophs

137
Q

define heterotroph

A

ability to gain energy from other organisms

138
Q

can fungi reproduce sexually?

A

yes; usually they reproduce asexually but under stressful situations they reproduce sexually

139
Q

what is lichen

A

symbiotic relationship between fungi and algae

140
Q

what is mycorrhizae

A

symbiotic relationship between fungi and plant roots

141
Q

do virus have a shell?

A

yes, it is a protein shell; inside you will find genetic material

142
Q

how do bacteria reproduce

A

binary fission

143
Q

does binary fission increase genetic variation? what other things may increase genetic variation

A

no; transformation, transduction conjugation

144
Q

what is transformation?
transduction?
conjugation?

A

transformation: genetic material is picked up from the environment
transduction: viral DNA is introduced into the bacterial cell
conjugation: genetic info is transferred from on bacterium to another via sex pilus

145
Q

gram negative vs gram positive
in terms of: stain, membrane and wall

A

positive: thin cell membrane but thick cell wall; stain purple
negative: 2 membranes on either side of the thin cell wall; stain pink

MCAT (13 decks)

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