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bio final Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

an electronegativity difference of 0-0.5 would indicate that the bond is most likely a

A

nonpolar covalent bond

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2
Q

an electronegativity difference of .05>1.7 is

A

polar covalent bond

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3
Q

an electronegativity difference of <1.7 would indicate that the bond is most likely a

A

ionic bond

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4
Q

an partially positive and negative electronegativity would indicate that the bond is most likely a

A

hydrogen bond

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5
Q

which statement is true of all atoms that are cations

A

the atom had more protons than electrons

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6
Q

which statement is true for all anions

A

the atom has more electrons than protons

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7
Q

ion

A

charged molecule

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8
Q

the carbon isotope carbon-14 has how many neutrons?

A

14-6=8

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9
Q

coefficients

A

even out equations

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10
Q

acids

A

ph <7

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11
Q

neutral

A

ph=7

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12
Q

bases

A

ph >7

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13
Q

water works as a solvent because of

A

polarity

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14
Q

a mole of table salt and a mole of water are mixed. how many miles of hydrogen are there in the mixture?

A

2

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15
Q

avogadro number

A

6.02x10^23, # of elements or molecules in a mole, way to describe a unit

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16
Q

a calorie is defined as the amount of energy required for

A

changing 1 gram of water by 1 degree C

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17
Q

structural isomer

A

Any of two or more compounds with identical chemical formulas, that differ structurally in the sequence in which the atoms are linked. Structural isomers do not exhibit the same chemical behavior.

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18
Q

cis trans isomer

A

sidedness

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19
Q

enantiomers

A

mirror image

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20
Q

isotopes

A

of neutrons change it

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21
Q

what chemical group does not contain an oxygen

A

sulfhydryl

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22
Q

polymers of macromolecules are built using a process known as

A

dehydration

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23
Q

hydrolysis

A

breaks bonds

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24
Q

a carbohydrate polymer with 2 sugars linked together (such as sucrose) is known as a

A

disaccharide

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25
Q

the major lipid class that has hydrophobic and hydrophilic properties and is the main structure of cell membrane is known as a

A

phospholipid

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26
Q

amino acids differ from each other due to changes in their

A

R group (only change to obtain)

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27
Q

3 major biologically relevant elements

A

carbon, nitrogen, oxygen

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28
Q

explain what is happening to liquid water between 4 degrees and freezing

A

particles within the liquid water begin to slow down as they freeze. Liquid water is more dense than once because the particles are always moving

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29
Q

central dogma

A

DNA is transcribed into mRNA, the mRNA is translated into proteins

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30
Q

to find grams

A

molecular weight x concentration x volume

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31
Q

increase solvent ability

A

breaking H bonds of H2O

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32
Q

hydrophobic

A

doesn’t come in contact with water

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33
Q

hydrophilic

A

comes in contact with water

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34
Q

prokaryotic cells do not contain a

A

nucleus

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35
Q

eukaryotic transcription and translation

A

in nucleus, then in cytoplasm

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36
Q

prokaryotic transcription and translation

A

all in cytoplasm

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37
Q

to secrete protein through the endomembrane system

A

ER>Golgi>Plasma Membrane

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38
Q

cytoskeleton networks are an example of

A

structural macromolecules

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39
Q

which macromolecule class is most likely not part of the fluid mosaic of the plasma membrane

A

nucleic acids

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40
Q

name the types of macromolecules

A

carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, proteins

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41
Q

most plant cells are healthiest with an environmental solution that is

A

hypotonic

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42
Q

a macrophage engulfing a pathogen is an example of

A

phagocytosis

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43
Q

for a sodium/potassium pump there are 3 sodium ions transported for how many potassium ions

A

2

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44
Q

enzymes are used by the cells to

A

lower free energy of reactions

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45
Q

a molecule that binds and blocks the active site directly and cannot be removed from the enzyme would be an example of

A

irreversible competitive inhibitor

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46
Q

the type of metabolic pathway when hydrolysis is used to break bonds between 2 macromolecules and release energy

A

catabolic

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47
Q

create bonds between macromolecules and gain energy

A

anabolic

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48
Q

if an enzyme in solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster yield of products is to

A

add more enzyme

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49
Q

if the mitochondria electron transport chain is disrupted by a drug and the cell continues to send pyruvate to the mitochondria, how many ATP would be expected for every glucose catabolized

A

4

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50
Q

what is the major output of the citric acid cycle (Krebs Cycle) for every Acetyl CoA introduced

A

1 ATP, 1FADH2, and 3NADH

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51
Q

why might a yeast cell use fermentation for ATP production instead of use its mitochondria

A

environmental oxygen is absent

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52
Q

why might biologists think if a plant as one giant segmented cell

A

plasmodesmata

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53
Q

plasmodesmata

A

are microscopic channels which traverse the cell walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and communication between them

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54
Q

endosymbiant theory of eukaryotic cells

A

explains how eukaryotic cells may have evolved from prokaryotic cells

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55
Q

how might a cell adjust to change the fluidity of the plasma membrane

A

by cholesterol or temperature. saturated material and cooler temperatures can slow down fluidity and potentially block pathways. higher temperatures and unsaturated materials will speed up the movement through the plasma membrane

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56
Q

3 membrane protein functions

A

transporters, cell-cell recognition, regulation, provide structure

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57
Q

environmental impact on enzyme activity

A

cells have to regulate themselves when climate changes

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58
Q

how does feedback inhibition relate to enzyme and metabolism

A

enzymes that carry out the functions send back signals to regulate metabolism. regulation is important in a cell because enzymes don’t have to work as hard if it remains close to regular

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59
Q

input of glycolysis

A

2 glycerol, 2 ATP

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60
Q

output of glycolysis

A

2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, 2 NADH

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61
Q

chemiosmosis

A

The movement of ions across a selectively permeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient

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62
Q

electron transport chain

A

uses the electrons from electron carriers to create a chemical gradient that can be used to power oxidative phosphorylation

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63
Q

anaerobic

A

does not require oxygen

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64
Q

aerobic

A

requires oxygen

65
Q

each gene on an organisms chromosome exists at a specific

A

locus

66
Q

allele

A

one of two or more alternative forms of a gene that arise by mutation and are found at the same place on a chromosome.

67
Q

gamete

A

a mature haploid male or female germ cell that is able to unite with another of the opposite sex in sexual reproduction to form a zygote.

68
Q

after meiosis 1 and 2 there are

A

4 haploid cells

69
Q

haploid

A

having a single set of unpaired chromosomes

70
Q

diploid

A

contains two complete sets of chromosomes, one from each parent.

71
Q

crossover begins at which phase

A

prophase 1

72
Q

doesn’t contribute to sexual genetic variation

A

DNA polymerase inefficiency

73
Q

contributes to genetic variation

A

crossing over, independent assortment, random fertilization

74
Q

human ABO blood types are an example and of which complex genetic relationships

A

codominance and multiple alleles

75
Q

law of segregation explains which phenotypic ratio set

A

3:1

76
Q

law of independent assortment explains which phenotypic ratio set

A

9:3:3:1

77
Q

when analyzing a pedigree for a complete dominant trait, what should you look for in the data

A

carriers

78
Q

a recombination frequency of 2% would indicate

A

the genes are linked closely

79
Q

which chromosomal rearrangement results in a loss of information

A

deletion

80
Q

which offspring set would result in a recombination frequency of 40%

A

6 parents, 4 recombinants

81
Q

basic structure of a DNA nucleotide consists of

A

phosphate group, deoxyribose, and nitrogenous base

82
Q

to deal with torsional strain, cells might use an enzyme called

A

topoisomerase

83
Q

PCR stands for

A

polymerase chain reaction

84
Q

for a DNA polymerase to initiate activity it requires

A

both double and single stranded areas

85
Q

output of meiosis

A

starts with 1 diploid>2 diploid>ends with a total of 4 haploid

86
Q

mitosis

A

identical offspring, asexual reproduction, 2 daughter cells

87
Q

meiosis

A

genetically different offspring, sexual reproduction, 4 daughter cells

88
Q

epistasis

A

gene that completely covers traits of other alleles

89
Q

probability of an offspring to be AABBCC or aabbcc from AaBBCc x AaBbCC

A

1/4 x 1/2 x 1/2= 1/16

90
Q

x inactivation

A

Barr Body (inactive X chromosome) one x is inactivated in females because they have 2 x’s. In males if a trait is on the C it is expressed because they have a y

91
Q

5’ and 3’ ends of a nucleotide

A

5’=phosphate end, 3’=sugar end; everything is built from 5’>3’

92
Q

lagging goes out

A

5’>3’

93
Q

leading goes towards

A

3’>5’

94
Q

what type of organisms can undergo photosynthesis

A

eukaryotes and prokaryotes

95
Q

most plant leaves are green because

A

green light is reflected

96
Q

which photosystem is coupled with electron transport in order to produce NADPH

A

1

97
Q

the enzyme RuBisco is used to fix carbon during the

A

Calvin cycle

98
Q

how is photosynthesis adapted in C4/CAM plants

A

addition of another carbon fixation step

99
Q

molecules used as signals in cell communication are known as

A

ligands

100
Q

during transduction a signal may be amplified because

A

activated enzymes may go through multiple reactions

101
Q

transcription factors activated during cell communication events directly affect

A

gene expression

102
Q

apoptosis is involved in which of the following

A

organismal development

103
Q

plant cells can transmit cell signals from one cell to another in direct contact with each other via

A

plasmodesmata

104
Q

a prokaryotic cell will most likely divide through a process known as

A

binary fission

105
Q

which of the following does not occur during mitosis

A

replication of the DNA

106
Q

the correct order to mitosis is

A

prophase>prometaphase>metaphase>anaphase>telophase

107
Q

during cytokinesis, mammalian daughter cells will divide using a

A

cleavage furrow

108
Q

one difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells

A

continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together

109
Q

compare mitochondria to chloroplasts

A

similar due to their shapes, their shapes increase their surface area so they can hold more protein

110
Q

3 phases of the calvin cycle

A

carbon fixation, reduction, regeneration

111
Q

carbon fixation

A

CO2 is added to Rubp through rubisco

112
Q

reduction

A

NADPH is reduced and sugar is released

113
Q

regeneration

A

Rubp is regenerated

114
Q

calvin cycle can continue until it’s out of…

A

ATP and NADPH

115
Q

light reaction and calvin cycle linked

A

products from light reactions go into the calvin cycle.

116
Q

calvin cycle produces

A

NADP and ADP

117
Q

light reaction produces

A

ATP and NADPH

118
Q

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase (RTK)

A

function by coming together to form dimers. They are receptor

119
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

120
Q

biofilms

A

protect cells from outside infections. they prevent foreign materials from attacking cells

121
Q

cell division in plants

A

mitotic spindles attach to the cell membrane and separated by the formation of a cell plate

122
Q

cell division in animals

A

mitotic spindles attach to the centrisome and cells separation by the cleavage furrow

123
Q

generally promoters are found

A

upstream the ATG

124
Q

for a mature piece of mRNA to be complete

A

introns are removed

125
Q

what enzyme is responsible for the elongation step in transcription

A

RNA polymerase

126
Q

in molecular/cellular biology, translation refers to the

A

codon deciphering by ribosomes in protein production

127
Q

transcriptional regulation might occur when

A

DNA is packaged

128
Q

translation regulation might occur when

A

ribosomes are inhibited

129
Q

operons are typically found in

A

prokaryotes

130
Q

alternative splicing will give rise to

A

proteins made from different exon sequences

131
Q

generally a virus is approximately less than

A

1 micrometer

132
Q

prions typically composed of which macromolecule

A

protein

133
Q

after attachment, bacteriophages must penetrate what cellular structure

A

cell wall

134
Q

typically how might a virus genome cause cancer

A

codes for oncogene activators

135
Q

during the denaturing step of PCR

A

DNA is heated to break hydrogen bonds

136
Q

restriction enzymes

A

cut nucleic acids

137
Q

sequencing reactions will require

A

1 primer

138
Q

components of a mature piece of eukaryotic mRNA

A

introns will be spliced out, exons will be present to code for amino acids, contain translation factors

139
Q

TATA box

A

Transcription factor that regulates transcription on operon

140
Q

function of reverse transcription

A

to turn mRNA into cDNA

141
Q

common components of PCR and sequencing reactions

A

primers (1 in seq, 2 in PCR), creating complementary strands from template strands

142
Q

what does it mean for a restriction enzyme DNA sequence to be known as palindromic

A

recognizing a palandromic sequence inables restriction enzymes to cut both strands of DNA at the same place because the strand will have the same sequence in different directions

143
Q

what happens when liquid water goes to freezing

A

particles within the liquid water begin to slow down as they freeze. liquid water is more dense than ice because particles are always moving

144
Q

structural isomer

A

same formula, different structure

145
Q

3 pyrimidines of DNA and RNA

A

cytosine, thymine, uracil

146
Q

purines

A

adenine and guanine

147
Q

plasmodesmata

A

microscopic channels which traverse the cell walls of plant cells and some algal cells, enabling transport and communication between them

148
Q

endosymbiant theory of eukaryotic cells

A

eukaryotic cells came from prokaryotic organisms

149
Q

how might the cell adjust the fluidity of the plasma membrane

A

by cholesterol or temperature. saturated material and cooler temperatures can slow down fluidity and potentially block pathways, higher temperatures and unsaturated materials will speed up movement

150
Q

3 membrane protein functions

A

transporters, cell-cell recognition, provide structure

151
Q

feedback inhibition

A

enzymes send back signals to regulate metabolism

152
Q

input of glycolysis

A

2Glycerol, 2ATP

153
Q

output of gycolosis

A

2 private, 2ATP, 2NADH

154
Q

chemiosmosis

A

movement of ions across a semipermeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient

155
Q

electron transport chain

A

a series of complexes that transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors via redox reactions, and couples this electron transfer with the transfer of protons (H+ ions) across a membrane.

156
Q

receptor tyrosine kinase

A

come together to form dimers

157
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death. occurs within cells that are infected or damaged. successful when the nucleus, mitochondria and lysosomes are attacked

158
Q

biofilms

A

protect cells from outside infections, prevent foreign materials from attacking cells

159
Q

epistasis

A

gene that completely masks traits of other alleles

Biology (7 decks)

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