Bio 6 Flashcards

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1
Q

6.1 Outline the
sequence of events
that occur in order
for food to be
digested and
absorbed

A

mouth -> stomach (with liver and gall bladder) ->
small intestine (pancreas) -> large intestine -> anus
mechanical digestion -> chemical digestion
-food is physically broken down into smaller
fragments via the acts of chewing (mouth),
churning (stomach) and segmentation (small
intestine)
**Absorption occurs in small and large intestine
-pancreas secretes enzymes into the lumen of the
small intestine.
-digested food monomers must pass from the
lumen into the epithelial lining of the small
intestine

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2
Q

6.1 Explain how the
muscles in the
digestive system aid
in digestion.

A

The contraction of circular and longitudinal
muscle of the small intestine mixes the food with
enzymes (churning) and moves it along the gut
Peristalsis:
-peristalsis is the involuntary, wave-like
contraction of muscle layers of the small intestine.
-the principal mechanism of movement in the
esophagus, although it also occurs in both the
stomach and gut
-continuous segments of longitudinal smooth
muscle rhythmically contract and relax
-contraction of longitudinal muscle «layers»/
peristalsis helps move food along the gut
-food is moved unidirectionally along the
alimentary canal in a caudal direction (mouth to
anus)
Segmentation:
-involves the contraction and relaxation of non-
adjacent segments of circular smooth muscle in
the intestines
-circular muscle contraction prevents backward
movement of food
-segmentation contractions move chyme in both
directions, allowing for a greater mixing of food
with digestive juices
-while it helps to physically digest food particles, its bidirectional propulsion of chyme can slow
overall movement

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3
Q

6.1 Explain the
source of enzymes,
stomach acid, and
bile, and how it aids
in overall digestion
along with
associated organs.

A

Enzymes
-allow digestive processes to therefore occur at
body temperatures and at sufficient speeds for
survival requirements
-specific for a substrate and so can allow
digestion of certain molecules to occur
independently in distinct locations
Stomach Acids
-contains gastric glands which release digestive
acids to create a low pH environment (pH -2)
-acidic environment denatures proteins and other
macromolecules, aiding in their overall digestion
-stomach epithelium contains a mucous
membrane which prevents the acids from
damaging the gastric lining
**pancreas releases alkaline compounds (e.g.
bicarbonate ions), which neutralise the acids as
they enter the intestine
Bile
-liver produces a fluid called bile which is stored and concentrated within the gall bladder prior to
release into the intestine
-contains bile salts which interact with fat globules
and divide them into smaller droplets
(emulsification)
-emulsification of fats increases the total surface
area available for enzyme activity (lipase)
-bile/bicarbonate secreted into the small intestine
creates favorable pH for enzymes

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4
Q

6.1 Explain the
function of the
pancreas in
digestion.

A

The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes (e.g.
amylase, lipase and an endopeptidase) into the
lumen of the small intestine depending on the
specific macromolecule required for hydrolysis.
-digestive enzymes are secreted in ribosomes on
the rER, processed in the Golgi A. and secreted
by exocytosis.
Enzymes digest most macromolecules in food into
monomers in the small intestine.
*cellulose remains undigested.
*pancreas also releases alkaline compounds (e.g.
bicarbonate ions), which neutralise the acids as
they enter the intestine

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5
Q

6.1 Describe and
explain one specific
feature of the small
intestine that aids in
the absorption of
food.

A

The inner epithelial lining of the intestine is highly
folded into finger-like projections called villi
(singular: villus)
-villi increase the surface area of epithelium over
which absorption is carried out.
-villi absorb monomers formed by digestion as
well as mineral ions and vitamins.
*villi are part of the mucosa layer of the
small intestine
rich blood supply (part of submucosa layer):
-each villus has a capillary bed that absorbs
sugars and amino acids from the small intestine
-dense capillary network rapidly transports absorbed products
single layer epithelium:
-minimises diffusion distance between lumen
and blood
-increases surface area for absorption
lacteals (part of submucosa layer)
-absorbs lipids from the intestine into the
lymphatic system
*intestinal glands:
-exocrine pits (crypts of Lieberkuhn) release
digestive juices
membrane proteins:
-facilitates transport of digested materials into
epithelial cells
tight junctions:
-keep digestive fluids separated from tissues and
maintain a concentration gradient by ensuring one-way movement
-gives the sheet mechanical strength
-makes it impermeable to small molecules
mitochondria:
-epithelial cells of intestinal villi will possess large
numbers of mitochondria to provide ATP
-required for primary active transport (against
gradient), secondary active transport (co-
transport) or pinocytosis
absorptive cells:
-have many pinocytic vesicles (does endocytosis)
-creating vesicles that contain liquid and nutrients
taken in from the lumen of the small intestine.

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6
Q

6.1 Outline the
different methods
of membrane
transport are
required to absorb
different nutrients.

A

*glucose is hydrophilic, therefore needs to be
transported via active transport
Secondary Active Transport:
-glucose and amino acids are co-transported
across the epithelial membrane by the active
translocation of sodium ions (Nat)
-can only work on glucose and amino acids
because they are positively charged (like Na+)
Facilitated Diffusion
-help hydrophilic food molecules pass through
the hydrophobic portion of the plasma
membrane
-situated near specific membrane-bound
enzymes (creates a localised concentration
gradient)
-certain monosaccharides (e.g. fructose),
vitamins and some minerals are transported by
facilitated diffusion
Osmosis
-movement in response to the ions and
hydrophilic monomers (solutes)
*the absorption of water and dissolved ions occurs
in both the small and large intestine
Simple Diffusion
-fatty acids and lipoprotein are hydrophobic,
therefore can diffuse through membrane passively
-once absorbed, lipids will often pass first into the lacteals rather than being transported via the
blood
-e.g. fatty acids and monoglycerides
Endocytosis
-small droplets of the fluid are passed through the
membrane by means of vesicles.
e.g. triglycerides and cholesterol in
lipoprotein particles.

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7
Q

6.1 List out the
organs in the
digestive system
and their functions.

A

alimentary canal: organs through which food
actually passes
-esophagus, stomach, small & large intestine
accessory organs: aid in digestion but do not
actually transfer food
-salivary glands, pancreas, liver, gall bladder
Oesophagus
• A hollow tube connecting the oral cavity to the
stomach (separated from the trachea by the
epiglottis)
• Food is mixed with saliva and then is moved in a
bolus via the action of peristalsis
Stomach
• A temporary storage tank where food is mixed
by churning and protein digestion begins
• It is lined by gastric pits that release digestive
juices, which create an acidic environment (pH ~2)
Small Intestine
• A long, highly folded tube where usable food
substances (nutrients) are absorbed
• Consists of three sections - the duodenum.
jejunum and ileum
Large Intestine
• The final section of the alimentary canal, where water and dissolved minerals (i.e. ions) are
absorbed
• Consists of the ascending / transverse /
descending / sigmoidal colon, as well as the
rectum
*Salivary Glands
• Release saliva to moisten food and contains
enzymes (e.g. amylase) to initiate starch
breakdown
• Salivary glands include the parotid gland,
submandibular gland and sublingual gland
Pancreas
• Produces a broad spectrum of enzymes that
are released into the small intestine via the
duodenum
• Also secretes certain hormones (insulin,
glucagon), which regulate blood sugar
concentrations
*Liver
• Takes the raw materials absorbed by the small
intestine and uses them to make key chemicals
• Its role includes detoxification, storage, metabolism, bile production and haemoglobin
breakdown
Gall Bladder
• The gall bladder stores the bile produced by the
liver (bile salts are used to emulsify fats)
• Bile stored in the gall bladder is released into
the small intestine via the common bile duct

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8
Q

6.1 Application:
Explain the use of
dialysis tubing to
model absorption
of digested food in
the intestine.

A

Dialysis tubing models the size-specific
permeability of cell membranes.
-large molecules (e.g. starch) cannot pass through
the tubing
-smaller molecules (such as maltose) can cross
-these properties mimic the wall of the gut, which
is also more permeable to small rather then large
particles.
**dialysis tubing is not selectively permeable
based on charge (ions can freely cross)
Dialysis tubing can be used to model absorption
by passive diffusion and by osmosis.
Experiment to measure:
-meniscus levels in the tube
-amylase digests starch into maltose -> increase in
concentration
-water will move into the tubing via osmosis
(towards the solute) causing the meniscus level to
rise
-measuring maltose diffusion (without the use of
tubes)
-amylase digests the starch into maltose
-make it small enough to diffuse out of the tubing
and into the beaker
-presence of maltose can be detected using Benedict’s reagent or glucose indicator strips

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9
Q

6.1 Skill:
Identification of
tissue layers in
transverse sections
of the small
intestine viewed
with a microscope
or in a micrograph.
Outline the function
of the four layers of
tissue found in the
wall of the small
intestine.

A

The small intestine is composed of four main
tissue layers, which are (from outside to centre):
serosa:
-outermost protective layer covering composed
of a layer of cells reinforced by fibrous
connective tissue
muscle layer:
-outer layer of longitudinal muscle (peristalsis)
-inner layer of circular muscle (segmentation)
submucosa:
-contains blood and lymph vessels that carry
away absorbed materials
-composed of connective tissue separating the
muscle laver from the innermost mucosa
mucosa:
-lines the lumen of the small intestine
-a highly folded inner layer which absorbs
material through its surface epithelium from the
intestinal lumen

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10
Q

6.2 Explain the
structure of arteries
in relation to its
function.

A

• Arteries convey blood at high pressure from the
ventricles -> tissues of the body
D
• Arteries have muscle cells and elastic fibres in
their walls to accomplish blood transfer
-thick walls to withstand high pressure/maintain
blood flow/pressure;
-collagen fibres/elastic fibres/connective tissue
(in outer layer) give wall strength/flexibility/ability
to STRETCH and RECOIL;
-(smooth) muscle layer (contracts) to maintain
pressure;
-narrow lumen maintains high pressure;
-many muscle fibres to help pump blood;
many elastic fibres to stretch and pump blood
after each heart beat;
-no valves as pressure is high enough to prevent
backflow;
-endothelium/smooth inner lining to reduce
friction for efficient transport;Their recoil helps
propel the blood down the artery.

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11
Q

6.2 Explain how the
muscle and elastic
fibres assist in
maintaining blood
pressure between
pump cycles.

A

blood: heart -> ventricular contraction -> arteries
-muscle and elastic fibres assist in maintaining the
high pressure between pumps
Muscle fibres:
-form a rigid arterial wall that is capable of
withstanding the high blood pressure
-contract to narrow the lumen -> increases the
pressure between pumps and helps to maintain
blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle
Elastic fibres:
-allow the arterial wall to stretch and expand
upon the flow of a pulse through the lumen
-the pressure exerted on the arterial wall is
returned to the blood when the artery returns to
its normal size (elastic recoil)
-their recoil helps propel the blood down the
artery.
-elastic recoil helps to push the blood forward
through the artery as well as maintain arterial
pressure between pump cycles

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12
Q

6.2 Explain the
function of
capillaries and their
features.

A

-the function of capillaries is to exchange
materials between the cells in tissues and blood
travelling at low pressure
-artery -> arterioles -> capillaries
**ensures blood is moving slowly and all cells are
located near a blood supply; maximizes material
exchange
-higher hydrostatic pressure at the arteriole end
of the capillary forces material from the
bloodstream into the tissue fluid
-lower hydrostatic pressure at the venule end of
the capillary allows materials from the tissues to
enter the bloodstream
-capillaries -> venules -> larger veins
Features:
-capillaries’ walls thin/one cell thick for better
diffusion; (do not accept membranes)
-small diameter/narrow lumen to fit into small
places/between cells;
-small diameter for greater surface area for
molecular exchange;
-pores between cells of the walls so plasma can
leak out:
-pores between cells of the walls allow
phagocytes/immune components to enter tissues;
-only one red blood cell allowed to pass at a time
for efficient oxygen uptake;
-extensive branching increases surface area for exchange of materials;

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13
Q

6.2 Explain the
function of veins
and its features.

A

-function of veins is to collect the blood from the
tissues and convey it at low pressure to the atria
of the heart
-arteries -> capillaries -> veins -> heart -> begin
another pumping cyles
-high pressure -> low pressure
Features:
-thin walls allow (skeletal) muscles to exert
pressure on veins;
-thin outer layer of collagen/elastic/muscle fibres provide structural support;
-wide lumen allows great volume of blood to
pass; to maximise blood flow for more effective
return:
-valves prevent backflow;

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14
Q

6.2 Skill:
Identification of
blood vessels as
arteries, capillaries
or veins from the
diameter, thickness
of wall, muscles,
and the number of
layers.

A

Diameter: ‘
veins > arteries > capillaries
Thickness of wall:
arteries > veins > capillaries
Muscles & Elastic Fibres:
arteries > veins > capillaires (none)
Number of layers
arteries = veins (3 layers) > capillaries (only 1)

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15
Q

6.2 Explain the
blood circulation of
lungs

A

There is a separate circulation for the lungs
-there are two sets of atria and ventricles in heart
because there are two distinct locations for blood
transport
-left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood
around the body (systemic circulation)
-right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated
blood to the lungs (pulmonary circulation)
-the left side of the heart will have a much thicker
muscular wall (myocardium) as it must pump
blood much further

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16
Q

6.2 Skill:
Recognition of the
chambers and
valves of the heart
and the blood
vessels connected
to it in dissected
hearts or in
diagrams of heart
structure.

A

Chambers:
-two atria (singular = atrium) - smaller chambers
near top of heart that collect blood from body
and lungs
-two ventricles - larger chambers near bottom of
heart that pump blood to body and lungs
Heart Valves:
-atrioventricular valves (between atria and
ventricles) - bicuspid valve on left side ; tricuspid
valve on right side -semilunar valves (between
ventricles and arteries) - aortic valve on left side ;
pulmonary valve on right side
Blood Vessels:
-vena cava (inferior and superior) feeds into the
right atrium and returns deoxygenated blood
from the body
-pulmonary artery connects to the right ventricle
and sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs
-pulmonary vein feeds into the left atrium and
returns oxygenated blood from the lungs
-aorta extends from the left ventricle and sends
oxygenated blood around the body

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17
Q

6.2 Explain the
presence of heart
beat.

A

-the sinoatrial node acts like a pace maker
(cardiac cells act in unison)
-the signal for a heart beat is initiated by the heart
muscle cells (cardiomyocytes) rather than from
brain signals
-sends out an electrical signal that stimulates
contraction
-it is propagated through the walls of the atria
and then the walls of the ventricles
-a specialised cluster of cardiomyocytes which
direct the contraction of heart muscle tissue
sinoatrial node (SA)
-stimulates atria to contract:
-stimulates another node at the junction between
the atrium and ventricle
-the atrioventricular node (AV node) sends signals
down the septum via a nerve bundle (Bundle of
His)
-Bundle of His innervates nerve fibres in the
ventricular wall, causing ventricular contraction
-(autonomic) nerves can alter the pace;
-(by secretion of) epinephrine/ adrenaline/
norepinephrine/noradrenaline increase the pace;
- (by secretion of) acetylcholine reduces the pace;
-adrenal glands release epinephrine/adrenaline; carried by blood to heart; to increase pace;
-sequence of events ensures there is a delay
between atrial and ventricular contractions,
resulting in two heart sounds
-delay allows time for the ventricles to fill with
blood following atrial contractions so as to
maximise blood flow

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18
Q

6.2 Explain the
changes in heart
rate

A

The heart rate can be increased or decreased by
impulses brought to the heart through two nerves
from the medulla of the brain.
**nerve signals from the brain can trigger rapid
changes, while endocrine signals can trigger more
sustained changes
blood pressure levels/[CO2] (blood pH) ->
changes in heart rate:
-when exercising, more CO2 is present in the
blood a nerve signal is sent to the sinoatrial node
to speed up the heart rate.
-when CO2 levels fall the vagus nerve reduces
heart rate.
Two nerves connected to the medulla regulate
heart rate by either speeding it up or slowing it
down:
-the sympathetic nerve releases the
neurotransmitter noradrenaline (a.k.a.
norepinephrine) to increase heart rate
-the parasympathetic nerve (vagus nerve)
releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to
decrease heart rate

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19
Q

6.2 Explain the
function of
epinephrine

A

Epinephrine (or adrenaline) is a hormone
increases the heart rate to prepare for vigorous
physical activity.
-released from adrenal glands
-increases heart rate by activating the same
chemical pathways as the neurotransmitter
noradrenaline

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20
Q

6.2 Application:
Explain the pressure
changes in different
areas of the heart
during the cardiac
cycle

A

-cardiac cycle is comprised of a period of
contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole)
Systole:
-blood returning -> atria and ventricles (because)
the pressure in them is lower due to low volume
of blood)
-atriums are ~70% full -> atrial systole -> increasing
pressure in the atria -> forcing blood into
ventricles
-ventricles systole -> ventricular pressure exceeds
atrial pressure -> AV valves close to prevent back
flow (first heart sound)
-both sets of heart valves closed, pressure rapidly
builds in the contracting ventricles
-ventricular pressure exceeds blood pressure in
the aorta -> aortic valve opens -> blood is
released into the aorta
Diastole
-blood exits the ventricle and travels down the
aorta, ventricular pressure falls
-ventricular pressure drops below aortic pressure
-> aortic valve closes to prevent back flow
(second heart sound)
-ventricular pressure drops below the atrial
pressure -> the AV valve opens -> blood can flow
from atria to ventricle
-aortic pressure remains quite high as muscle and elastic fibres in the artery wall maintain blood
pressure

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21
Q

6.2 Application:
Explain the causes
and consequences
of occlusion of the
coronary arteries.

A

Atherosclerosis is the hardening and narrowing of
the arteries due to the deposition of cholesterol.
-atheromas develop in the arteries and
significantly reduce the diameter of the lumen
-restricted blood flow increases pressure in the
artery, leading to damage to the arterial wall
(from shear stress)
**blood pumped through the heart is at high
pressure and cannot be used to supply the heart
muscle with oxygen and nutrients
-damaged region is repaired with fibrous tissue •
reduces the elasticity of the vessel wall
-smooth lining of the artery is progressively
degraded, lesions form called atherosclerotic
plaques
-plaque ruptures -> blood clotting -> thrombus ->
restricts blood flow
-thrombus is dislodged it becomes an embolus
and can cause a blockage in a smaller arteriole
-if a coronary artery becomes completely
blocked, an acute myocardial infarction (heart
attack) will result
-typically treated by by-pass surgery or creating a stent (e.g. balloon angioplasty)
Risk Factors:
Age - Blood vessels become less flexible with
advancing age
Genetics - Having hypertension predispose
individuals to developing CHD
Obesity - Being overweight places an additional
strain on the heart
Diseases - Certain diseases increase the risk of
CHD (e.g. diabetes)
Diet - Diets rich in saturated fats, salts and alcohol
increases the risk
Exercise - Sedentary lifestyles increase the risk of
developing CHD
Sex - Males are at a greater risk due to lower
estrogen levels
Smoking - Nicotine causes vasoconstriction,
raising blood pressure

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22
Q

6.2 Application:
Explain William
Harvey’s discovery
of the circulation of
the blood with the
heart acting as the
pump.

A

-our modern understanding of circulatory system
is based upon the discoveries of 17th century
English physician, William Harvey
Based on some simple experiments and
observations, Harvey instead proposed that:
-blood flow through large vessels is
unidirectional, with valves to prevent backflow.
-arteries and veins were part of a single
connected blood network
**he did not predict the existence of capillaries
however
-arteries pumped blood from the heart (to the
lungs and body tissues)
-veins returned blood to the heart (from the lungs
and body tissues)
- also showed that the rate of flow through major
vessels was far too high for blood to be
consumed in the body after being pumped our by
the heart, as earlier theories proposed.
-it must therefore return to the heart and be
recycled.
Some of the experiments include:
-fish hearts having their veins tied. The hearts
emptied of blood, then refilled when the tie was removed.
-blood was shown flowing towards the heart in
veins of a human arm.
-calculations of blood volume and pulse rates
showed that huge volumes of blood were leaving
the heart

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23
Q

6.3 Describe the
first line of defense.

A

The skin and mucous membranes form a primary
defence against pathogens that cause infectious
disease.
Skin:
-protects external structures when intact (outer
body areas)
-dry, thick and tough region composed
predominantly of dead surface cells
-(skin/stomach) acid prevents growth of many
pathogens;
Sebaceous glands (on skin):
-associated with hair follicles
-secrete sebum and enzymes which inhibit
microbial growth on skin (by lowering pH level)
-secretes lactic acid and fatty acids to lower the
pH (skin pH is roughly ~ 5.6 - 6.4 depending on
body region); inhibits growth of bacteria and fungi
Mucous Membranes:
-protects internal structures (i.e. externally
accessible cavities and tubes - such as the
trachea, esophagus and urethra)
-can be found in nasal passages and other
airways, the head of the penis and foreskin and
the vagina.
-a thin region of living surface cells that release
fluids to wash away pathogens (mucus, saliva, tears, etc.)
-secretes a sticky solution of glycoproteins, which
traps pathogens and harmful particles and either
swallow or expels it
-lysozyme in mucus can kill bacteria;
-ciliated to aid in the removal of pathogens (along
with physical actions such as coughing / sneezing)
-inflammatory response/inflammation can cause
swelling/redness/fever (to inhibit the pathogen);

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24
Q

6.3 Explain the
cascade of events
that occur in blood
clotting.

A

Cuts in the skin are sealed by blood clotting;
clotting factors are released from platelets.
-prevent blood loss
-limit pathogenic access to the bloodstream when
the skin is broken
-clotting factors cause platelets to become sticky
and adhere to the damaged region to form a
solid plug
-localised vasoconstriction reduces blood flow
through the damaged region
The cascade results in the rapid conversion of
fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin.
-clotting factors trigger the conversion of the
inactive zymogen prothrombin into the activated
enzyme thrombin
-thrombin catalyses the conversion of the soluble
plasma protein fibrinogen into an insolube fibrous
form called fibrin
-fibrin strands form a mesh of fires around the
platelet plug and traps blood cells to form a
temporary clot

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25
Q

6.3 Application:
Explain the causes
and consequences
of blood clot
formation in
coronary arteries.

A

Consequences:
the occlusion of a coronary artery by a blood clot
may lead to an acute myocardial infarction (heart
attack)
Causes:
-blood clots form when the vessels are damaged
as a result of the deposition of cholesterol
-aheromas (fatty deposits) develop in the arteries
and significantly reduce the diameter of the lumen
–atherosclerosis
-restricted blood flow increases pressure in the
artery, leading to damage to the arterial wall
(from shear stress)
-damaged region is repaired with fibrous tissue
which significantly reduces the elasticity of the
vessel wall
-smooth lining of the artery is progressively
degraded, lesions form - atherosclerotic plaques
-plaque ruptures -> blood clotting -> forms
thrombus -> restricts blood flow
-thrombus is dislodged it becomes an embolus
and can cause a blockage in a smaller arteriole
-coronary occlusion
-damage to the capillary epithelium
-hardening of arteries
-rupture of atheroma

Factors that are correlated with an increased risk
of coronary thrombosis:
-smoking
-high blood cholesterol concentration
-high blood pressure
-diabetes
-obesity
-lack of exercise

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26
Q

6.3 Explain the
second line of
defence against
infectious disease

A

It is the innate immune system: non-specific in its
response.
-non-specific
-non-adaptive
-main component: phagocytic white blood cells
that engulf and digest foreign bodies
-other components: inflammation, fever and
antimicrobial chemicals
Ingestion of pathogens by phagocytic white
blood cells gives non-specific immunity to
disease
Phagocytes
-solid materials (such as pathogens) are ingested
by a cell (i.e. cell ‘eating’ via endocytosis)
-phagocytic leukocytes (WBC) circulate in the
blood and move into the body tissue freely in
response to infection
-damaged tissues release chemicals (e.g
histamine) which draw white blood cells to the site
of infection
-extensions surround the pathogen and then fuse
to form an internal vesicle
-vesicle is then fused to a lysosome and the
pathogen is digested
-antigens (fragments from pathogens) may be
presented on the surface of the phagocyte in order to stimulate the third line of defence

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27
Q

6.3 Explain how the
immune system can
be adaptive

A

Production of antibodies by lymphocytes in
response to particular pathogens gives specific
immunity
-differentiate between particular pathogens and
target a response that is specific to a given
pathogen
-respond rapidly upon re-exposure to a specific
pathogen, preventing symptoms from developing
(immunological memory)
Lymphocytes
-when phagocytic leukocytes engulf a pathogen,
some will present the digested fragments
(antigens) on their surface
-these antigen-presenting cells (dendritic cells)
migrate to the lymph nodes and activate specific
helper T lymphocytes
-helper T cells then release cytokines to activate
the particular B cell capable of producing
antibodies specific to the antigen
-activated B cell will divide and differentiate to
form short-lived plasma cells that produce high
amounts of specific antibody
-antibodies will target their specific antigen,
enhancing the capacity of the immune system to
recognise and destroy the pathogen
-a small proportion of activated B cell (and
activated TH cell) will develop into memory cells to provide long-lasting immunity

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28
Q

6.3 Describe what
cells antibiotics
target and explain
why

A

• Antibiotics block processes that occur in
prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells
-kill or inhibit the growth of microbes (specifically
bacteria) by targeting prokaryotic metabolism
including:
-key enzymes
-70S ribosomes
-components of the cell wall

-eukaryotic cells do not possess these features
-antibiotics will target the pathogenic bacteria
and not the infected host
-either kill the invading bacteria (bactericidal) or
suppress its potential to reproduce
(bacteriostatic)
• Viruses lack a metabolism and cannot therefore
be treated with antibiotics
-do not possess a metabolism and instead take
over the cellular machinery of infected host cells
-they cannot be treated with antibiotics and must
instead be treated with specific antiviral agents

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29
Q

6.3 Explain
antibiotics
resistance, its
causes, and
solutions.

A

• Some strains of bacteria have evolved with
genes that confer resistance to antibiotics and
some strains of bacteria have multiple resistance
-confer resistance by encoding traits that:
-degrade the antibiotic
-block its entry
-increase its removal
-alter the target
-resistant strains of bacteria can proliferate very
quickly following the initial mutation
-can be passed to susceptible strains via bacterial
conjugation (horizontal gene transfer)
The prevalance of resistant bacterial strains is
increasing rapidly with human populations due to
a number of factors:
-over-prescribed (particularly broad-spectrum
drugs) or misused (e.g. given to treat a viral
infection)
-many are freely available without a prescription
and certain antibiotics
-commonly included in livestock feed
-multi-drug resistant bacteria are especially
common in hospitals
-an example of an antibiotic resistant strain of
bacteria is Golden Staph (MRSA - Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
Solutions:
-doctors prescribing antibiotics only for serious
bacterial infections
-patients completing courses of antibiotics to
eliminate infections completely
-hospital staff maintaining high standards of
hygiene to prevent cross-infection
-farmers not using antibiotics in animal feeds to
stimulate growth
Pharmaceutical companies developing new types
of antibiotics - no new types have been
introduced since the 1980s

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30
Q

6.3 Application:
Describe Florey and
Chain’s experiments.

A

-Florey and Chain’s team developed a method of
growing the fungus Penicillium in liquid culture
-also developed methods for producing
reasonably pure samples of penicillin from the
cultures
-the penicillin killed bacteria on agar plates, but
they needed to test whether it would control
bacterial infections in humans.
Florey and Chain conducted experiments to test
penicillin on bacterial infections in mice.
-8 mice were injected with hemolytic streptococci
and four of these mice were subsequently
injected with doses of penicillin
-untreated mice died of bacterial infection
-those treated with penicillin all survived
demonstrating its antibiotic potential
-Florey and Chain decided that they should next
do tests on human patients, which required much
larger quantities.
-when enough penicillin had been produced, a
43-year-old policeman was chosen for the first
human test.
-he had an acute and life-threatening bacterial
infection causes by a scratch on the face from a
thorn on a rose bush.
-he was given penicillin for four das and his condition improved considerably, but supplies of
penicillin ran out and he suffered a relapse and
died from the infection.
-larger quantities of penicillin were produced and
five more patients with acute infections were
tested.
All were cured of their infections, but sadly one of
them died.

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31
Q

6.3 Application:
Explain the effects
of HIV on the
immune system and
methods of
transmission.

A

HIV infects helper T cells, disabling the body’s
adaptive immune system
-causes a variety of symptoms and infections
collectively classed AIDS
Effects of HIV:
-infection -> virus undergoes a period of inactivity
(clinical latency) during which infected helper T
cells reproduce
-the virus becomes active again and begins to
spread, destroying the T lymphocytes in the
process
-reduction in the number of helper T cells ->
antibodies are unable to be produced -> lowered
immunity
-body becomes susceptible to opportunistic
infections, eventually resulting in death if the
condition is not managed
Transmission of HIV:
-through the exchange of body fluids (including
unprotected sex, blood transfusions,
breastfeeding, etc.)
-HIV through sexual contact can be minimised by
using latex protection (i.e. condoms)
-HIV is a global issue, but is particularly prevalent
in poorer nations with poor education and health
systems

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32
Q

6.4 Explain the
purpose of
ventilation.

A

• Ventilation maintains concentration gradients of
oxygen and carbon dioxide between air in alveoli
and blood flowing in adjacent capillaries.
**because gas exchange is actually passive!
-02 consumed by cells during cellular respiration
-carbon dioxide produced as a waste product
-02 is constantly being removed from the alveoli
into the bloodstream (and CO2 is continually
being released)
-lungs function continually cycles fresh air into the
alveoli from the atmosphere
-02 levels must stay high in alveoli (and diffuse
into the blood) and CO2 levels stay low (and
diffuse from the blood)
-the lungs are also structured to have a very large
surface area, so as to increase the overall rate of
gas exchange

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33
Q

6.4 Identify and
explain the
structure and
function of cells
that line the alveoli
in relation to how it
aids in ventilation.

A

There are two types of alveolar cells - type I
pneumocytes and type Il pneumocytes
• Type I pneumocytes are extremely thin alveolar
cells that are adapted to carry out gas exchange.
Function:
-involved in the process of gas exchange
between the alveoli and the capillaries
Structure:
-flattened in shape to minimise diffusion distance
for respiratory gases
-connected by occluding junctions, which
prevents the leakage of tissue fluid into the
alveolar air space
-amitotic and unable to replicate
-type I pneumocytes are amitotic and unable to
replicate, however type II cells can differentiate
into type I cells if required
• Type I pneumocytes secrete a solution
containing surfactant that creates a moist surface
inside the alveoli to prevent the sides of the
alveolus adhering to each other by reducing
surface tension

Structure:
-cuboidal in shape and possess many granules (for storing surfactant components)
-provides an area from which carbon dioxide can
evaporate into the air and be exhaled.
Function:
-responsible for the secretion of pulmonary
surfactant
-create a moist surface -> easier for oxygen to
diffuse across the alveolar and capillary
membranes when dissolved in liquid -> reduces
surface tension
-type I pneumocytes secrete a liquid known as
pulmonary surfactant which reduces the surface
tension in alveoli
-surface tension is the elastic force created by a
fluid surface that minimises the surface area (via
cohesion of liquid molecules)
-as an alveoli expands with gas intake, the
surfactant becomes more spread out across the
moist alveolar lining
-this increases surface tension and slows the rate
of expansion, ensuring all alveoli inflate at roughly the same rate

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34
Q

6.4 Explain how air
travels in the
respiratory system

A

• Air is carried to the lungs in the trachea and
bronchi and then to the alveoli in bronchioles
-enters the respiratory system through the nose
or mouth and passes through the pharynx to the
trachea
-trachea -> divides into two bronchi (singular:
bronchus) -> connect to the lungs
-right lung is composed of three lobes, while the
left lung is only comprised of two (smaller due to
position of heart)
-bronchi divide into many smaller airways called
bronchioles, greatly increasing surface area
-bronchiole terminates with a cluster of air sacs
called alveoli, where gas exchange with the
bloodstream occurs
nostrils > nasal cavity > pharynx > larynx >
trachea >
bronchi (with cartilaginous rings) > bronchioles
(without cartilage) > alveoli.

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35
Q

6.4 Skill: Draw an
annotated diagram
showing the
structure of an
alveolus and an
adjacent capillary.

A

-have a very thin epithelial layer (one cell thick) to
minimise diffusion distances for respiratory gases
-surrounded by a rich capillary network to
increase the capacity for gas exchange with the
blood
-roughly spherical in shape, in order to maximise
the available surface area for gas exchange
-internal surface is covered with a layer of fluid,
as dissolved gases are better able to diffuse into
the bloodstream

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36
Q

6.4 Explain how
muscle contractions
play a role in
ventilation.

A

• Muscle contractions cause the pressure changes
inside the thorax that force air in and out of the
lungs to ventilate them.
-external intercostal contract -> rise in ribcage
-diaphragm contracts to make space in thorax
-pressure in the chest < atmospheric pressure, air
will move into the lungs (inspiration)
-internal intercostal contract -> lower in ribcage
-diaphragm relaxes
-abdominal muscles contract to force air out
-when the pressure in the chest > atmospheric
pressure, air will move out of the lungs
(expiration)
• Different muscles are required for inspiration
and expiration because muscles only do work
when they contract.
-muscles that increase the volume of the chest
cause inspiration (as chest pressure is less than
atmospheric pressure)
-muscles the decrease the volume of the chest
cause expiration (as chest pressure is greater than
atmospheric pressure)

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37
Q

6.4 Application:
Explain the causes
and consequences
(symptoms) of lung
cancer.

A

Lung cancer describes the uncontrolled
proliferation of lung cells, leading to the
abnormal growth of lung tissue (tumour)
-the tumours can remain in place (benign) or
spread to other regions of the body (malignant)
-lungs possess a very rich blood supply,
increasing the likelihood of the cancer spreading
(metastasis) to other body regions
Symptoms:
-difficulties with breathing
-persistent coughing
-include coughing up blood, wheezing,
respiratory distress and weight loss
-loss of appetite, weight loss
-general fatigue
-if the cancer mass compresses adjacent organs it
can cause:
-chest pain, difficulty swallowing and heart
complications
Causes:
-smoking: contains many mutagenic chemicals. As
every cigarette carries a risk, the incidence of
lung cancer increases with the number smoked
per day
-air pollution: sources of air pollution that are
most significant are diesel exhaust fumes, nitrogen oxides from all vehicle exhaust fumes and smoke
from fossil fuels
-radon gas causes (a radioactive gas that leaks
out of certain rocks such as granite). It
accumulates in badly ventilated buildings and
people then inhale it.
-certain infections
-genetic predispositions

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38
Q

6.4 Explain the
causes and
consequences of
emphysema

A

-degradation of the alveolar walls can cause
holes to develop and alveoli to merge into huge
air spaces (pulmonary bullae)
-damage to lung tissue leads to the recruitment of
phagocytes to the region, which produce an
enzyme called elastase
-this elastase, released as part of an inflammatory
response, breaks down the elastic fibres in the
alveolar wall
-loss of elasticity results in the abnormal
enlargement of the alveoli -> lower total surface
area for gas exchange
Cause:
-smoking: the chemical irritants in cigarette smoke
damage the alveolar walls
-a small proportion of emphysema cases are due
to a hereditary deficiency in this enzyme inhibitor
due to a gene mutation
Symptoms:
-shortness of breath
-expansion of the ribcage
-cyanosis and
-increased susceptibility to chest infections
-fatigue
-weezing
-chest tightness
-anxietv

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39
Q

6.4 Application:
Explain how
inspiration (inhaling)
and expiration
(exhaling) are
controlled by
muscle groups.

A

• External and internal intercostal muscles, and
diaphragm and abdominal muscles are examples
of antagonistic muscle action.
-antagonistic means working oppositely - when
the inspiratory muscles contract, the expiratory
muscles relax (and vice versa)
Inspiration
-the diaphragm and external intercostals (plus
some accessory muscles)
-diaphragm muscles contract -> diaphragm flatten
-›increase the volume of the thoracic cavity
-External intercostals contract -> pulling ribs
upwards and outwards (expanding chest)
Expiration
-abdominal muscles and internal intercostals (plus
some accessory muscles)
-diaphragm relax -> diaphragm curves upwards
reduce the volume of the thoracic cavity
-Internal intercostal muscles contract, pulling ribs
inwards and downwards (reducing breadth of
chest)
-abdominal muscles contract and push the
diaphragm upwards during forced exhalation

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40
Q

6.4 Skill: Explain the
monitoring of
ventilation in
humans at rest and
after mild and
vigorous exercise.
(Practical 6)

A

Ventilation can either be monitored by:
-simple observation (counting number of breaths
per minute)
-simple apparatus
-data logging with a spirometer (recording the
volume of gas expelled per breath)
- chest belt and pressure meter (recording the
rise and fall of the chest)
Ventilation rate and tidal volume can be
measured by spirometer:
-involves measuring the amount (volume) and / or
speed (flow) at which air can be inhaled or
exhaled
-a device that detects the changes in ventilation
and presents the data on a digital display
-simplistic method is breathing into a balloon and
measuring the volume of air in a single breath
-volume of air can be determined by submerging
the balloon in water and measuring the volume
displaced (Iml = 1cm3)

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41
Q

6.5 Explain the
function of neurons
and its structure.

A

• Neurons are specialised cells that function to
transmit electrical impulses within the nervous
system.
Neurons contain:
-dendrites: short-branched fibres that convert
chemical information from other neurons or
receptor cells into electrical signals
-axon: an elongated fibre that transmits electrical
signals to terminal regions for communication with
other neurons or effectors
-soma: a cell body containing the nucleus and
organelles, where essential metabolic processes
occur to maintain cell survival
-myelin sheath: improves the conduction speed of
electrical impulses along the axon, but require
additional space and energy
-nervous system converts sensory information
into electrical impulses in order to rapidly detect
and respond to stimuli

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42
Q

6.5 Explain the
function for the
myelination of
nerve fibres.

A

• The myelination of nerve fibres allows for
saltatory conduction.
-myelin functions as an insulating layer
-the main purpose of the myelin sheath is to
increase the speed of electrical transmissions via
saltatory conduction
-allows nerve impulse to jump across gaps in the
myelin sheath called the nodes of Ranvier and
jump from node to node

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43
Q

6.5 Explain how
neurons generate a
resting potential.

A

• Neurons pump sodium and potassium ions
across their membranes to generate a resting
potential.
-resting potential is the difference in charge
across the membrane when a neuron is not firing
-the inside of the neuron is more negative relative
to the outside in resting potential
The maintenance of a resting potential is
controlled by sodium-potassium pumps –active
process:
-expels 3 Na+ ions for every 2 K+ ions admitted
(additionally, some K+ ions will then leak back out
of the cell)
-as there are more positively charged ions outside
of the cell and more negatively charged ions
inside the cell - electrochemical gradient
-requires hydrolysis of ATP

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44
Q

6.5 Describe an
action potential.

A

-action potentials are the rapid changes in charge
across the membrane that occur when a neuron is
firing
• An action potential consists of depolarization
and repolarization of the neuron (in between has
a refractory period)
Depolarisation
-a sudden change in membrane potential - usually
from a (relatively) negative to positive internal
charge
-in response to a signal initiated at a dendrite,
sodium channels open within the membrane of the
axon
-as Na+ ions are more concentrated outside of the
neuron, the opening of sodium channels causes a
passive influx of sodium
-the influx of sodium causes the membrane
potential to become more positive
(depolarisation)
Repolarisation
-the restoration of a membrane potential
following depolarisation (i.e. restoring a negative
internal charge)
-influx of sodium, potassium channels open within
the membrane of the axon
-K+ ions are more concentrated inside the neuron, opening potassium channels causes a passive
efflux of potassium
-efflux of potassium causes the membrane
potential to return to a more negative internal
differential (repolarisation)
Refractory Period
-the period of time following a nerve impulse
before the neuron is able to fire again
-normal resting state: sodium ions are
predominantly outside the neuron and potassium
ions mainly inside (resting potential)
-ionic distribution is largely reversed (in de and
repolarization) so the resting potential must be
restored via the antiport action of the sodium-
potassium pump

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45
Q

6.5 Describe what
nerve impulses are.

A

• Nerve impulses are action potentials propagated
along the axons of neurons.
-nerve impulses are action potentials that move
along the length of an axon as a wave of
depolarisation
-depolarisation occurs when ion channels open
and cause a change in membrane potential
-ion channels that occupy the length of the axon
are voltage-gated (open in response to changes
in membrane potential)
-depolarisation at one point of the axon triggers
the opening of ion channels in the next segment
of the axon
-causes depolarisation to spread along the length
of the axon as a unidirectional ‘wave’
• Propagation of nerve impulses is the result of
local currents that cause each successive part of
the axon to reach the threshold potential.
-an action potential of the same magnitude will
always occur provided a minimum electrical
stimulus is generated
- threshold potential is the level required to open
voltage-gated ion channels
-if the threshold potential is not reached, an
action potential cannot be generated and hence the neuron will not fire
• A nerve impulse is only initiated if the threshold
potential is reached.
-threshold potentials are triggered when the
combined stimulation from the dendrites exceeds
a minimum level of depolarisation
-if the overall depolarisation from the dendrites is
sufficient to activate voltage-gated ion channels
in one section of the axon, the resulting
displacement of ions should be sufficient to
trigger the activation of voltage-gated ion
channels in the next axon section

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46
Q

6.5 Define synapses

A

• Synapses are junctions between neurons and
between neurons and receptor or effector cells.
-neurons transmit information across synapses by
converting the electrical signal into a chemical
signal

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47
Q

6.5 Outline the
release of chemical
signals in synaptic
cleft.

A

• When presynaptic neurons are depolarized they
release a neurotransmitter into the synapse
À
-neurotransmitters are released in response to the
depolarisation of the axon terminal of a
presynaptic neuron
-bind to receptors on post-synaptic cells and can
either trigger (excitatory) or prevent (inhibitory) a
response

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48
Q

6.5 Application:
Explain the
secretion and
reabsorption of
acetylcholine by
neurons at synapses

A

Acetylcholine: neurotransmitter
-released at neuromuscular junctions and binds to
receptors on muscle fibres to trigger muscle
contraction
-released within the autonomic nervous system to
promote parasympathetic responses (‘rest and
digest’)
-created in the axon terminal by combining
choline with an acetyl group (at cholinergic
synapses)
-stored in vesicles within the axon terminal until
released via exocytosis in response to a nerve
impulse
-activates a post-synaptic cell by binding to one
of two classes of specific receptor (nicotinic or
muscarinic)
-must be continually removed from the synapse,
as overstimulation can lead to fatal convulsions
and paralysis
-acetylcholine -> two component parts by the
synaptic enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
-either released into the synapse from the
presynaptic neuron or embedded on the
membrane of the post-synaptic cell
-liberated choline is returned to the presynaptic neuron where it is coupled with another acetate
to reform acetylcholine

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49
Q

6.5 Application:
Explain the blocking
of synaptic
transmission at
cholinergic
synapses in insects
and its
disadvantages.

A

-blocking of acetylcholine by the binding of
neonicotinoid pesticides to acetylcholine
receptors
-neonicotinoid pesticides cannot be broken down
by acetylcholinesterase -> permanent
overstimulation of target cells
-overstimulation results in fatal convulsions and
paralysis
-insects have a different composition of
acetylcholine receptors which bind to
neonicotinoids much more strongly
-more toxic to insects than mammals -> highly
effective pesticide
Disadvantages:
-linked to a reduction in honey bee populations
(bees are important pollinators within ecosystems)
-linked to a reduction in bird populations (due to
the loss of insects as a food source)

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50
Q

6.5 Skill: Analysis of
oscilloscope traces
showing resting
potentials and
action potentials.

A

-oscilloscopes are scientific instruments that are
used to measure the membrane potential across a
neuronal membrane
X axis: time (ms)
Y axis: membrane potential (mV)
A typical action potential will last for roughly 3 - 5
milliseconds and contain 4 key stages:
Resting potential: Before the action potential
occurs, the neuron should be in a state of rest
(approx. -70 mV)
Depolarisation: A rising spike corresponds to the
depolarisation of the membrane via sodium influx
(up to roughly +30 mV)
Repolarisation: A falling spike corresponds to
repolarisation via potassium efflux (undershoots
to approx. -80 mV)
Refractory period: The oscilloscope trace returns
to the level of the resting potential (due to the
action of the Na+/K+ pump)
**an action potential will only occur if the initial
depolarisation exceeds a threshold potential of
approximately -55 mV

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51
Q

6.6. Explain how
blood glucose
concentration is
controlled

A

• Insulin and glucagon are released by and a
cells of the pancreas to control blood glucose
concentration.
When blood glucose levels are high (e.g. after
feeding:
-insulin is released from beta (B) cells of the
pancreas and cause a decrease in blood glucose
concentration
May involve the following:
-(high blood glucose levels) detected by
pancreas islet cells/beta cells;
-stimulating glycogen synthesis in the liver
(glycogenesis) (glucose -> glycogen)
-promoting glucose uptake by the liver and
adipose tissue
-increasing the rate of glucose breakdown (by
increasing cell respiration rates)
-glucose converted to fatty acids/triglycerides/
fat;
-stimulates cells to absorb glucose;
**negative feedback process;
When blood glucose levels are low (e.g. after
exercise):
-glucagon is released from alpha (a) cells of the
pancreas and cause an increase in blood glucose concentration
May involve the following:
-stimulating glycogen breakdown in the liver
(glycogenolysis)
-conversion of polysaccharides/glycogen (in the
liver) to glucose
-promoting glucose release by the liver and
adipose tissue
-decreasing the rate of glucose breakdown (by
reducing cell respiration rates)

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52
Q

6.6 Application:
Explain the causes
and treatment of
Type I and Type Il
diabetes.

A

Type 1 diabetes: unable to produce insulin
Type 2 diabetes: failing to respond to insulin
production
Type l:
-occurs during early childhood
-caused by the destruction of beta cells
-insulin injections
Type 2:
-usually occurs during adulthood
-caused by the down regulation of insulin
receptors
-controlled by managing diet and lifestyle

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53
Q

6.6. Explain how
metabolic rate and
body temperature is
controlled and
regulated.

A

• Thyroxin is secreted by the thyroid gland to
regulate the metabolic rate and help control
body temperature
-primary role of thyroxin is to increase the basal
metabolic rate (amount of energy the body uses
at rest)
-achieved by stimulating carbohydrate and lipid
metabolism via the oxidation of glucose and fatty
acids
-increasing metabolic activity -> production of
heat
-hence thyroxin helps to control body
temperature
-thyroxin is released in response to a decrease in
body temperature in order to stimulate heat
production
-partially composed of iodine; a deficiency of
iodine in the diet -> decreased production of
thyroxin
-cold temp. -> hypothalamus -> thyroxin release ->
increased metabolic rate -> generate heat ->
increase in body temp.

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54
Q

6.6 Explain how the
inhibition of
appetite is
controlled by
hormones.

A

• Leptin is secreted by cells in adipose tissue and
act on the hypothalamus of the brain to inhibit
appetite
-the concentration of leptin in the blood is
controlled by food intake and the amount of
adipose tissue in the body.
-regulates fat stores within the body by
suppressing appetite
-leptin binds to receptors located within the
hypothalamus -> inhibit appetite
-overeating -> more adipose cells to formed ->
more leptin is produced -> suppressing further
appetite
-starvation -> reduction in adipose tissue -> less
leptin is released -> hunger
-obese people are constantly producing higher
levels of leptin -> body becomes progressively
desensitised to the hormone
-they are more likely to feel hungry, less likely to
recognise when they are full and are hence more
likely to overeat
-leptin resistance also develops with age,
increasing the potential for weight gain later in life
(e.g. the ‘middle-age spread’)

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55
Q

6.6 Applications:
Explain the testing
of leptin on patients
with clinical obesity
and reasons for the
failure to control
the disease.

A

-leptin was considered as a form of treatment for
individuals with clinical obesity
-leptin injections -> reduce hunger -> limit food
intake -> weight loss
Experiment shows that:
-most cases of obesity are caused by an
unresponsiveness to leptin and not a leptin
deficiency
-hence, very few participants experienced
significant weight loss in response to leptin
injections
-many patients did experience adverse side
effects from leptin injections, including skin
irritations
-leptin treatments are not considered to be an
effective way of controlling obesity

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56
Q

6.6 Explain how
circadian rhythms
are controlled by
hormones.

A

• Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland to
control circadian rhythms
-secretion controlled by cells in the hypothalamus
called the suprachiasmatic nuceli (SCN)
-retina detects light -> sends signals to SCN->
sends signals to the pineal gland
-controls circadian rhythms/biological clocks «in
mammals»
-production is controlled by amount of light
detected by the retina
-produced by the pineal gland of the brain in
response to changes in light
-light exposure -> hypothalamus -> inhibits
melatonin secretion
-melatonin is secreted in response to periods of
darkness, resulting in higher concentrations at
night
-circadian rhythms are driven by an internal
circadian clock
-can also be modulated by external factors
-melatonin is responsible for synchronising
circadian rhythms and regulates the body’s sleep
schedule
**production/secretion is directly proportional to night time duration
-melatonin secretion is suppressed by bright light
(principally blue wavelengths)
-hence levels increase during the night
-melatonin secretion becomes entrained to
anticipate the onset of darkness and the approach
of day
-melatonin functions to promote activity in
nocturnal animals and conversely promotes sleep
in diurnal animals (like humans)
-affects «seasonal» reproduction/sleep-wake
cycles/jet lag
-melatonin levels naturally decrease with age,
leading to changes in sleeping patterns in the
elderly

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57
Q

6.6 Applications:
Explain the causes
of jet lag and
methods of
alleviation.

A

-alteration of circadian rhythm caused by the
body’s inability to rapidly adjust to a new time
zone following extended air travel (jet’ lag)
-pineal gland continues to secrete melatonin
according to the old time zone -> sleep schedule
is not synchronised to the new timezone
-symptoms of jet lag include fatigue, headaches,
lethargy, increased irritability and reduced
cognitive function
-jet lag should resolve as the body resynchronises
its circadian rhythm
-taking melatonin near the sleep time of the new
time zone can help recalibrate the body
-artificially increasing melatonin levels at the new
night time -> body can respond quicker to the
new day-night schedule

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58
Q

6.6 Explain the
development of
male characteristics.

A

• A gene on the Y chromosome causes embryonic
gonads to develop as testes and secrete testosterone
XX = female
XY = male
Y chromosomes is shorter than X chromosome
-Y chromosome includes a gene called the SRY
gene (Sex Determining Region Y) -> male
development
-SRY codes for a DNA-binding protein called TDF
(testis determining factor)
-TDF stimulates the expression of other genes that
cause testis development.
-SRY gene -> testis-determining factor (TDF) ->
embryonic gonads form into testes (male gonads)
-the testes produce testosterone to promote the
further development of male sex characteristics
-no TDF protein (i.e. no Y chromosome) -> ovaries
-produce estrogen and progesterone to promote
the development of female sex characteristics

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59
Q

6.6 Outline role of
testosterone in
prenatal
development of
male genitalia.

A

• Testosterone causes pre-natal development of
male genitalia and both sperm production and
development of male secondary sexual
characteristics during puberty.
-testes develop testosterone-secreting cells at an
early stage and these produce testosterone until
about the 15th week of pregnancy.
-during the weeks of secretion, testosterone
causes male genitalia to develop.
-testosterone = male reproductive hormone
-secreted by the testes
Functions:
-pre-natal development of male genitalia
-involved in sperm production following the onset
of puberty
-aids in the development of secondary sex
characteristics (including body hair, muscle mass,
deepening of voice, etc.)
-helps to maintain the male sex drive

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60
Q

6.6 Explain the
development of
female sexual
characteristics.

A

• Estrogen and progesterone cause pre-natal
development of female reproductive organs and
female secondary sexual characteristics during
puberty.
-main female reproductive hormones (secreted
by the ovaries) are estrogen and progesterone
Functions:
-promote the pre-natal development of the
female reproductive organs
-responsible for the development of secondary
sex characteristics (including body hair and breast
development)
-involved in monthly preparation of egg release
following puberty (via the menstrual cycle)
-initially, estrogen and progesterone are secreted
by the mother’s ovaries and then the placenta

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61
Q

6.6 Explain how the
menstrual cycle is
controlled

A

The menstrual cycle is controlled by a complex interplay of hormones and feedback mechanisms between the brain, ovaries, and uterus. The two main hormones involved in controlling the menstrual cycle are follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), which are produced by the pituitary gland in the brain.

The menstrual cycle begins with the release of FSH, which stimulates the growth and development of follicles in the ovaries. As the follicles mature, they produce estrogen, which causes the lining of the uterus to thicken in preparation for a possible pregnancy.

When estrogen levels reach a certain threshold, the pituitary gland responds by releasing a surge of LH, which triggers ovulation – the release of an egg from the ovary. The egg then travels through the fallopian tube towards the uterus.

After ovulation, the remaining follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone to prepare the uterus for a possible pregnancy. If the egg is fertilized by a sperm and implants in the uterus, the developing embryo produces human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which maintains the corpus luteum and keeps progesterone levels high.

If the egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum eventually disintegrates, causing progesterone levels to drop and triggering the shedding of the uterine lining – menstruation. The cycle then begins again with the release of FSH.

Overall, the menstrual cycle is a complex and finely tuned process that is controlled by a delicate balance of hormones and feedback mechanisms. Any disruptions or imbalances in this system can lead to menstrual irregularities or fertility problems.

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62
Q

6.6 Application:
Explain the process
of IVF including
down-regulation,
superovulation.
harvesting,
fertilization and
implantation.

A

IF drugs to suspend the normal secretion of
hormones, followed by the use of artificial doses
of hormones to induce superovulation and
establish a pregnancy.
Down regulation
-drugs are used to halt the regular secretion of
FSH and LH -> stops the secretion of estrogen
and progesterone
-doctors can take control of the timing and
quantity of egg production by the ovaries
-typically delivered in the form of a nasal spray
Superovulation
-involves using artificial doses of hormones to
develop and collect multiple eggs from the
woman
-patient is firstly injected with large amounts of
FSH to stimulate the development of many
follicles
-follicles are then treated with hCG; a hormone
usually produced by a developing embryo
-CG stimulates the follicles to mature and the
egg is then collected (via aspiration with a
needle) prior to the follicles rupturing
Fertilisation
-extracted eggs are then incubated in the presence of a sperm sample from the male donor
-eggs are then analysed under a microscope for
successful fertilisation
Implantation
-two weeks prior to implantation, the woman
begins to take progesterone treatments to
develop the endometrium
-healthy embryos are selected and transferred
into the female uterus (or the uterus of a
surrogate)
-multiple embryos are transferred to improve
chances of successful implantation (hence
multiple births are a possible outcome)
-roughly two weeks after the procedure, a
pregnancy test is taken to determine if the
process has been successful

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63
Q

6.6 Applications:
Explain William
Harvey’s
investigation of
sexual reproduction
in deer

A

Original soil and seed theory:
-male produces a ‘seed’ which forms an ‘egg’
when mixed with menstrual blood (the ‘soil’)
William Harvey tested Aristotle’s theory using a
natural experiment with deers:
-unable to detect a growing embryo until
approximately 6 - 7 weeks after mating had
occurred
-so concluded that Aristotle’s theory was
incorrect and that menstrual blood did not
contribute to the development of a fetus
-unable to identify the correct mechanism of
sexual reproduction and incorrectly asserted that
the fetus did not develop from a mixture of male
and female ‘seeds’
-Harvey failed to solve the mystery of sexual
reproduction because effective microscopes
were not available when he was working
-so fusion of gametes and subsequent embryo
development remained undiscovered at his time

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64
Q

6.6 Skill: Annotate
diagrams of the
male reproductive
system to show
names of structures
and their functions.

A

Testis:
responsible for the production of sperm and
testosterone (male sex hormone)
Epididymis:
site where sperm matures and develops the ability
to be motile (i.e. “swim”) - mature sperm is stored
here until ejaculation
Sperm Duct:
long tube which conducts sperm from the testes
to the prostate gland (which connects to the
urethra) during ejaculation
Seminal Vesicle:
secretes fluid containing fructose (to nourish
sperm), mucus (to protect sperm) and
prostaglandin (triggers uterine contractions)
Prostate Gland:
secretes an alkaline fluid to neutralise vaginal
acids (necessary to maintain sperm viability)
Urethra:
conducts sperm / semen from the prostate gland
to the outside of the body via the penis (also used
to convey urine)

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65
Q

6.6 Skill: Annotate
diagrams of the
female
reproductive
system to show
names of structures
and their functions.

A

Ovary:
where oocytes mature prior to release (ovulation)
- it also responsible for estrogen and
progesterone secretion
Fimbria:
a fringe of tissue adjacent to an ovary that sweep
an oocyte into the oviduct
Oviduct:
transports the oocyte to the uterus - it is also
typically where fertilisation occurs
Uterus:
the organ where a fertilised egg will implant and
develop (becoming an embryo)
Endometrium:
the mucous membrane lining of the uterus, it
thickens in preparation for implantation or is
otherwise lost (via menstruation)
Vagina:
passage leading to the uterus by which the penis
can enter (uterus protected by a muscular
opening called the cervix)

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66
Q

6.2 Blood is a liquid
tissue containing
glucose, urea,
plasma proteins and
other components.
List the other
components of
blood.

A

plasma/water;
dissolved gases / CO2 / 02;
erythrocytes / red blood cells;
leucocytes / white blood cells;
lymphocytes and phagocytes;
platelets;
hormones / named hormone(s);
amino acids / albumin / antibodies;
salts / minerals / ions other named solute in
plasma apart from glucose, urea and plasma
proteins;

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67
Q

6.2 Explain the roles
of the atria and
ventricles in the
pumping of blood.

A

-atria collect blood from veins (vena cava/
pulmonary);collect blood while ventricles are
contracting;
-atria pump blood into ventricles/ensure
ventricles are full:
-ventricles pump blood into arteries/out of the
heart;
-ventricles pump blood at high pressure because
of their thicker, muscular walls;
-mention of heart valves working with atria and
ventricles to keep blood moving;
-left ventricle pumps blood to systems and right
ventricle pumps blood to lungs;
Both left and right ventricles with correct function
required for mark to be awarded.

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68
Q

6.2 State molecules
transported by the
blood.

A

a. example of a nutrient e.g. glucose;
b. oxygen/02;
c. carbon dioxide/CO2;
d. nitrogen/N2;
e. hormones;
f. antibodies;
g. urea:

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69
Q

6.1 List the name,
substrate and
product of four
PANCREATIC
enzymes that
hydrolyze food in
the small intestine.

A

Amylase - Carbs
-begins in the mouth with the release of amylase
from the salivary glands (amylase = starch
digestion)
-secreted by the PANCREAS in order to continue
carbohydrate digestion within the small intestine
-enzymes for disaccharide hydrolysis are often
immobilised on the epithelial lining of the small
intestine, near channel proteins
-substrate: starch - amylose and amylopectin
-amylose -> amylase -> maltose
-amylopectin -> amylase -> dextrins
Protease - Protein
-begins in the stomach with the release of
proteases that function optimally in an acidic pH
**in the stomach, pepsin is the main digestive
enzyme attacking proteins.
-secreted by the PANCREAS
-proteins/polypeptides -> short peptides
-endopeptidases work optimally in neutral
environments (pH ~ 7) as the pancreas neutralises
the acids in the intestine
Lipase - Lipids
-breakdown occurs in the intestines, beginning
with emulsification of fat globules by bile
released from the gall bladder
-smaller fat droplets are then digested by lipases released from the PANCREAS
-triglycerides -> glycerol/fatty acids +
monoglycerides
Phospholipase-Phospholipids
-phospholipids -> fatty acids, glycerol and
phosphate

70
Q

6.1 List the name.
substrate and
product of six
enzymes produced
by GLAND CELLS in
the small intestine
wall

A

Nucleases:
-digests DNA and RNA into nucleotides.
Maltase:
-digests maltose into glucose.
Lactase:
-digests lactose into glucose and galactose.
Sucrase:
-digests sucrose into glucose and fructose.
Exopeptidases (a type of protease):
-digest peptides
-removes single amino acids either from the
carboxyl or amino terminal of the chain until only
a dipeptide is left.
Dipeptidases:
-digest dipeptides into amino acids

71
Q

6.1 State why
enzymes produced
by gland cells in the
small intestine wall
often remain
immobilized in the
cell membrane

A

So it can be reused or be linked to secondary
functions like membrane transport.

72
Q

6.1 List three
adaptations that
increase the surface
area for absorption
on the small
intestine.

A

-villi look into the lumen
-microvilli are on top of villis
-small intestine wall has many folds.

73
Q

6.1 Outline the role
of peristalsis in the
digestive process.

A

-peristalsis is the involuntary, wave-like
contraction of muscle layers of the small intestine
-contraction of circular muscles behind the food
constricts the guy to prevent it from being pushed
back towards the mouth
-contraction of longitudinal muscle where the
food is located moves it on along the gut.
-swallowed food moves quickly down the
esophagus to the stomach in one continuous
peristaltic wave.
-peristalsis only occurs in one direction away from
the mouth.
**main function of peristalsis in the intestine is
churning of the semi-digested food to mix it with
enzymes and thus speed up the process of
digestion.

74
Q

6.1 State the
function of the
following villi
structures: capillary,
epithelial cell,
lacteal, and goblet
cell.

A

capillary:
-maintain a concentration gradient for absorption
by rapidly transporting absorbed products away.
epithelial cell:
-secretio
-selective absorption
-trans cellular transport
-tight junctions in between the epithelial cells =
maximum movement can occur because nothing
can slip out
-brush border (where the microvilli) can increase
the surface area
lacteal:
-absorb lipids from the intestine into the lymphatic
system (which are later reabsorbed back into
normal circulation)
goblet cell:
-secrete mucus to protect the mucous
membranes where they are found

75
Q

6.1 Define
absorption.

A

Taking in substances through cell membranes or
layers of cells in particular from the lumen of the
gut into the blood or lymph capillaries

76
Q

6.1 List materials
absorbed by the
villi cells of the
small intestine

A

carbohydrates) glucose, fructose, galactose and
other monosaccharides
-(proteins) any of the twenty amino acids used to
make proteins
-(lipids) fatty acids, monoglycerides and glycerol
-bases from digestion of nucleotides
-mineral ions such as calcium, potassium and
sodium (no digestion required)
-vitamins such as ascorbic acid (vitamin C) (no
digestion required)

77
Q

6.1 Explain the
absorption of
triglycerides.

A

Products of lipase digestion: fatty acids and
monoglycerides
-can be absorbed into villus epithelium cells by
simple diffusion as they are hydrophobic
-also absorbed by facilitated diffusion as there
are fatty acid transporters (proteins in the
membrane of the microvilli)
-once inside the epithelium cells, fatty acids are
combined with monoglycerides to produce
triglycerides ( cannot diffuse back out in the
lumen)
-triglycerides coalesce with cholesterol to form
droplets with a diameter of about 0.2 (um), which
become coated in phospholipids and protein
-these lipoprotein particles are released by
exocytosis through the plasma membrane on the
inner side of the villus epithelium cells
-can either enter the lacteal and are carried away
in the lymph or enter the blood capillaries in the
villi.

78
Q

6.1 Explain the
absorption of
glucose

A

-glucose cannot pass through the plasma
membrane by simple diffusion because it is
hydrophilic.
-sodium-glucose co-transporter proteins in the
microvilli transfer a sodium ion and a glucose
molecule together from the intestinal lumen to
the cytoplasm of the epithelium cells.
This type of facilitated diffusion is passive but it
depends on the concentration gradient of sodium
ions created by active transport.
-glucose channels allow the glucose to move by
facilitated diffusion from the cytoplasm to the
interstitial spaces (in between) inside the villus and
on into blood capillaries in the villus.

79
Q

6.1 Application:
Processes occurring
in the small intestine
that result in the
digestion of starch
and transport of the
products of
digestion to the
liver.
Outline the source,
function and
specificity of
amylase.
Outline the
digestion of
maltose, maltotriose
and dextrins into
glucose

A

Source:
-saliva
-pancreas (secretes into small intestine)
Function:
-digestion of both forms of starch
-any 1,4 bonds in starch molecules can be broken
by this enzyme as long as there is a chain of at
least four glucose monomers.
-amylose -> amylase -> maltose
-amylopectin -> amylase -> dextrins
Specificity:
-because of the specificity of its active site,
amylase cannot break 1,6 bonds in amylopectin
-fragments of the amyl-pectin molecule
containing a 1,6 bond that amylase cannot ingest
are called dextrins.
-dextrins -> dextrinase -> glucose
-maltose -> maltase -> glucose
**maltase are fixed to the epithelial lining of the
small intestine
-maltotriose -> glucosidase -> glucose

80
Q

61 State the role of
the digestive
system.

A

Break down the diverse mixture of large carbon
compounds in food, to yield ions and smaller
compounds that can be absorbed.

81
Q

6.1 NoS Explain the
use of models in
physiology
research.

A

A model can be used to represent a part of a
living system and to investigate specific aspects of
a process.

82
Q

6.1 NoS State two
examples of model
systems used to
study digestion.

A

Dynamic Gastric Model
Dialysis tubing made from cellulose

83
Q

6.1 NoS State
limitations of using
model systems in
physiology
research.

A

Only model specific aspects of a process, not the
whole process.
Oversimplified portrayal of the process

84
Q

6.2 Describe the
structure and
function of the
three layers of
artery wall tissue.

A

Tunica externa:
a tough outer layer of connective tissue
Tunica media:
a thick layer containing smooth muscle and elastic
fibres made of the protein elastin
Tunica intima:
a smooth endothelium forming the lining of the
artery

85
Q

6.2 Describe the
mechanism used to
maintain blood flow
in arteries between
heartbeats.

A

At the end of each heartbeat, the pressure in the
arteries falls sufficiently for the stretched elastic
fibres to squeeze the blood in the lumen.

86
Q

6.2 Define systolic
and diastolic blood
pressure.

A

Systolic: the peak pressure reached in an artery is
called the systolic pressure.
Diastolic: the minimum pressure inside the artery.

87
Q

6.2 Describe the
cause and effect of
diffusion of blood
plasma into and out
of a capillary
network.

A

Cause:
-the capillary wall consists of one layer of very
thin endothelium cells
-coated by a filter-like protein gel
-contains pores between the cells
Effect:
-wall is thus very permeable and allows part of
the plasma to leak out and form tissue fluid.
-the fluid flows between the cells in a tissue
-allowing the cells to absorb useful substances
and excrete waste products

88
Q

6.2 Outline the roles
of gravity and
skeletal muscle
pressure in
maintaining flow of
blood through a
vein.

A

-blood flow in veins is assisted by gravity and by
pressures exerted on them by other tissues
especially skeletal muscles.
-veins typically pass between skeletal muscle
groups, which facilitate venous blood flow via
periodic contractions
-when the skeletal muscles contract, they squeeze
the vein and cause the blood to flow from the site
of compression
-contraction makes a muscle shorter and wider so
it squeezes on adjacent veins like a pump.
-veins typically run parallel to arteries, and a
similar effect can be caused by the rhythmic
arterial bulge created by a pulse

89
Q

6.2 Compare the
circulation of blood
in fish to that of
mammals, and
explain why the
mammalian heart
must function as a
double pump.

A

Fish have a single circulation.
-blood is pumped at high pressure to their gills to
be oxygenated
-after flowing through the gills the blood still has
enough pressure to flow directly, but relatively
slowly, to other organs of the body and then back
to the heart.
In contrast, the lungs used by mammals for gas
exchange are supplied with blood by a separate
circulation.
*it is essential that blood flowing to and from the
two circulations is not mixed.
-the heart is therefore a double pump, delivering
blood under different pressures separately to the
two circulations.

90
Q

6.2 Define
myogenic
contraction.

A

Refers to the generation and transmission of electrical signals within a muscle or organ, such as the heart, that is initiated by the muscle or organ itself rather than by external input or stimulation. In the case of the heart, myogenic transmission refers to the generation of electrical signals by the pacemaker cells in the sinoatrial (SA) node that initiate the contraction of the heart muscle cells.

91
Q

6.2 Outline the role
of cells in the
sinoatrial node.

A

The region of the heart with the fastest rate of
spontaneous beating is a small group of special
muscle cells in the wall of the right atrium, called
the sinoatrial node.
-these cells have few of the proteins that cause
contraction in other muscle cells
-but they have extensive membranes
-(therefore) the sinoatrial node initiates each
heartbeat, because the membranes of its cells are
the first to depolarise each cardiac cycle.

92
Q

6.2 Identify the time
of opening and
closing of heart
valves on a graph
of pressure changes
during the cardiac
cycle

A

During the cardiac cycle, there are four main heart valves that open and close to regulate blood flow. The timing of the opening and closing of these valves can be identified on a graph of pressure changes during the cardiac cycle.

Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It opens during the early part of diastole when the left atrial pressure exceeds the left ventricular pressure. It then closes at the onset of ventricular systole when the left ventricular pressure exceeds the left atrial pressure.
Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta. It opens during ventricular systole when the left ventricular pressure exceeds the aortic pressure. It then closes at the onset of ventricular diastole when the aortic pressure exceeds the left ventricular pressure.
Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. It opens during the early part of diastole when the right atrial pressure exceeds the right ventricular pressure. It then closes at the onset of ventricular systole when the right ventricular pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure.
Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. It opens during ventricular systole when the right ventricular pressure exceeds the pulmonary artery pressure. It then closes at the onset of ventricular diastole when the pulmonary artery pressure exceeds the right ventricular pressure.
On a graph of pressure changes during the cardiac cycle, the opening and closing of heart valves can be identified by changes in pressure. The mitral and tricuspid valves open during diastole when the atrial pressure exceeds the ventricular pressure, and close during systole when the ventricular pressure exceeds the atrial pressure. The aortic and pulmonary valves open during systole when the ventricular pressure exceeds the arterial pressure, and close during diastole when the arterial pressure exceeds the ventricular pressure.

93
Q

6.3 Define
pathogen.

A

Organism (or virus) that causes a disease

94
Q

6.3 Define the term
passive immunity.

A

6.3 Define the term
passive immunity.

95
Q

6.3 Outline two
roles of platelets in
the blood clotting
cascade.

A

When a cut or other injury involving damage to
blood vessels occurs:
1) plateletes aggregate at the site forming a
temporary plug
2) release the clotting factors that trigger off the
clotting process.

96
Q

6.3 Define “specific
immune response.”

A

The production of antibodies in response to a
particular pathogen.

97
Q

6.3 Contrast antigen
and antibody.

A

An antigen is a substance or molecule, often
found on a cell or virus surface, that causes
antibody formation.
An antibody is a globular protein which
recognises a specific antigen and binds to it as
part of an immune response.

98
Q

6.3 Describe the
structure and
function of
antibodies.

A

Antibodies are large proteins that have two
functional regions:
-a variable region that binds to a specific antigen
-a constant region that helps the body to fight the
pathogen in one of a number of ways (makes a
pathogen more recognizable to phagocytes,
preventing viruses from docking to host cells so
that they cannot enter the cells.)

99
Q

6.3 Define
antibiotic.

A

A chemical that inhibits the growth of
microorganisms.

100
Q

6.3 Outline why
antibiotics are
effective against
bacteria but not
against viruses.

A

a. antibiotics block/inhibit specific metabolic
pathways/cell functions found in bacteria;
Accept specific examples of inhibition such as cell
protein synthesis, cell wall formation
b. viruses must use host/eukaryotic cell
metabolism / viruses do not have their own
metabolic pathways;
C. host/eukaryotic cell metabolism/pathways not
blocked/inhibited by antibiotics;

101
Q

6.3 Explain why
multiple drug
antibiotic resistance
is especially
dangerous.

A

-some strains of bacteria have evolved with genes
that confer resistance to antibiotics
-some strains of bacteria have multiple resistance
-since bacteria divide rapidly this strain of
bacteria that has mutliple resistance will quickly
grow in number.
A bacteria such as this would be hard to treat
since multiple antibiotics would be ineffective.

102
Q

6.3 State an
example of a
multidrug resistant
bacteria.

A

Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) which has infected
the blood or surgical wounds of hospital patients
and resists all commonly used antibiotics.

103
Q

6.3 Define coronary
thrombosis.

A

The formation of blood clots in the coronary
arties

104
Q

6.3 State the
function of the
coronary arteries.

A

To supply the heart muscle (cardiac muscle fibres)
with oxygen and nutrients

105
Q

6.3 Outline the
relationship
between HIV and
AIDS.

A

A collection of several diseases or conditions
existing together is called a syndrome. When the
syndrome of conditions due to HIV is present, the
person is said to have acquired immune deficiency
syndrome (AIDS)

106
Q

6.3 Compare
allowable research
risks of the past with
those of the
present

A

Present:
-initial tests are performed on animals and then on
small numbers of healthy humans.
-only if a drug passes these tests is it tested on
patients with the disease that the drug is intended
to treat
-the last tests involve very large numbers of
patients to test whether the drug is effect in all
patients and to check that there are no severe or
common side effects
Past:
-a drug could be tested on human patients after
only a very brief period of animal testing
-pure samples of a drug were not required and
there may have been side effects because of
these impurities

107
Q

6.4 Describe the
effects of training
on the pulmonary
system.

A

a. ventilation rate at rest is reduced;
b. maximum ventilation rate (during exercise)
increases:
c. diaphragm and intercostal muscle strength
increase;
d. vital capacity may increase/ VO2 max may
increase:
Do not accept answers relating to cardiac output.

108
Q

6.4 State the role of
cartilage in the
trachea and
bronchi.

A

Cartilage is strong but flexible tissue.
-keeps the trachea open even when air pressure
inside is low or pressure in surrounding tissues is
high
-help support the trachea while still allowing it to
move and flex during breathing.
-strengthens the walls of the bronchi

109
Q

6.4 State the role of
smooth muscle
fibres in the
bronchioles.

A

The bronchioles have smooth muscle fibres in
their walls, allowing the width of these airways to
vary.

110
Q

6.4 Outline reasons
why gas exchange
and ventilation are
less effective in
people with
emphysema.

A

-infection in the lungs draw leucytes there
-protease is released by leukocytes (white blood
cells).
-protease breaks down the connective tissue,
such as elastin) of the lungs.
-results in the destruction of small airways and
alveoli.
-results in the formation of large air pockets and
the breakdown of capillaries.
-large air pockets have a much lower surface area
to volume ratio than the alveoli which causes
insufficient ventilation.
-when combined with the reduced blood supply
this in turn means inefficient gas exchange and
hence low blood oxygen levels.

111
Q

6.4 List treatment
options for people
with emphysema.

A

There is no current cure for emphysema, but
treatments are available to relieve symptoms and
delay disease progression
-bronchodilators are commonly used to relax the
bronchiolar muscles and improve airflow.
-corticosteroids can reduce the inflammatory
response that breaks down the elastic fibres in the
alveolar wall:
-elastase activity can be blocked by an enzyme
inhibitor (a-1-antitrypsin), provided elastase
concentrations are not too high
-oxygen supplementation will be required in the
later stages of the disease to ensure adequate
oxygen intake
-in certain cases, surgery and alternative
medicines have helped to decrease the severity
of symptoms

112
Q

6.4 NoS Define
epidemiology.

A

The study of the incidence and causes of disease.

113
Q

6.4 NoS Outline
how
epidemiological
studies contributed
to understanding
the association
between smoking
and lung cancer

A

An association has repeatedly been found by
epidemiologists between leanness and an
increased risk of lung cancer.
-among smokers leanness is not significantly
associated with an increased risk.
-smoking reduces appetite and so is associated
with leanness and of course smoking is a cause of
lung cancer.
In the 1950’s epidemiologists observed links
between tobacco and cancer.
-the correlation spurred additional research
-was able to show a direct casual relationship
between smoking and cancer.

114
Q

6.5 Define nerve
impulses.

A

• Nerve impulses are action potentials propagated
along the axons of neurons.

115
Q

6.5 Explain how a
nerve message
passes from one
neuron to another
neuron.

A

Remember, up to TWO “quality of construction”
marks per essay
a. nerve impulse reaches the end of the
presynaptic neuron;
b. (depolarization causes) calcium channels in
membrane (to) open;
c. calcium diffuses into the presynaptic neuron;
d. vesicles of/containing neurotransmitter move
to and fuse with presynaptic membrane;
e. (neurotransmitter) released (by exocytosis) into
synaptic space/cleft;
f. (neurotransmitter) diffuses across the space/
synapse;
g. (neurotransmitter) attaches to receptors on
postsynaptic neuron;
h. receptors cause ion channels to open and
sodium diffuses into the postsynaptic neuron;
i. the postsynaptic neuron membrane is
depolarized;
j. (depolarization) causes a new action potential;
k. (neurotransmitter) on postsynaptic membrane is
broken down;
I. (neurotransmitter) is reabsorbed into the
presynaptic neuron;

116
Q

6.5 State the
function of the
nervous system.

A

The nervous system is involved in receiving
information about the environment around us
(sensation) and generating responses to that
information (motor responses).

117
Q

6.5 Outline the
structure and
function of myelin.

A

Structure:
-consists of many layers of phospholipid bilayer.
-Schwann cells deposit the myelin by growing
round and round the nerve fibre.
-there is a gap between the myelin deposited by
adjacent Scwann cells (node of Ranvier.)
Function:
-acts as an insulator so that myelinated axons only
allow action potentials to occur at the
unmyelinated nodes of Ranvier
-forces the action potential to jump from node to
node (saltatory conduction) resulting in the
impulse moving faster
-saltatory conduction also reduces degradation
of the impulse (the impulse can travel longer
distances than impulse in unmyelinated axons
-also reduces energy expenditure over the axon
as the quantity of sodium and potassium ions that
need to be pumped to restore resting potential is
less than that of a un-myelintated axon

118
Q

6.5 Outline the role
of Schwann cells in
formation of myelin.

A

-deposit the myelin by growing round and round
the nerve fibre
-each time they grow around the nerve fibre a
double layer of phospholipid bilayer is deposited
There may be 20 or more layers when the
Schwann cell stops growing.

119
Q

6.5 Define resting
potential.

A

The potential difference or voltage across the
membrane of a neuron that is not transmitting a
signal. (caused by an imbalance of positive and
negative charges across the membrane)

120
Q

6.5 State the
voltage of the
resting potential.

A

-70 mV

121
Q

6.5 Define action
potential,
depolarization and
repolarization.

A

Action potential:
a rapid change in membrane potential (consisting
of two phases), with reversal and restoration of
the membrane potential as an impulse travels
along it
Depolarization:
a change from negative to positive voltage in the
membrane of the neuron
Repolarization:
a change back from positive to negative voltage
in the membrane of the neuron

122
Q

6.5 Outline the
cause and
consequence of the
refractory period
after depolarization.

A

Cause: some of the potassium from the sodium
side of the membrane leak through potassium
channel.
Consequence: The refractory period after a
depolarization prevents propagation of an action
potential backwards along the axon.

123
Q

6.5 Describe that
cause of and effect
of membrane
potential reaching
the threshold
potential.

A

Cause: local currents reduce the concentration
gradient in the part of the neuron that has not yet
polarized. This makes the membrane potential rise
from the resting potential of -70mV to about
-50mV
Effect: sodium channels in the axon membrane are
voltage-gated and open when a membrane
potential of -50mV is reached which is therefore
known as the threshold potential. (The opening of
the sodium channels causes depolorization.)

124
Q

6.5 Define synapse,
synaptic cleft,
effector, and
neurotransmitter.

A

Synapse: a junction between neuron, and neuron
and receptor or effector cells
Synaptic cleft: a fluid-filled gap which separates
pre-synaptic and post-synaptic cells so that
electrical impulses cannot pass across.
Effector: muscles and glands which carry out a
response to a stimulus
Neurotransmitter: (they are) chemicals that send
signals across synapses

125
Q

6.5 Outline the role
of positive
feedback and
sodium ions in the
reaching of
threshold potential.

A

The opening of some sodium channels and the
inward diffusion of sodium ions increases the
membrane potential causing more sodium
channels to open so there is a positive feedback
effect.

126
Q

6.5 Explain why
some synaptic
transmissions will
not lead to an
action potential in a
postsynaptic cell.

A

At a synapse, the amount of neurotransmitter
secreted following depolarization of the pre-
synaptic membrane.
May not be enough to cause the threshold
potential to be reached in the post-synaptic
membrane.
The post-synaptic membrane does not the
depolarize. The sodium ions that have entered the
post-synaptic neuron are pumped out by sodium
potassium
Pumps and the post-synaptic membrane returns
to the resting potential.

127
Q

6.5 Outline the
secretion, action,
reabsorption and
formation of
acetylcholine.

A

acetvlcholine is used as the neurotransmitter in
many synapses
-produced in the pre-synaptic neuron by
combining choline, absorbed from the diet, with
an acetyl group produced during aerobic
respiration.
-acetylcholine is loaded into vesicles and then
released into the synaptic cleft during synaptic
transmission.
-receptors of acetylcholine in the post-synaptic
membrane have a binding site to which
acetylcholine will bind.
-acetylcholine only remains bound to the
receptor for a short time, during which only one
action potential is initiated in the post-synaptic
neuron.
This is because the enzyme acetylcholinesterase is
present in the synaptic cleft and rapidly breaks
acetylcholine down into choline and acetate.
-choline is reabsorbed into the pre-synaptic
neuron, where it is converted back into active
neurotransmitter by recombining it with an acetyl
group.

128
Q

6.5 Define
cholinergic synapse.

A

A synapse which uses acetylcholine as its
neurotransmitter.

129
Q

6.5 Compare the
proportion of
cholinergic
synapses in insects
and humans

A

A much greater proportion of synapses in the
central nervous system are cholinergic in insects
than in mammals

130
Q

6.5 Explain why
neonicotinoids
insecticides are not
highly toxic to
numans.

A

Neonicotinoids bind much less strongly to
acetylcholine receptors in mammals than insects

131
Q

6.6 Outline the
structure and
function of thyroxin.

A

Structure:
chemical structure is unusual because the thyroxin
molecules contains four atoms of iodine
Function: regulates the body’s metabolic rate

132
Q

6.6 List symptoms of
thyroxin deficiency.

A

-lack of energy and feeling tired all the time
-forgetfulness and depression
-weight gain despite loss of appetite as less
glucose and fat are being broken down to release
energy be cell respiration
-feeling cold all the time because less heat is
being generated
-constipation because contractions of muscle in
the wall of the gut slow down
-impaired brain development in children

133
Q

6.6 Leptin is a
hormone.
Fill in the blank

A

Leptin is a protein hormone.

134
Q

6.6 Describe the
role and discovery
of the ob allele in
obese mice.

A

-breeding experiments showed that obese mice
had two copies of a recessive allel, ob.
-earlier it was shown that the wild-type allele of
this gene supported the synthesis of a new
hormone that was named leptin.
-adipose cells in mice that have two recessive ob
alleles cannot produce leptin.
-when ob/ob mice were injected with leptin their
appetite declined, energy expenditure increased
and body mass dropped by 30% in a month.

135
Q

6.6 Define circadian
rhythm.

A

The rhythms in behaviour which fit the 24-hour
cycle that humans are adapted to live in

136
Q

6.6 List secondary
sexual
characteristics
triggered by
testosterone at
puberty.

A

-enlargement of the penis
-growth of public hair
-deepening of the voice due to growth of the
larynx

137
Q

6.6 State the
sources of estrogen
and progesterone
used in embryonic
development.

A

At first estrogen and progesterone are secreted
by the mother’s ovaries and later by the placenta.

138
Q

6.6 List secondary
sexual
characteristics
triggered by
estrogen and
progesterone at
puberty.

A

-enlargement of the breasts
-growth of public and underarm hair.

139
Q

6.6 State the source
and location of
action of hormones
in the menstrual
cycle, including FSH
(follicle stimulating
hormone), LH
(luteinising
hormone), estrogen
and progesterone.

A

-FSH and LH protein hormones produced by the
pituitary gland
-bind to FSH and LH receptors in the membranes
of follicle cells
-estrogen and progesterone are ovarian
hormones
-produced by the wall of the follicle and corpus
luteum
-they are absorbed by many cells in the female
body (where they influence gene expression and
therefore development)

140
Q

6.6 Outline the role
of hormones in the
menstrual cycle,
including FSH
(follicle stimulating
hormone), LH
(luteinising
hormone), estrogen
and progesterone.

A

progesterone:
-rises at the start of the luteal phase;
-promotes thickening and maintenance of the
endometrium (lining of the uterus)
estrogen:
-rises to a peak towards the end of the follicular
phase;
-stimulates repair of the endometrium and an
increase in FSH receptors on ovary cells
FSH:
-starts to rise towards the end of the cycle (day
28);
-stimulates the development of follicles
-stimulate the production of estrogen by the
follicle wall
LH:
-rises to a sudden peak towards the end of the
follicular phase;
-stimulates completion of meiosis in the oocyte
and thinning of the follicular wall, so that
ovulation can occur.
-after ovulation, it stimulates the development of
the remaining part of the Graafian follicle into the
corpus luteum
-(by causing an increase in the number of follicle cells)
-increasing follicle cells secrete estrogen (this is
an example of positive feedback) and
progesterone

141
Q

6.6 Explain the roles
of specific
hormones in the
menstrual cycle,
including positive
and negative
feedback
mechanisms.

A

a. anterior pituitary/hypophysis secretes FSH
which stimulates ovary for follicles to develop
b. follicles secrete estrogen
c. estrogen stimulates more FSH receptors on
follicle cells so respond more to FSH
d. increased estrogen results in positive feedback
on «anterior» pituitary [XYSW1]
e. estrogen stimulates LH secretion
f. estrogen promotes development of
endometrium/uterine lining
g. LH levels increase and cause ovulation
h. H results in negative feedback on follicle
cells/estrogen production
i. LH causes follicle to develop into corpus
luteumORfollicle cells produce more
progesterone
j. progesterone thickens the uterus lining
k. high progesterone results in negative feedback
on pituitary/prevents FSH/LH secretion
I. progesterone levels drop and allow FSH
secretion
m. falling progesterone leads to menstruation/
degradation of uterine lining
Award [5 max] if no reference to feedback is
made

142
Q

6.6 Distinguish
between treatment
of type I and type Il
diabetes.

A

Type I diabetes:
-testing the blood glucose concentration
regularly and injecting insulin when it is too high
or likely to become too high
-injections are often done before a meal to
prevent a peak of blood glucose as the food is
digested and absorbed
Type II diabetes:
-treated by adjusting the diet to reduce the peaks
and troughs of blood glucose.
-small amounts of food should be eaten
frequently rather than infrequent large meals.
-foods with high sugar content should be
avoided.
-starchy food should only be eaten if it has a low
glycemic index, indicating that it is digested
slowly.
-high-fibre foods should be included to slow the
digestion of other foods.
-strenuous exercise and weight loss are beneficial
as they improve insulin uptake and action.

143
Q

6.6 Explain the
double blind study
that tested the
effect of leptin
treatment on human
obesity.

A

-73 obese volunteers injected themselves either
with one of several leptin doses or with a
placebo.
-a double blind procedure was used
-the leptin injections induced skin irritation and
swelling and only 47 patients completed the trial
-the eight patients receiving the highest dose lost
7.1 kg of body mass on average compared with a
loss of 1.3 kg in the 12 volunteers who were
injecting the placebo.
-however, in the group receiving the highest dose
the results varied very widely from a loss of 15 kg
to a gain of 5 kg
-any body mass lost during the trial was usually
regained rapidly afterwards.

144
Q

6.6 Outline role of
leptin resistance in
human obesity.

A

-a very small proportion of cases of obesity in
humans are due to mutations in the genes for
letpin synthesis or its various receptors on target
cells.
-leptin reduces food intake and body weight.
-obese patients are desensitised to the process
and effects of leptin.

145
Q

6.6 State symptoms
of jet lag

A

-difficulty in remaining awake during daylight
hours
-difficulty sleeping through the night
-fatigue
-irritability
-headaches
-indigestion.

146
Q

6.6 Define in vitro
fertilization.

A

When fertilization occurs outside the body in
carefully controlled laboratory conditions.

147
Q

6.6 Outline the
function of the
following male
reproductive
structures: testis,
scrotum, epididymis,
sperm duct, seminal
vesicle, prostate
gland, urethra and
penis.

A

Testis:
-responsible for the production of sperm and
testosterone (male sex hormone)
Epididymis:
-site where sperm matures and develops the
ability to be motile (i.e. ‘swim’) - mature sperm is
stored here until ejaculation
Vas Deferens:
-long tube which conducts sperm from the testes
to the prostate gland (which connects to the
urethra) during ejaculation
Seminal Vesicle:
-secretes fluid containing fructose (to nourish sperm), mucus (to protect sperm) and
prostaglandin (triggers uterine contractions)
Prostate Gland:
-secretes an alkaline fluid to neutralise vaginal
acids (necessary to maintain sperm viability)
Urethra:
-conducts sperm / semen from the prostate gland
to the outside of the body via the penis (also used
to convey urine)

148
Q

6.6 Outline the
function of the
following female
reproductive
structures: ovary,
oviduct, uterus,
cervix, vagina, and
vulva.

A

Ovary:
-ovary is where oocytes mature prior to release
(ovulation) - it also responsible for estrogen and
progesterone secretion
Fimbria:
-fimbria (plural: fimbriae) are a fringe of tissue
adjacent to an ovary that sweep an oocyte into
the oviduct
Oviduct:
-oviduct (or fallopian tube) transports the oocyte
to the uterus - it is also typically where fertilisation
OCCUrS
Uterus:
-uterus is the organ where a fertilised egg will
implant and develop (becoming an embryo)
Endometrium
-mucous membrane lining of the uterus, it thickens
in preparation for implantation or is otherwise lost
(via menstruation)
Vagina
-passage leading to the uterus by which the penis
can enter (uterus protected by a muscular
opening called the cervix)

149
Q

6.6 Describe what
Harvey was and
was not able to
observe in his
reproduction
research given the
tools available at
the time

A

-he was unable to detect a growing embryo until
approximately 6 - 7 weeks after mating had
occurred
-because viable microscopes for such
investigations were not invented until 17 years
after the death of William Harvey

150
Q

6.3 Describe the
functioning of
immunoglobulins.

A

A. «immumoglobulins are/function as» antibodies
b. variety of binding sites / variable regions for
binding
C. specific to antigens on bacteria/ viruses/
pathogens
d. constant region aids destruction of the
bacteria/virus/pathogen
e. attracts phagocytes/macrophages to engulf
pathogen
f. bursting pathogen cells/agglutination/
neutralizing toxins/other example of the action of
antibodies
Award marks for an annotated diagram.

151
Q

6.3 Some blood
proteins are
involved in defence
against infectious
disease. Explain the
roles of named
types of blood
proteins in different
defence
mechanisms

A

a. clotting factors «are proteins» that initiate the
clotting cascade/process
b. fibrin «is a protein that» permits blood
clottingORallows the formation of a clot
C. «the protease» thrombin converts fibrinogen to
fibrin
OWTTE
d. fibrin forms a mesh/clot that prevents the entry
of pathogen/antigen into the blood
e. antibodies are «specific» proteins that
lymphocytes make
f. each antibody corresponds to a specific
pathogen/antigenORantibodies are specific «to
certain pathogens/antigens»
g. antibodies create specific immunity
h. plasma cells produce large amounts of
«specific» antibodiesORmemory cells retain the
ability to produce «specific» antibodies
I. immunoglobulins are antibodies against
pathogens
j. enzymes in phagocytic white blood cells may
digest pathogens
Accept annotated diagrams of the process.

152
Q

6.2 Explain how
circulation of the
blood to the lungs
and to other
systems is
separated in
humans and what
the advantages of
this separation are.

A

a. double circulation / pulmonary and systemic
circulations
b. heart is a double pump / heart has separate
pumps for lungs and other systems / left and right
sides of heart are separate / no hole in heart
(after birth)
c. deoxygenated blood pumped to the lungs and
oxygenated to other organs/tissues/whole body
(apart from lungs)
d. each side of the heart has an atrium and a
ventricle
e. left ventricle/side pumps blood to the systems/
tissues and right ventricle/side pumps blood to
the lungs
f. left atrium receives blood from the lungs and
right atrium receives blood from systems/tissues
g. left ventricle pumps blood via the aorta and
right ventricle pumps blood via the pulmonary
artery
h. left atrium receives blood via the pulmonary
vein and right atrium receives blood via the vena
cava
i. lungs require lower pressure blood / high
pressure blood would damage lungs
J. high pressure required to pump blood to all
systems/tissues apart from lungs
k. pressure of blood returning from lungs not high enough to continue to tissues / blood has to be
pumped again after returning from lungs
I. oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood
kept separate / all tissues receive blood with high
oxygen content/saturation
Points may be earned using an annotated
diagram.
enough to continue to tissues / blood has to be
pumped again after returning from lungs

153
Q

6.2 Outline the
exchange of
materials between
capillaries and
tissues.

A

a. molecules move by diffusion / move down a
concentration gradient
b. nutrients move into tissues
c. gas exchange / Oxygen and carbon dioxide
exchange between tissues and blood/capillaries
d. (nitrogenous) wastes/excess water move from
cells/tissues into blood/capillaries
e. hormones leave capillaries in target tissues/to
attach to receptors on cells / (endocrine) organs/
gland tissues release hormones into the
bloodstream

154
Q

6.5 Define nerve
impulse.

A

Nerve impulse is an action potential that
stimulates a (wave of) depolarization along the
membrane/axon:

155
Q

6.6 Define glands.

A

Organs that secrete and release particular
chemical substances

156
Q

6.6 State symptoms
of type II diabetes.

A

a. glucose in urine;
b. high blood glucose;
c. frequent urination / dehydration/excess thirst;
d. constant hunger;
e. weight loss;
f. tiredness:

157
Q

6.6 Explain the
dietary advice that
should be given to
a patient who has
developed type Il
diabetes.

A

a. reduce blood glucose levels as target/ body/
muscle cells less sensitive to insulin / not enough
insulin produced;
b. reduce intake of (saturated) fats, to reduce
weight;
c. reduce the intake of sugar/simple
carbohydrates, causes rapid increase in blood
glucose concentration;
d. eat more high fibre foods, satisfy appetite, but
cannot be broken down;
e. regular/many small meals, to avoid (rapid) rise
in glucose after a big meal;
f. eat complex carbohydrates/carbohydrates with
a low glycemic index, digested and absorbed
more slowly; To award the mark, answers require
dietary recommendations with a reason.
Do not accept comments about increased
exercise.

158
Q

6.6 Outline how the
human body
responds to high
blood glucose
levels.

A

a. (high blood glucose levels) detected by
pancreas islet cells/beta cells;
b. insulin secreted in response (to high blood
glucose/glucose above threshold level);
c. insulin stimulates cells to absorb glucose;
d. glucose used in cell respiration (rather than
lipids);
e. glucose converted to glycogen (in liver/muscle
cells);
f. glucose converted to fatty acids/triglycerides/
fat;
g. negative feedback process;

159
Q

6.6 Explain the
control of body
temperature in
humans

A

a. normal body core temperature constant/36.5
to 37.5°C; (accept single values within this range)
b. regulated by negative feedback/homeostatic
mechanisms;
c. hypothalamus is the centre of thermoregulation;
d. hypothalamus sends impulses to the body to
increase/decrease temperatures;
e. release of sweat (by sweat glands in the skin) if
skin temperature rises;
f. evaporation of water cools the body; (concept
of evaporation must be mentioned)
g. heat is transferred by blood;
h. transfer of heat from body core in blood to
surface:
i. if temperature rises, increased flow of blood/heat to the skin/ vasodilation of skin blood
vessels/arterioles: (do not accept veins, arteries
or capillaries)
j. if temperature drops, decreased flow of blood/
heat to the skin/vasoconstriction of skin blood
vessels/arterioles; (do not accept veins, arteries
or capillaries)
k. shivering increases heat production (in
muscles);
I. example of one behavioural mechanism; (eg
reducing activity (to lower body temperature) /
reducing exposed surfaces (to reduce heat loss)

160
Q

6.4 Define gas
exchange and
ventilation.

A

Gas exchange:
the primary function of the lungs involving the
transfer of oxygen from inhaled air into the blood
and the transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood
into the exhaled air.
Ventilation:
the exchange of air between the lungs and the
atmosphere so that oxygen can be exchanged for
carbon dioxide in the alveoli (the tiny air sacs in
the lungs).

161
Q

6.4 Outline the role
of the parts of an
alveolus in a human
lung.

A

Alveolus as an oval with scalloped edges
maximizes surface area for gas exchange.
-alveolus wall is a single layer of Type 1
pneumocytes- minimizes distance gases have to
travel between the blood in the capillary and the
air in the alveolus
-lumen of alveolus- volume of air for gas
exchange.
-surfactant produced by Type I pneumocytes-
reduces surface tension and prevents collapse of
alveolus when air is exhaled.
-bronchial tube ending at alveolus- tube for
transport of air into and out of the alveolus.
-capillary surrounding outside of the alveolus-
minimizes distance gases have to travel between the blood in the capillary and the air in the
alveolus.
-capillary wall is a single cell thick- minimizes
distance gases have to travel between the blood
in the capillary and the air in the alveolus.

162
Q

6.4 Outline the
purpose of gas
exchange in
humans

A

-must occur so that cells have oxygen for
performing aerobic respiration.
-oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the
oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration.

-without oxygen, aerobic respiration will stop
-additionally, the carbon dioxide waste product
of the respiration must leave the cells.
-it is very dangerous if carbon dioxide builds up in
the body, so blood carries the carbon dioxide to
the lungs where it is released into the air with
exhalation.

163
Q

6.4 Describe two
functions of the
fluid secreted by
Type Il
pneumocytes.

A

-produce a pulmonary surfactant that is
continuously released by exocytosis.
-re-inflation of the alveoli following exhalation is
made easier by the surfactant
-which reduces surface tension in the thin fluid
coating of the alveoli
-fluid secreted by Type I pneumocytes facilitates
the transfer of gases between blood and alveolar
air.
-the gases dissolve in the moist fluid, helping them
to pass across the alveoli surface

164
Q

6.4 Define
“inspiration” and
“expiration” as
related to lung
ventilation.

A

inspiration:
The process that causes air to enter the lungs.
expiration:
The process that causes air to leave the lungs.

165
Q

6.4 Outline the
structure and
function of external
intercostal muscles.

A

-each rib is connected to the rib below it by both
external and internal intercostal muscles.
-the external intercostal muscles are located on
the outer surface of the ribs and are positioned at
a diagonal in between each rib.
-the external intercostal muscles are responsible
for forced and quiet inhalation.
-contraction of the external intercostal muscles
elevates the ribs and spreads them apart,
resulting in the inhalation of air from the
atmosphere.

166
Q

6.4 Define tidal
volume and
ventilation rate.

A

tidal volume: volume of air taken in with each
inhalation/out with each exhalation;
ventilation rate: number of inhalations/
exhalations/breaths per minute;

167
Q

6.4 Outline the
effects of mild and
vigorous exercise
on ventilation rate.

A

-both ventilation rate and tidal volume increase
with increased intensity of exercise.
-exercise increases aerobic respiration;
-CO2 concentration in blood increases, leading to
drop in pH of blood detected / blood more
acidic;
-chemoreceptors detect the change in blood pH
and send nerve impulses to the breathing center
of the brain.
-breathing centres (in the medulla) send impulses
to diaphragm and intercostal muscles;
-which will contract more frequently (increasing
ventilation rate) and with more force (increasing
tidal volume).
-increase rate of contraction, hence increase in
ventilation rate increases oxygen uptake/
decreases CO2;
-during exercise the rate of cellular respiration
increases and as a result more carbon dioxide is
produced by the cells.

168
Q

6.6 Discuss the
ethical issues
surrounding IVF.

A

To award full marks, discussion must contain both
pro and con considerations.
pros/positive considerations: [3 max]chance for
infertile couples to have children; decision to have
children is clearly a conscious one due to
difficulty of becoming pregnant; genetic screening
of embryos could decrease suffering from
genetic diseases;spare embryos can safely be
stored for future pregnancies/used for stem cell
research;
cons/negative considerations: [3 max]IVF is
expensive and might not be equally
accessible:success rate is low therefore it is
stressful for the couple;it is not natural/cultural/
religious objections;could lead to eugenics/
gender choice;could lead to (unwanted) multiple
pregnancies with associated risks;production and
storage of unused embryos / associated legal
issues / extra embryos may be used for (stem
cell) research;inherited forms of infertility might
be passed on to children; Accept any other
reasonable answers.

169
Q

Differentiate between myogenic transmission and neural transmission in the heart

A

The heart is a muscle that can contract and relax to pump blood throughout the body. The heart’s contraction is initiated by electrical signals that are generated by specialized cells in the heart, which are called pacemaker cells. The electrical signals are then transmitted through the heart, causing the muscle cells to contract and relax in a coordinated manner.

There are two primary modes of transmission of the electrical signals in the heart: myogenic transmission and neural transmission.

Myogenic Transmission:
Myogenic transmission refers to the ability of the heart muscle cells to generate their own electrical signals, without the need for input from the nervous system. This intrinsic property of the heart muscle cells is due to the presence of pacemaker cells, which have the ability to spontaneously generate electrical signals. The pacemaker cells are located in the sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart, and they generate electrical impulses that spread throughout the atria, causing them to contract.
Neural Transmission:
Neural transmission refers to the transmission of electrical signals through nerves that innervate the heart. The nerves that innervate the heart are part of the autonomic nervous system and are divided into two branches: the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. The sympathetic nervous system stimulates the heart to beat faster and stronger, while the parasympathetic nervous system slows the heart rate down.
In summary, myogenic transmission refers to the intrinsic ability of the heart muscle cells to generate their own electrical signals, while neural transmission refers to the transmission of electrical signals through nerves that innervate the heart.

170
Q

Define neural transmission in heart

A

Refers to the transfer of information or signals from one neuron or group of neurons to another through specialized structures called synapses. In the case of the heart, neural transmission refers to the transmission of signals from the autonomic nervous system to the heart, which can modify the rate and force of the heart’s contractions. The autonomic nervous system consists of two branches, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, which have opposing effects on heart rate and function.