Bio 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

3.1 Define the term
gene.

A

A gene is a heritable factor that consists of a
length of DNA and influences a specific
characteristic.

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2
Q

3.1 Outline the
relationship
between a gene
and a chromosome.

A

A gene occupies a specific position on a
chromosome; this specific position is called locus.
Genes can be linked into groups, and each group
= one tvpe of chromosome.

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3
Q

3.1 Define alleles,
and outline how it is
formed.

A

Alleles are the various specific forms of a gene.
New alleles are formed by mutation, and they
differ from each other by one or only a few bases
Most animal have 2 copies of each type of
chromosome, and each copy may have same or
different alleles; but only one allele can occupy
the locus of a gene on a chromosome.

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4
Q

3.1 Outline the
definition of genome

A

The genome is the whole of the genetic
information of an organism.
The size of a genome is therefore the total
amount of DNA in one set of chromosomes in that
species. It can be measured in millions of base pairs of DNA.

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5
Q

3.1 Application: List
the number of
genes of one plant,
one bacterium, one
species with more
genes and one with
fewer genes than a human

A

**The number of genes in a species should not be
referred to as genome size as this term is used for
the total amount of DNA.
Estimated number of protein-coding genes in
humans is 21 000.
Escherichia Coli (Bacteria): less genes than
humans
~4 200
Oryza Sativa (Rice): plant, more genes than
humans
~38 000
Gallus gallus (Chicken): animal, less genes than
humans
~1700
Daphina pulex (water flea): animal, more genes
than humans
~31 000

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6
Q

3.1 Explain the
causes of sickle cell
anemial

A

The cause of sickle cell anemia is due to the base
substitution mutation in the DNA.
-in DNA sense strand gene that codes for
hemoglobin protein, GAG is being mutated to
GTG (thymine substituted adenine)
-which then codes for valine instead of glutamic
acid on the SIXTH amino acid.
-this causes a change to the base sequence of
mRNA transcribed from it and a change to the
sequence of a polypeptide in hemoglobin.

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7
Q

3.1 Outline the
Human Genome
Proiect and its
outcome.

A

The Human Genome Project began in 1990 with
the aim of determining the complete sequence of
the human genome and identifying every gene
that it contains.
Gene sequencers is a technique used in gene
sequencing. The sanger process is used, and
fluorescent markers are used to label the DNA
fragments in order to find out the order of the
DNA sequences.
An optical detector is used to detect the colours
of fluorescence along the lane. There is a series
of peaks of fluorescence, corresponding to each
number of nucleotides, and a computer is used to
deduce the base sequences.

Outcomes of the HGP:
knowledge of location of human genes / position
of human genes on chromosomes;knowledge of
number of genes/interaction of genes /
understanding the mechanism of mutations;
evolutionary relationships between humans and
other animals;
discovery of proteins / understanding protein
function / detection of genetic disease;
leads to the development of medical treatment/
enhanced research techniques;
knowledge of the base sequence of genes/study
of variation within genome;

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8
Q

3.2 Distinguish
between
prokaryotic and
eukaryotic
chromosomes

A

Prokaryotes have one chromosome consisting of
a circular DNA molecule, they reproduce
asexually through binary fission. Some
prokaryotes also have plasmids but eukaryotes
do not. Plasmids are used to transfer genetic
information from one bacteria to another. They
are also used in laboratories to genetically modify
a prokaryote.
Eukaryote chromosomes are linear DNA
molecules associated with histone proteins.
In a eukaryote species there are different
chromosomes that carry different genes, with
both coding and non-coding DNA.
Eukaryotes have different types of chromosome
with 2 alleles of each type.

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9
Q

3.2 Describe what
homologous pairs
are in relationship
to diploid and
haploid nuclei.

A

Homologous chromosomes carry the same
sequence of genes but not necessarily the same
alleles of those genes. A same type of
chromosome can be identified by its length and
shape (have same length and same position of
centromere).
Diploid nuclei have pairs of homologous
chromosomes; they have 2 types of
chromosomes, meaning they have 2 genes copies
(alleles) for each trait. A somatic cells are diploid
and divide by mitosis.
Haploid nuclei have one chromosome of each
pair, as they only possess a single copy (one
allele) for each trait. Sex cells are haploid and
they divide by meiosis.

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10
Q

3.2 State why
chromosome
number and type is
a distinguishing
characteristic of a
species.

A

The number of chromosomes is a characteristic
feature of members of a species.
In order to reproduce, the species have to have
the same number of chromosomes in order to
form homologous pairs in zygotes.

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11
Q

3.2 Describe the
process of creating
a karyogram, and its
Uses.

A

-a karyogram shows the chromosomes of an
organism in homologous pairs of decreasing
length.
-a cell is “frozen” in metaphase by the application
of chemicals that disrupt the mitotic spindle.
-a hypotonic solution is added;
-water enters the cell causing it to swell and
burst, separating the chromosomes from each
other.
-the chromosomes are stained and viewed with a
microscope.
-the images of the chromosomes are then
organized in a standard pattern, from longest
chromosomes to the smallest;
-with heterosomes at the end
Karyograms can be used to deduce sex and
diagnose Down syndrome in humans. The 23rd
pair of karyogram reveals the gender.
Down syndrome can be identified as such patients
have 3 copies of chromosome 21 (trimosy 21)

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12
Q

3.2 Distinguish
between
heterosome and
autosomes.

A

Heterosomes are sex chromosomes, they are the
23rd pair of chromosomes. X is big and long, Y is
small and short and contains SRY gene for
development of male characteristics.
Heterosomes are homologous in females (XX) but
not in males (XY)
Autosomes are chromosomes that do not
determine sex (the rest of the somatic cells)

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13
Q

3.2 Describe Cairns’
technique for
measuring the
length of DNA
molecules, his
conclusion.

A

Autoradiography is used through the use of
electron microscopes.
1. Allows bacterium to absorb 3H-Thymidine
(Tritiated thymidine)
-contains tritium, a radioactive isotope of
hydrogen, so radioactively labelled DNA was
produced by replication in the E. coli cells.
2. Cells were then placed onto a dialysis
membrane and their cell walls were digested
using the enzyme lysozyme.
-cells were gently burst to release their DNA onto
the surface of the dialysis membrane.
3. A thin film o photographic emulsion was
applied to the surface o the membrane
-being left in darkness for weeks
-some o the atoms o tritium in the DNA decayed
and emitted high energy electrons, which react
with the film.
-each point where a tritium atom decayed there is
a dark grain.
The film showed that prokaryotic chromosomes
are circular, and the length and width of the
chromosomes can be determined

Conclusions:
-Chromosome in E. coli is a single circular DNA
molecule with a length o 1,100 microm. (the E coli
cells is only 2 microm!)
-prokaryotic chromosomes are circular
-measured the lengths of chromosomes.
-he also observed the DNA replication fork.

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14
Q

3.2 Application:
Comparison of
genome size in T2
phage, Escherichia
coli, Drosophila
melanogaster,
Homo sapiens and
Paris japonica.

A

*genome size measured in # of base pairs
T2 phage:
170 000 bp
Escherichia coli:
4.6 million bp
Drosophila melanogaster:
130 million bp
Homo Sapiens:
3.6 billion bp
Paris japonica:
150 billion bp

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15
Q

3.2 Application:
Comparison of
diploid
chromosome
numbers of Homo
sapiens, Pan
troglodytes, Canis
familiaris, Oryza
sativa, Parascaris
equorum.

A

Homo Sapiens:
46
Pan troglodytes:
48
Canis familiaris:
78
Oryza sativa:
24
Parascaris equorum:
4

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16
Q

3.3 Outline the
process of meiosis.

A

a. meiosis reduces a diploid cell into (four)
haploid cell(s);
b. (during prophase I) homologous chromosomes
pair Up/synapsis;
nuclear membrane degenerates
centrioles move to opposite poles
C. chromatids (break and) recombine / crossing
over followed by condensation.
d. (metaphase I) (homologous chromosomes) at
the equator of the spindle / middle of cell;
e. (anaphase I) (homologous) chromosomes
separate and move to opposite poles;
f. (telophase I) chromosomes reach poles and
unwind WTTE;
Separation of pairs of homologous chromosomes
in the first division of meiosis halves the
chromosome number.
g. (prophase Il) chromosomes (condense and)
become visible, new spindles form;
h. (metaphase Il) chromosomes line up at the
centre of the cells/ equator;
i. (anaphase I) sister chromatids separate;
j. (telophase Il) chromatids reach the poles and
unwind;

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17
Q

3.3 What happens
prior to meiosis?

A

DNA is replicated before meiosis so that all
chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids.

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18
Q

3.3 Explain why
meiosis is known as
reduction division?

A

One diploid nucleus divides by meiosis to
produce four haploid nuclei. The halving of the
chromosome number allows a sexual life cycle
with fusion of gametes to form a zygote with 46
chromosomes (not more or less)

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19
Q

3.3 Explain how
sexual reproduction
can lead to
variation in a
species.

A

allows characteristics from both parents to
appear in offspring;
crossing over (during prophase 1) changes
chromosome composition;
produces gametes which are all different;
random chance of which sperm fertilizes ovum;
greater variation (resulting from sexual
reproduction) favours survival of species through
natural selection;
random orientation of homologous pairs during
metaphase l.
Accept independent assortment during meiosis
from AHL.

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20
Q

3.3 Application:
Explain how non-
disjunction can
cause Down
syndrome and other
chromosome
abnormalities.

A

Non-disjunction is when chromosomes fail to
separate in in meiosis I / chromatids in meiosis II/
anaphase Il;
This causes a sex cell to have one less or one
more chromosomes, which causes the zygote to
have 47 or 45 chromosomes.
Down syndrome can be determined through
identifying the trisomy on chromosome 21 on
karyogram.
Increased probability with increased age of
mother/ages of parents after 35 maternal age
There is a strong correlation between maternal
age and occurence of non-disiunction events.

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21
Q

3.3 Application:
Description of
methods used to
obtain cells for
karyotype analysis.

A

Chorionic villus:
-a sampling that enters through the vagina is used
to obtain cells from the chorion
-one of the membranes from which the placenta
develops.
-the tissue from placenta is collected by entering
a tube through the cervix.
-this can be done earlier in the pregnancy than
amniocentesis, but whereas the risk of miscarriage
with amniocentesis is 1%, with chorionic villus
sampling it is 2%.

Amniocentesis
-involves the removing of amniotic liquid that
surrounds the baby through a long needle
collected through the mother’s abdomen.
-involves passing a needle through the mother’s
abdomen wall, using ultrasound to guide the
needle
-the needle is used to withdraw a sample of
amniotic fluid containing fetal cells from the
amniotic sac.
The miscarriage percentage for the two are:
1% amniocentesis and 2% for chorionic villus.
**pre-natal diagnosis by karyotype analysis is
usually only carried out in mothers over 35
-until then the risk of miscarriage caused by the
procedure is greater than the risk of Down
Syndrome.

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22
Q

3.4 Outline why
Mendel’s success is
attributed to his use
of pea plants.

A

Mendel discovered the principles of inheritance
with experiments in which large numbers of pea
plants were crossed.
-his success was due to him obtaining numerical
values, rather than just descriptions of outcomes.
-Mendel’s use of peas allowed for the
observation of easily distinguishable
characteristics (i.e. yellow or green pods).
-Also, the peas were able to reproduce quickly
allowing for many generations of data to be
collected.
-Lastly, the reproduction could be controlled, so
Mendel knew exactly which two parent plants
were being bred (either cross-bred or self-
pollination).
From his experiment he discovered the presence
of dominant and recessive alleles through
artificial pollination of purebred pea plants.

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23
Q

3.4 Explain the
relationship
between meiosis
and inheritance.

A

The two alleles of each gene separate into
different haploid daughter nuclei during meiosis.
Gametes are haploid so contain only one allele of
each gene.
Fusion of gametes results in diploid zygotes with
two alleles of each gene that may be the same
allele (homozygous) or different alleles
(heterozygous)

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24
Q

3.4 Explain
dominant and
recessive allele in
inheritance.

A

Dominant alleles mask the effects of recessive
alleles but co-dominant alleles have joint effects;
which means (pair of) alleles that both affect the
phenotype when present in a heterozygote / both
alleles are expressed;

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25
Q

3.4 List out genetic
diseases that are
due to autosomal
dominant,
autosomal
recessive, Co-
dominant, and sex
linked.

A

Autosomal dominant:
Huntington’s Disease
Autosomal Recessive:
cystic fibrosis
Co-dominant:
Sickle cell anemia
ABO Blood groups
Sex linked:
hemophilia (recessive)
red-green color blindness (recessive)

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26
Q

3.4 Describe
patterns that can be
seen regarding
diseases caused by
autosomal
dominant,
autosomal
recessive, and sex
linked.

A

Autosomal dominant:
-every affected individual have at least one
affected parent
-present in every generation
-present in both males and females
Autosomal recessive:
-cases where both parent are not affected
-Skips generation
-present in both males and females
Sex linked:
-more common in males
-can only inherit from parent of opposite gender

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27
Q

3.4 Explain the
rarity of genetic
diseases

A

-often times genetic diseases seem to just
“appear” in a family without prior history.
-this is usually because the disease is caused by a
recessive allele that has been masked by
dominant alleles.
-if two carriers, who show no disease symptoms,
produce offspring, there is a 1/4 change of the
offspring showing the disease characteristics.
Many genetic diseases have been identified in
humans but most are very rare.
Most are rare because severe diseases that are
caused by homozygous alleles may not survive
until reproduction age so they cannot be passed
on.
Recessive conditions tend to be more common
and dominant conditions.

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28
Q

3.4 List and explain
the factors that
increase the
mutation rate and
can cause genetic
diseases and
cancer, and apply it
to the
consequences of
nuclear bombing of
Hiroshima and
accident in
Chernobyl.

A

Radiation and mutagenic chemicals increase the
mutation rate and can cause genetic diseases and
cancer.
Radiation:
-the high energy wavelengths can have enough
energy to cause chemical changes in DNA.
Chemical substances:
-smoke and mustard gas that possesses chemical
can change DNA.
-causing thyroid disease after Chernobyl due to
release of radioactive iodine.
-250% increase in congenital abnormalities
-Reduced T cell counts and altered immune
functions, leading to higher rates of infection
-caused variation in flora and fauna in Chernobyl

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29
Q

3.5 Explain how gel
electrophoresis and
polymerase chain
reaction are used in
DNA profiling.

A

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate proteins
or fragments of DNA according to size, and PCR
can be used to amplify small amounts of DNA.
1. DNA (specifically the short tandem repeats) is
first cut into smaller, separate fragments by the
endonuclease.
2. DNA needs to be copied/amplified for DNS
profiling.
3. placed in a block of gel where electric current
is applied (different fragments will move different
distances because it is negatively charged, and
each fragment has different size/weight)
So smaller samples travel faster and further.
4. DNA profiling: the banding patterns of a
person’s DNA can be identified (unique to each
individual).
5. Comparing DNA profiles can allow paternity
and forensic investigations.

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30
Q

3.5 Explain how
gene modification is
carried out.

A

Genetic modification is carried out by gene
transfer between species (the placement of a
gene from one species into another and have it
expressed).
It is possible because the genetic code is
universal.
Gene transfer to bacteria using plasmids makes
use of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase
1. DNA is isolated from cell via centrifugation and
then amplified by PCR.
**Bacterial plasmids are commonly used as
vectors (DNA molecule that is used as a vehicle
to carry the gene of interest) because they are
capable of autonomous self-replication and
expression.
2. Restriction endonuclease cleave the sugar-
phosphate backbone to generate blunt ends or
sticky ends.
3. The gene of interest is inserted into a plasmid
vector that has been cut with the same restriction
endonucleases
D
4. DNA ligase joins the vector and gene by fusing
their sugar-phosphate backbones together with a
covalent phosphodiester bond.

  1. The recombinant construct (including the gene
    of interest) is finally introduced into an
    appropriate host cell or organism
  2. Transgenic cells, once isolated and purified, will
    hopefully begin expressing the desired trait
    encoded by the gene of interest.
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31
Q

3.5 Define what
clones are, and the
production of
cloned embryos.

A

Clones are groups of genetically identical
organisms, derived from a single original parent
cell.
Cloned embryos produced by somatic-cell
nuclear transfer (nuclear transplantation)-
reproductive cloning (not therapeutic cloning with
stem cells)
1. Somatic cells removed from adult donor and
are cultured.
2. Unfertilised egg is removed from female adult
(enucleated - haploid nucleus is removed)
3. Enucleated egg fuses with diploid nucleus from
adult donor, forming a diploid egg cell.
4. An electric current is then delivered to
stimulate the egg to divide and develop into an
embryo
5. The embryo is then implanted into the uterus of
a surrogate and will develop into a genetic clone
of the adult donor.

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32
Q

3.5 Describe some
natural methods of
cloning.

A

Many plant species and some animal species have
natural methods of cloning.
-bacteria reproduce via binary fission - asexual
reproduction.
-plants reproduce asexually via:
-stem cutting: a separated portion of plant stem
that can regrow into a new independant clone.
-budding: cells split off the parent organism,
generating a smaller daughter organism which
eventually separates from the parent
e.g. Strawberry plants send out stolons, also
known as runners, which are horizontal
projections that have new plants on the end that
can grow into cloned daughter plants.
-vegetative propagation: small pieces can be
induced to grow independently
-identical twins are due to the natural separation
of embryo - monozygotic

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33
Q

3.5 Describe and
explain the two
methods of cloning
in animals.

A

Animals can be cloned at the embryo stage by
breaking up the embryo into more than one
group of cells.
-pluripotent cells are separated artificially in the
laboratory, each group of cells will form cloned
organisms
-separation of embryonic cells can also occur
naturally to give rise to identical (monozygotic)
twins
-separated groups of cells are then implanted
into the uterus of a surrogate to develop into
genetically identical clones
-limited by the fact that the embryo used is still
formed randomly via sexual reproduction and so
the specific genetic features of the resulting
clones have yet to be determined
-animals such as hydra create clones through a
process of budding.
-a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated
cell division at one specific site.
-these buds develop into tiny individuals and,
when fully mature, detach from the parent body
and become new independent individuals.
Methods have been developed for cloning adult
animals using differentiated cells.

-involves somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)
-replacing the haploid nucleus of an unfertilised
egg with a diploid nucleus from an adult donor
-advantage: it is known what traits the clones will
develop (they are genetically identical to the
donor)

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34
Q

3.5 Design of an
experiment to
assess one factor
affecting the
rooting of stem-
cuttings.

A

Stem cuttings are typically placed in soil with the
lower nodes covered and the upper nodes
exposed, where meristematic cells are present to
be induced for vegetative propagation.
There are a variety of factors that will influence
successful rooting of a stem cutting:
-Cutting position:whether cutting occurs above or
below a node, as well as the relative proximity of
the cut
Length of cutting (including how many nodes
remain on the cutting)
- Growth medium (whether left in soil, water,
potting mix, compost or open air)
- The use and concentration of growth hormones
- Temperature conditions (most cuttings grow
optimally at temperatures common to spring and
summer)
- Availability of water (either in the form of
ground water or humidity)
- Other environmental conditions (including pH of
the soil and light exposure)

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35
Q

3.5 Assessment of
the potential risks
and benefits
associated with
genetic
modification of
crops.

A

The genetic modification of crops involves altering the DNA of plants to enhance desirable traits, such as resistance to pests, disease, or drought, or to improve their nutritional value. Like any other technology, there are potential risks and benefits associated with genetic modification of crops.

Benefits:

Increased crop yields: Genetic modification can improve the productivity of crops, leading to increased yields and reduced food insecurity.
Pest and disease resistance: By introducing genes from other organisms, crops can become more resistant to pests and diseases, reducing the need for pesticides and other harmful chemicals.
Improved nutritional value: Genetic modification can enhance the nutritional value of crops by introducing genes that increase the levels of vitamins or other essential nutrients.
Environmental sustainability: By reducing the need for harmful chemicals and increasing yields, genetic modification can promote sustainable agriculture and reduce the impact of farming on the environment.
Risks:

Potential harm to human health: There are concerns that genetic modification may introduce allergens or toxins into crops that could be harmful to human health.
Environmental risks: There are concerns that genetically modified crops could potentially crossbreed with wild species, creating new and potentially harmful organisms that could damage ecosystems.
Reduced biodiversity: Genetic modification can lead to monoculture, where large areas are planted with the same genetically modified crop, reducing the diversity of crops and potentially making them more vulnerable to pests and disease.
Ethical concerns: There are ethical concerns surrounding the ownership of genetic resources and the potential impact of genetic modification on small-scale farmers and indigenous communities.

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36
Q

3.5 Analysis of data
on risks to monarch
butterflies of Bt
crops.

A

Bt corn is a genetically modified maize that
incorporates an insecticide producing gene froma
bacterium.
This insecticide is lethal to certain types of larvae,
particularly the European corn borer which would
otherwise eat the crop.
D
Concerns have been raised that the spread of Bt
corn may also be impacting the survival rates of
monarch butterflies
-wind-borne pollen from Bt corn may dust nearby
milkweeds, and monarch butterflies would die
eating them.
Caterpillars exposed to Bt pollen were found to
have eaten less, grew more slowly and exhibited
higher mortality rates
Consider the problem with ecological validity in
laboratory experiment:
-there were higher amounts of Bt pollen on the
leaves than would be found naturally (e.g. rain
would diminish build up)
-Larva were restricted in their diet (in the field,
larva could feasibly avoid eating pollen dusted
leaves)

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37
Q

3.4 Explain the
causes of cystic
fibrosis and
Huntington’s
disease

A

Cystic fibrosis is one of the most common genetic
diseases. The recessive allele was formed by a
mutation in the CFTR gene, which codes for a
chloride channel in mucous membranes. The gene
has been mapped on chromosome 7 and is
involved in the secretion of sweat, mucus and
digestive juices.
Huntington’s disease is a neurodegenerative
disorder that usually starts to affect people
between 30 and 50 years of age. It is caused by a
dominant allele that has developed through the
mutation of the HTT gene found on chromosome
4.

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38
Q

3.5 Explain how
DNA profiling is
used in parental and
forensic
investigation.

A

from hair/blood/semen/human tissue;DNA
amplified / quantities of DNA
increased by PCR/polymerase chain reaction;
satellite DNA/highly repetitive sequences are
used/amplified;
DNA cut into fragments;
using restriction enzymes/restriction
endonucleases;
gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA
fragments;
using electric field / fragments separated by size;
number of repeats varies between individuals /
pattern of bands is unique to the individual/
unlikely to be shared;
forensic use / crime scene investigation;
example of forensic use e.g. DNA obtained from
the crime scene/ victim compared to DNA of
suspect / other example of forensic use;
paternity testing use e.g. DNA obtained from
parents in paternity cases;
biological father if one half of all bands in the
child are found in the father;
genetic screening;
presence of particular bands correlates with
probability of certain phenotype / allele;
other example;
brief description of other example;

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39
Q

3.3 Define meiosis.

A

Reduction division of diploid nucleus to produce
4 haploid nuclei.

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40
Q

3.4 State the
genotype for all 4
types of blood.

A

Blood A:
-homozygous: 1^Al^A
-heterozygous: I^A i
Blood B:
-homozygous: |^B I^B
-heterozygous: I^B i
Blood AB:
-ONLY heterozygous: I^A I^B
Blood O:
-ONLY homozygous: i

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41
Q

3.4 State the
gametes for sickle
cell anemia alleles.

A

dominant allele (no sickle cell gene)
Hb^A
recessive allele (with sickle cell gene)
HbAS
co-dominance:
Hb^A Hb^S

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42
Q

3.1 Define gene
Locus

A

A gene locus is the location of a gene on a
chromosome. Each chromosome carries many
genes.

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43
Q

3.1 Describe an
example of a gene
with multiple alleles.

A

Nearly all genes have multiple alleles (multiple
versions). For example, in humans the ABO blood
type is controlled by a single gene, the
isoagglutinogen gene (I for short).
The I gene has three common alleles:
I^A: codes for antigen type A
I”B: codes for antigen type B
i: codes for no antigen

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44
Q

3.1 State similarities
between alleles of
the same gene.

A

-found at the same locus on homologous
chromosomes
-have mostly the same nucleotide sequence and
code for the same general type of protein
(for examples the A and B alleles for blood type
both code for a membrane embedded protein)

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45
Q

3.1 State the
difference between
alleles of the same
gene.

A

-slightly different from each other in the sequence
of nucleotides.
-they can vary by just one base (i.e. A –›T), called
a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) or by the
insertion or deletion of a base.

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46
Q

31 Describe a base
substitution
mutation.

A

A qene mutation is a change in the nucleotide
sequence of a section of DNA coding for a
specific trait.
The new allele that results from the mutation
might result in:
Missense - cause one amino acid in the protein
coded for by the gene to change
Silent - have no effect on the protein coded for
by the gene
Nonsense - code for an incomplete, non-
functioning polypeptide for form.

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47
Q

3.1 State the size in
base pairs of the
human genome.

A

The human genome is composed of about 3.2
billion base pairs divided amongst nucleus
chromosomes and mitochondrial DNA.

48
Q

3.1 Define
“sequence” in
relation to genes
and/or genomes.

A

Sequence (noun): the order of the nitrogenous
bases in a gene or genome.
“The sequence of the gene is ATCCGTA.”
Sequence (verb): the process of determining the
order of the nitrogenous bases in a gene of
genome.
“We are going to sequence the gene to test for a
genetic disease”

49
Q

3.1 State the aim of
the Human Genome
Project.

A

The main aims of the Human Genome Project
were to determine the sequence of the = 3.2
billion base pairs and identify the location of the =
20-25 thousand genes in the human genome.

50
Q

3.1 Outline the
consequences of
the sickle cell
mutation on the
impacted individual.

A

-sickle cells are destroyed rapidly in the bodies of
people with the disease
-causing anemia, a condition in which there aren’t
enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate
oxygen to the body’s tissues.
-anemia results in fatigue and weakness.
-the sickle cells also block the flow of blood
through vessels
-resulting in lung tissue damage that causes acute
chest syndrome, pain episodes and stroke.
-it also causes damage to the spleen, kidneys and
liver.

51
Q

3.1 State the number
of genes in the
human genome.

A

There are an estimated 20,000-25,000 genes in
the human genome.

52
Q

3.1 Describe the
relationship
between the
number of genes in
a species and the
species complexity
in structure,
physiology and/or
behavior.

A

In general, eukaryotes have more genes than
prokaryotes. However, within plants and animals
there is little correlation between complexity and
the number of genes.

53
Q

3.1 Explain which
gene types are
often used to assess
the differences in
the base sequences
of a gene between
two species.

A

-genes that are present in the species being
studied must be selected.
-for example, the COX1 gene (which codes for a
protein involved in cellular respiration) is present
in the majority of eukaryotic species so it is a
good choice for comparing sequences between
species.
-additionally, the gene has been sequenced for
many species and is therefor accessible in
genome databases.

54
Q

3.1 Outline the use
of a computer
software tool to
create an alignment
of the gene
sequences between
different species.

A

-a sequence alignment is a way of arranging DNA
sequences
-so that similarities and differences between the
sequences of different species can be identified.
-computer software programs are able to
complete alignments quickly and accurately.

55
Q

3.1 Outline the
technological
improvement that
sped the DNA
sequencing
process.

A

-the largest advancement in gene sequencing was
the automation of the process with computer-
assisted technology.
-what used to take humans hours or days can now
be done by a computer much more rapidly, more
accurately and for less money.

56
Q

3.2 Describe the
structure and
function of nucleoid
DNA

A

In prokaryotic cells, the main DNA of the cell is
collectively called the nucleoid.
Unlike in eukaryotic cells, the nucleoid DNA is not
enclosed in a membrane.
The nucleoid DNA is a double helix that forms a
circular loop and is not wrapped around histone
proteins (termed “naked.”)

57
Q

3.2 Compare the
genetic material of
prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.

A

Prokaryotic DNA
-Circular
-One chromosome
-Naked
-Plasmids may be present
-No intron sequences
-Found in nucleoid region
-One origin of DNA replication
Eukaryotic DNA
-Linear
-Multiple chromosomes
-Associated with histones
-No plasmids
-Intron sequences present
-Contained in membrane bound nucleus
-Multiple origins of DNA replication

58
Q

3.2 List similarities in
the genetic material
of prokaryotes and
eukaryotes

A

In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells:
-The DNA is double helix made of two anti
-parallel strands of nucleotides linked by
hydrogen bonding between complementary base
pairs.
-The replication of DNA is semi-conservative and
depends on complementary base pairing.
-DNA is the genetic code for creating proteins
through transcription and translation.

59
Q

3.2 Describe the
structure and
function of plasmid
DNA

A

-plasmids are extra pieces of DNA found only in
prokaryotic cells.
-like nucleoid DNA, plasmid DNA is circular and
naked
-however plasmids are much smaller than the
main nucleoid DNA
-plasmids replicate independently of the nucleoid
DNA.
-plasmids are not found in all prokaryotic cells,
can be shared between bacteria and often
contain genes for antibiotic resistance.

60
Q

3.2 Describe the
structure of
eukaryotic DNA and
associated histone
proteins during
interphase.

A

Eukaryotic DNA is linear and associated with
histone proteins in a structure called the
nucleosome.

During interphase, the DNA is not super-coiled
into chromosomes; it is in a loose form called
chromatin.

61
Q

3.2 Explain why
chromatin DNA in
interphase is said to
look like “beads on
a string.

A

The base unit of chromatin is the nucleosome, a
structure composed of DNA wrapped around
histone proteins. A chain of nucleosomes gives
the appearance of “beads on a string.”

62
Q

3.2 List three ways
in which the types
of chromosomes
within a single cell
are different.

A

Chromosomes within a cell are different in:
- size (as measured by the # of base pairs)
- the genes they carry
- the sequence of the nitrogenous bases
the location of the centromere
- the banding pattern when stained

63
Q

3.2 State the
number of nuclear
chromosome types
in a human cell.

A

There are 24 types of human chromosomes. There
are 22 autosomes and 2 types of sex
chromosomes

64
Q

3.2 Define
homologous
chromosome

A

Homologous chromosomes a chromosome pair
(one from each parent), that carry the same
sequence of genes but not necessarily the same
alleles of those genes.

65
Q

3.2 State a similarity
and a difference
found between
pairs of
homologous
chromosomes.

A

Homologous chromosomes have:
-similar length
-the same genes at the same locus
-the majority of the same DNA base sequence
-the same centromere position
-will stain with the same pattern.

66
Q

3.2 Define “diploid.”

A

Diploid mean that the cell contains two complete
sets of the chromosomes, one chromosome
originating from each parent.
Diploid nuclei have pairs of homologous
chromosomes

67
Q

3.2 State an
advantage of being
diploid.

A

-being diploid means there are two copies of
each chromosome
-therefore two copies of each gene that the
chromosome carries.
-so if one of the chromosomes carries a
detrimental allele of a gene, there is a second
copy of the gene
-whose allele may be able to counter the effects
of the mutated version.
-essentially there is a “backup set of genes.”

68
Q

3.2 Define haploid.

A

Haploid mean that the cell contains only one set
of chromosomes; there are no homologous pairs
Haploid nuclei have one chromosome of each
pair

69
Q

3.2 Define
“karyogram.”

A

A karyogram is a micro-photograph of all
chromosomes of an individual represented in a
standard format.

70
Q

3.2 Outline the
structure and
function of the two
human sex
chromosomes.

A

The X chromosome is the larger of the two sex
chromosomes (a length of about 156 million bp
and 1805 genes)
The Y chromosome is much smaller (a length of
57 million bp and about 460 genes)

71
Q

3.2 Define
“autosome.”

A

An autosome is any chromosome that is not a sex
chromosome.

72
Q

3.2 Describe the
relationship
between the
genome size of a
species and the
species complexity
in structure,
physiology and
behavior.

A

There is a great variety of genome sizes. In
general, eukaryotes have larger genomes than
prokaryotes. However, the size of the genome
and the number of genes do not appear to
correlate to a species “complexity.

73
Q

3.2 State the
minimum
chromosome
number in
eukaryotes.

A

The minimum chromosome number in eukarvotes
is 2n=2

74
Q

3.2 Explain why the
typical number of
chromosomes in a
species is always an
even number.

A

-because of sexual reproduction
-in which each parent gives one set of
chromosomes
-resulting in an even number in the offspring.

75
Q

3.2 Explain why the
chromosome
number of a species
does not indicate
the number of
genes in the
species.

A

-its possible to have one large chromosome with
many genes
-or many smaller chromosomes with fewer genes.
-likewise, it’s possible to have large chromosomes
with relatively few genes
-smaller chromosomes that are packed full of
genes
-because genes refer to base sequences that
would lead to the translation of proteins
-genome contains non-coding sequences that
makes a part of the chromosome but not genes

76
Q

3.2 Outline the
advancement in
knowledge gained
from the
development of
autoradiography
techniques.

A

-autoradiography is used to produce an image of
a radioactive substance.
-the technique is used in cellular and molecular
biology to visualize structures.
-for example, autoradiography can be used to
visualize radioactively stained chromosomes
-bands in DNA electrophoresis gels, tissue
samples and single cells.

77
Q

3.3 Compare
divisions of meiosis I
and meiosis Il.

A

-in meiosis | there is a transition from diploid to
haploid
-while in meiosis II the nuclei contain only a
haploid number of chromosomes.
-in meiosis I chromosomes remain replicated
-but in meiosis I chromatids of chromosomes are
separated.
-meiosis I results in two haploid cells
-while meiosis Il results in four haploid cells.

78
Q

3.3 List three events
that occur in
other
prophase 1 of
meiosis.

A
  1. Homologous chromosomes pair up with each
    other
  2. A process called crossing over takes place
  3. Chromatids with new combinations of alleles
    are produced
79
Q

3.3 Define bivalent
and synapsis.

A

Bivalent: a pair of homologous chromosomes
Synapsis: the fusion of chromosome pairs in
prophase 1 of meiosis

80
Q

3.3 Outline the
process and result
of crossing over.

A

-a junction is created where one chromatid in
each of the homologous chromosomes breaks
-re-joins with the other chromatid.
-crossing over occurs at random positions
anywhere along the chromosomes.
-because a crossover occurs at precisely the
same position on the two chromatids involved,
there is a mutual exchange of genes between the
chromatids.

Result:
-chromatids with new combinations of alleles are
produced
-(because chromatids are homologous but not
identical
-some alleles of the exchanged genes are likely
to be different)

81
Q

3.3 Describe the
attachment of
spindle
microtubules to
chromosomes
during meiosis I.

A

-after the nuclear membrane has been broken
down, spindle microtubules attach to the
centromeres of the chromosomes.
-aach chromosome is attached to one pole only
(not both like in mitosis).
-the two homologous chromosomes in a bivalent
are attached to different poles.
-the pole to which each chromosome is attached
depends on which way the pair of chromosomes
if facing.
-this is called the orientation.
-the orientation of bivalents is random, so each
chromosome has an equal chance of attaching to
each pole, and eventually being pulled to it.
-the orientation of one bivalent does not affect
other bivalents.

82
Q

3.3 Describe
random orientation
of chromosomes
during meiosis I.

A

The orientation of bivalents is random, so each
chromosome has an equal chance of attaching to
each pole, and eventually being pulled to it.

83
Q

3.3 Define non-
disjunction

A

The failure of homologous chromosomes to
separate at anaphase.

84
Q

3.3 Describe the
cause and
symptoms of Down
syndrome.

A

Some symptoms include hearing loss, heart and
vision disorders as well as mental and growth
retardation.

85
Q

3.3 DiscUss
difficulties in
microscopic
examination of
dividing cells.

A

Often no cells in meiosis are visible or the images
are not clear enough to show details of the
process. (Even with prepared slides made by
experts it is difficult to understand the images as
chromosomes form a variety of bizarre shapes
during the stages of meiosis.

86
Q

3.3 Describe the
discovery of
meiosis.

A

From the 1880s onwards a group of German
biologists carried out careful and detailed
observations of dividing nuclei that gradually
revealed how mitosis and meiosis occur.

87
Q

3.4 Describe
conclusions from
Mendel’s pea plant
experiments.

A

Through selective breeding of pea plants, Mendel
discovered:
-that certain traits show up in offspring without
blending of the parent’s characteristics.
Mendel observed seven traits:
flower color
stem length
seed color
pod color
flower position
seed shape
pod shape.
Mendel concluded:
1. genetic “units” of inheritance are passed from
parents to offspring
2. the offspring inherits one “unit” from each
parent for each trait.
3. the “unit” may be masked or hidden (i.e.
recessive) in an individual but can still be passed
on to the next generation.

88
Q

3.4 Define gamete,
haploid, and
zygote.

A

A gamete is a reproductive cell, egg or sperm.
Gametes are haploid; containing a single set of
unpaired chromosomes.
Haploid cells contain a single set of unpaired
chromosomes and therefore only one allele of
each gene.
The zygote is the diploid cell that results from the
fusion of two haploid gametes during fertilization.

89
Q

3.4 State two
similarities and two
differences
between male and
female gametes

A

Both egg and sperm are haploid (23
chromosomes in humans) cells produced through
meiosis.
-the egg and sperm are very different in size and
shape. -eggs are large cells; sperm are much
smaller.
-sperm have flagella, egg do not.

90
Q

3.4 State the
maximum number
of alleles in a
diploid zygote.

A

Alleles are variations of a single gene. Although
there usually are multiple alleles for a gene in the
population, any single individual can only have a
maximum of two alleles of a gene, one allele on
each chromosome of a homologous pair.

91
Q

3.4 Define
“dominant allele.”
“recessive allele”,
and “co-dominant
alleles”

A

Dominant alleles show their effect even if the
individual is heterozygous, they can mask the
presence of another allele.
Recessive alleles only show their effect if the
individual has two copies (homozygous recessive),
otherwise their presence can be masked by a
dominant allele.
With codominant alleles, both alleles are
expressed equally; there isn’t masking of a
recessive by a dominant allele.

92
Q

3.4 State the usual
cause of one allele
being dominant
over another.

A

-the cause of allele dominance is complex and
can vary between genes.
-in general, the dominant allele codes for a
functioning proteins
-whereas the recessive allele codes for a less (or
non-) functioning protein.
-sometimes the recessive allele is the “normal” or
“healthy” version of the gene.

93
Q

3.4 Define “carrier”
as related to
genetic diseases.

A

A genetic carrier is an individual that has inherited
a recessive allele of a gene but does not display
the symptoms of the disease because they also
have the dominant (normal functioning) allele.
Carriers are heterozygous

94
Q

3.4 Define sex
linkage.

A

Sex linkage refers to genes located on the sex
chromosomes, X or Y. The genes expression,
inheritance pattern and effect on the phenotype
will differ between males and females.

95
Q

3.4 Outline Thomas
Morgan’s
elucidation of sex
linked genes with
Drosophila

A

-Thomas Hunt Morgan studied genetics of fruit
flies, Drosophila.
-he discovered sex-linked traits; traits that appear
to associate differently in males and females.
-flies normally have red eyes, but there was a
mutant male with white eyes.
-this white-eyed male was crossed with a red
eyed female (P generation).
-all offspring (Fl generation) were red-eyed
therefore red is dominant over white.
-then, two of the red-eyed offspring were
crossed (F1 X F1).
-in the offspring (F2), only males had white eyes,
-suggesting that the eye-color allele is carried on
the X-chromosome.

96
Q

3.4 Outline the
effects of gene
mutations in body
cells and gamete
cells.

A

-cell damage and death that result from mutations
in somatic cells
-occur only in the organism in which the mutation
occurred
-and are therefore termed somatic or non
heritable effects.
-cancer is the most notable long-term somatic
effect. In contrast, mutations that occur in germ
line cells (which become gametes, sperm and
egg)
-can be transmitted to future generations and are
therefore called genetic or heritable effects.
-genetic effects may not appear until many
generations later.

97
Q

3.4 Define
“mutation” as
related to genetic
diseases and
cancer.

A

A mutation is the permanent alteration of the
nucleotide sequence of the genome of an
organism.

98
Q

3.4 Define
“mutagen”, and how
it affects cells.

A

A mutagen is a chemical or physical agent that
causes mutations.Mutagens cause mutations in
three different ways:
1. Some are mistakenly used as bases when new
DNA is synthesized at the replication fork.
2. Some react directly with DNA, causing
structural changes that lead to miscopying of the
template strand when the DNA is replicated.
3. Some mutagens act indirectly on DNA. They do
not themselves affect DNA structure, but instead
cause the cell to synthesize chemicals that have a
direct mutagenic effect.

99
Q

3.4 Describe the
cause and effect of
red-green color
blindness.

A

-red-green color blindness is caused by a sex
linked recessive allele of a gene that
-codes for a protein (opsin) in the eye that is
sensitive to particular wavelengths of light.
-the mutated allele causes red-green color vision
defects.

100
Q

3.4 Describe the
cause and effect of
hemophilia.

A

Hemophilia is caused by a mutated allele of a
gene that codes for a essential protein in the
blood clotting process. Without proper clotting,
hemophiliacs are prone to excessive bleeding.

101
Q

3.4 Define
monohybrid, true
breeding, hybrid, Fl
and F2.

A

A monohybrid cross is a genetic cross between
two individuals, tracking one gene of interest.
True breeding organisms are those that have
been bred to have a homozygous genotype
The offspring of a cross between two parent
organisms, “first filial.”
The F2 generation is the result of a cross between
two F1 individuals.

102
Q

3.4 Explain the
reason why the
outcomes of
genetic crosses do
not usuallv
correspond exactly
with the predicted
outcomes.

A

The actual outcomes of a genetic cross may not
exactly match outcomes predicted based on a
Punnett square because there is an element of
chance in the segregation of alleles and
fertilization.

103
Q

3.4 Describe the
role of statistical
tests in deciding
whether an actual
result is a close fit
to a predicted
result.

A

-such as the chi-square test
-allow us to determine the probability of
observing a discrepancy between observed
(actual results) and expected (predicted results).
-in other words, statistics help us determine the
chance of getting the observed results given what
was expected.

104
Q

3.4 Outline the
conventions for
constructing
pedigree charts

A

A pedigree chart is a diagram that shows the
occurrence of a phenotype in generations of a
family.
Male = square
Female = circle
Shaded = affected

105
Q

3.4 List three
biological research
methods pioneered
by Mendel.

A

-large number of replicates to demonstrate
reliability of results
-repeats of whole experiments.
-obtaining quantitative results, not only qualitative
descriptions.

106
Q

3.5 Contrast sticky
vs. blunt ends.

A

Blunt ends are also called non-cohesive ends,
since there is no unpaired DNA strand fleeting at
the end of DNA. The sticky ends, a.k.a. cohesive
ends, have unpaired DNA nucleotides on either
5’- or 3’- strand, which are known as overhangs.22
Jul 2020

107
Q

3.5 Explain the
function and
purpose of DNA
electrophoresis.

A

Electrophoresis is used to separate molecules
according to their size and/or charge.
-the result is a series of “bands” that each contain
molecules of a particular size
-the band pattern can be used to identify
individuals for:
-forensic analvsis
-paternity testing
-determining evolutionary relationships
-testing for alleles associated with disease

108
Q

3.5 Describe the
selectivity of the
PCR.

A

A specific section of DNA can be copied using
PC> By using primers that are specific to a
certain sequence of nucleotides, only the
targeted region will be copied

109
Q

3.5 Outline how the
universality of the
genetic code allows
for gene transfer
between species.

A

-the universal genetic code is a common
language for almost all organisms
-to translate nucleotide sequences of DNA and
RNA to amino acid sequences of proteins.
-because organisms all use the same code, a gene
can be removed from one species, inserted into
another and the recipient species will transcribe
and translate the gene to create a functional
protein.

110
Q

3.5 Define “cloning.”

A

Cloning means to make an identical copy of [a
DNA sequence, cell, tissue or organism].

111
Q

3.5 Outline why
plasmids with genes
coding for antibiotic
resistance are
chosen as vectors in
gene transfer
between species.

A

some, but not all bacteria will accept a
recombinant plasmid into their cell.
-How do we know which bacteria have the taken
in the recombinant plasmid and which ones
didn’t?
-by using a plasmid with a gene for antibiotic
resistance, the bacteria can be grown on a growth
medium that included an antibiotic.
-only bacteria containing the recombinant plasmid
can survive; the rest will die.

112
Q

3.5 Compare
therapeutic cloning
to reproductive
cloning.

A

Reproductive cloning produces copies of whole
animals.
Therapeutic cloning produces embryonic stem
cells for experiments aimed at creating tissues to
replace inured or diseased tissues.

113
Q

3.5 List examole
applications of
gene transfer
between species.

A

Human insulin protein produced by bacteria
Salt-tolerant tomato plant
Vitamin A produced in rice
Herbicide resistance in crop plants
Blood clotting factor produced in sheep milk

114
Q

3.1 Why does the
proteome of a
species contain a
larger number of
proteins than can
be coded for by the
genome of the
same species?

A

Because there is differential and development-
specific expression of genes.
Some genes can code for several proteins that
are expressed during the various stages of
development.

115
Q

3.4 A mutation in
the CFTR gene
causes cystic
fibrosis. Which
protein does this
gene code for?

A

A chloride channel in the mucous membrane; The
gene is found on chromosome number 7 and
codes for a protein that causes a faulty chloride
channel to be embedded in cell membranes. This
results in an effect on the secretion of sweat,
mucus and digestive juices.

116
Q

3.3 State the
importance of
meiosis in the
production of
gametes to allow a
sexual life cycle.

A

-meiosis enables a constant chromosome number
to be maintained through the generations
-otherwise chromosome number would double
every generation

117
Q

3.3 Explain how
Down syndrome
could be caused by:
(I) The
chromosomes in a
bivalent failing to
separate
(ii) a centromere
dividing during
meiosis I

A

(I) chromosomes in a bivalent should move to
opposite poles in anaphase I:
both chromosomes in the bivalent move to the
same pole if fails to split;
one cell from meiosis I has two of the pair of
chromosomes and the other has none

(II) one chromatid becomes separated from
bivalent;
the separated chromosome may move to the
same pole as the intact chromosome of the two
chromatids in the bivalent;
centromeres should divide in meiosis Il;