Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[PBR] MSK Radiology > Benign Lucent Bone lesions > Flashcards

Benign Lucent Bone lesions Flashcards

1
Q

Enumerate FEGNOMASHIC

A

Fibrous dysplasia, Enchondroma, Eosinophilic granuloma, Giant cell tumor, Nonossifying fibroma, Osteoblastoma, Metastatic disease and Myeloma, Aneurysmal Bone Cyst, Solitary bone cyst, Hyperparathyroidism (Brown tumors), Hemangiomas, Infection, Chondroblastoma, Chondromyxoid fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fibrous dysplasia can be seen at what age

A

any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

discriminator for fibrous dysplasia

A

no periosteal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 discriminator for enchondroma

A

calcification present (except in phalanges), painless (no periostitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

discriminator for eosinophilic granuloma

A

younger than 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

4 discriminator for giant cell tumor

A
  • closed physes,
  • abuts the articular surface (in long bones),
  • well defined with a nonsclerotic margin (in long bones),
  • eccentric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2 discriminator for nonossifying fibroma

A

younger than age 30, painless (no periostitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

discriminator for osteoblastoma

A

mentioned when ABC is mentioned (especially in the posterior elements of the spine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

discriminator for metastatic diseases and myeloma

A

older than age 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 discriminator for aneurysmal bone cyst

A

expansile, younger than age 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 discriminator for solitary bone cyst

A

central, younger than age 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 discriminator for hyperparathyroidism (brown tumor)

A

must have other evidence of HPT, rare, may be multiple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

discriminator for infection

A

always mention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 discriminator for chondroblastoma

A

younger than age 30, epipiphyseal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

discriminator for chondromyxoid fibroma

A

no calcified matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

most common form of fibrous dysplasia

A

monostotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

4 predilection of fibrous dysplasia

A

PPRS

  • pelvis,
  • proximal femur,
  • ribs and
  • skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

typical appearance of fibrous dysplasia in the ribs

A

expansile, lytic appearance in posterior ribs, sclerotic appearance in the anterior ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

classic description of fibrous dysplasia

A

ground glass or smoky matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lesion that resembles fibrous dysplasia in the tibia

A

adamantinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

it is a malignant tumor that radiographically and histologically resembles fibrous dysplasia

A

adamantinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

adamantinoma is common in what 2 parts of the body

A

tibia and jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia occassionally occurs in association with cafe au lait spots on the skin and precocious puberty

A

McCune Albright syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

McCune Albright syndrome is commonly unilateral or bilateral

A

unilateral, affecting 1/2 of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

multiple lesions of fibrous dysplasia in the jaw is called

A

cherubism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

true or false: jaw lesions in cherubisms regress in adulthood

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

most common benign lytic lesion in the phalanges. invariably contain calcified chondroid matrix except when in the phalanges of the hands and feet

A

echondromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how to differentiate bone infarct from enchondroma

A

infarct usually has a well-defined, densely sclerotic serpiginous border, enchondroma does not. enchondroma often causes mild endosteal scalloping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

multiple enchondromas has been termed

A

Ollier disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

presence of multiple enchondromas associated with soft tissue hemangiomas is known as

A

Maffucci syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

true or false: Maffucci syndrome carries a high risk of malignant degeneration than Ollier disease

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

typical appearance of enchondroma other than in the phalanges

A

stippled punctate calcification typical of chondroid matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

also known as langerhans cell histiocytosis; is the most common and least severe form of LCH, with the other forms being Letterer-Siwe disease and Hand-Schuller-Christian disease

A

Eosinophilic granuloma

34
Q

eosinophilic granuloma is commonly of what type

A

monostotic

35
Q

bony sequestrum is typical of osteomyelitis, but can also be seen in what benign lesion especially in young patients

A

eosinophilic granuloma

36
Q

aside from osteomyelitis and EG, bony sequestrum can also be seen in (3)

A

lymphoma, fibrosarcoma, osteoid osteoma may simulate sequestrum if it shows calcification

FLO

37
Q

uncommon tumor found almost exclusively in adults in the ends of long bones and in flat bones

A

Giant cell tumor

38
Q

giant cell tumor must be at what part of the bone

A

epiphyseal and abut the articular surface

39
Q

very helpful finding in GCT; not applicable to flat bones, such as pelvis and calcaneus

A

sharply defined zone of transition (border) that is not sclerotic

40
Q

3 locations where giant cell tumors often occur

A

sacrum, pelvis and calcaneus

41
Q

also called fibroxanthoma, is probably the most common bone lesion encountered by radiologists

A

non-ossifying fibroma

42
Q

benign, asymptomatic lesions that typically occur in the metaphysis of a long bone, emanating from the cortex

A

non ossifying fibroma

43
Q

classic appearance of NOF

A

sclerotic border, scalloped and slightly expansile

44
Q

true or false: NOFs routinely “heal” with sclerosis and eventually disappear, usually around ages of 20 to 30 years

A

true

45
Q

NOFs may appear hot on a radionuclide bone scan because there is

A

osteoblastic activity

46
Q

true or false: NOFs can occasionally get quite large, therefore, growth or change in size should not alter the diagnosis

A

true

47
Q

NOFs are most commonly seen in what part

A

knee

48
Q

two appearance of osteoblastoma

A

looks like large osteoid osteoma and are often called giant osteoid osteomas, primarily sclerotic lesions due to reactive bone formation and do not resemble bubbly lucent lesions; simulates ABCs, often having a soap bubble appearance

49
Q

common location of osteoblastomas

A

posterior elements of vertebral bodies

50
Q

appearance of calcifications in osteoblastomas

A

speckled calcifications

51
Q

metastatic disease should be considered for any lytic lesion-benign or aggressive in appearance- in a patient of what age

A

more than 40 years of age

52
Q

diffuse permeative process in the skeleton

A

myeloma

53
Q

bubbly, lytic bone lesions of myeloma are more correctly called

A

plasmacytomas

54
Q

in general, lytic expansile metastatic diseases tend to come from

A

thyroid and renal tumors

55
Q

metastatic lesion that is said to always be lytic is

A

renal cell carcinoma

56
Q

characteristic appearance of plasmacytoma involving vertebral body on CT and MRI

A

“mini-brain”

57
Q

common location for plasmacytoma aside from the vertebral body

A

ilium

58
Q

aneurysmal bone cysts virtually always presents as (2)

A

expansile; also fluid-fluid levels

59
Q

secondary ABCs have been said to occur with

A

giant cell tumors, osteosarcomas and many other lesions

60
Q

said to be pathognomonic for a unicameral bone cyst

A

fallen fragment sign

61
Q

only lesion in FEGNOMASHIC that is always central in location

A

solitary/unicameral bone cyst

62
Q

2/3 to 3/4 of these lesions occur in the proximal humerus and proximal femur

A

solitary/unicameral bone cyst

63
Q

solitary bone cyst pattern of growth

A

begin at the physeal plate in long bones and grow into the shaft of the bone

PP-S

64
Q

common location of solitary bone cyst in the calcaneus

A

inferior surface of the calcaneus

65
Q

pathognomonic finding for HPT

A

subperiosteal bone resorption

66
Q

4 common location of HPT

A
  • radial aspect of the middle phalanges,
  • medial aspect of proximal tibia,
  • distal clavicles and
  • sacroiliac joints
67
Q

also known as cystic angiomatosis or cystic lymphangiomatosis

A

hemangiomas

68
Q

massive osteolysis or disappearing bone disease

A

Gorham disease

69
Q

focus of devitalized bone that does not have a blood supply and will not be effectively treated with parenteral medication

A

sequestrum

70
Q

abscess collection in the proximal humerus

A

Brodie’s abscess

71
Q

rare lesions but are among the easiest lesions for radiologists to deal with because they occur in the epiphyses

A

chondroblastomas

72
Q

3 differential diagnosis of a lytic lesion in the epiphysis of a patient less than 30 years of age are:

A

infection,chondroblastoma, GCT

73
Q

four disease process that presents with subchondral cyst or geode

A
  • degenerative joint disease,
  • RA,
  • calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal disposition disease or pseudogout and
  • avascular necrosis
74
Q

basically resembles NOFs but can occur at any age

A

chondromyxoid fibroma

75
Q

5 lesions in patients younger than 30 years of age

A

E-SCAN

EG, 
ABC, 
NOF, 
chondroblastoma, 
solitary bone cyst
76
Q

4 lesions that have no pain or periostitis

A

FENS

fibrous dysplasia,
enchondroma,
NOF,
solitary bone cyst

77
Q

4 epiphyseal lesions

A

IG-CG

  • infection,
  • GCT,
  • chondroblastoma,
  • Geode
78
Q

5 differential for rib lesions

A

(FAMEE)

  • fibrous dysplasia,
  • ABC,
  • metastatic disease and myeloma,
  • enchondroma and
  • EG
79
Q

7 multiple lesions

A

FEEMHHI

  • fibrous dysplasia,
  • EG,
  • enchondroma,
  • metastatic disease and myeloma,
  • HPT,
  • hemangiomas,
  • infection
80
Q

difference between epiphyses and apophyses

A

epiphyses contribute to the length of bone, whereas apophyses serve as tendon and ligament attachment sites

81
Q

sclerotic focus identified in a 20 to 40 year old patient, especially if asymptomatic, incidental finding, the following lesions should be considered (6):

A

AB-SC-EN

  • NOF,
  • EG,
  • ABC,
  • solitary
  • bone cyst and
  • chondroblastoma

[PBR] MSK Radiology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions