BB CH 9 KD Flashcards
- True or False. Animals classified in the genus Lepus are the only true hares.
True
__________ _________ is the only domesticated rabbit
Oryctolagus cuniculas
- True or False. The Belgian Hare is derived from the genus Lepus.
False; the Belgian Hare is derived from Oryctolagus cuniculas
- What are the two families in the order Lagomorpha?
Ochotonidae (pikas) and Leporidae (rabbits and hares)
- What genus does the cottontail rabbit belong to?
Sylvilagus
- What is the most common use of the rabbit in research?
Production of polyclonal antibodies
- Why is the rabbit preferred for polyclonal antibody production?
Large body size and blood volume; easy access to vascular system; large amount of information available on purification of immunoglobulins
- True or False. Rabbit models of human disease include hydrocephalus induced by hypovitaminosis A, hypervitaminosis A, acute respiratory syndrome induced by phorbol myristate acetate, inflammatory bowel disease, and diabetes mellitus.
True
- What are the six rabbit cancer models listed by the AFIP?
VX-2 tumor spontaneous endometrial adenocarcinoma, monoclonal gammopathies, nephroblastoma lymphoblastic leukemia, malignant fibroma
- The VX-2 carcinoma results from the malignant transformation of the viral induced _______ _________.
Shope papilloma
- What is the most common neoplasm in aged rabbits?
Enometrial adenocarcinoma
- What chemical is used to induce nephroblastomas in pregnant does
Ethylnitrosurea
13. The rabbit has been used to study infectious diseases, including: A. Campylobacter enteritis B. Chagas disease C. cryptococcal meningitis D. Herpes simplex encephalitis E. staphylococcal blepharitis F. all of the above
F; all of the above
- What is WHHL?
Watanabe heritable hyperlipidemia
- What deficiency is seen in the WHHL rabbit?
Low density lipoprotein receptors in the liver
- The St. Thomas Hospital strain has a _______ (normal, abnormal) functioning _____ (LDL, HDL) receptor but still maintains a hypercholesterolemic state.
normal; LDL
- What is the dental formal in the rabbit?
i2/1, c0/0, pm3/2, m2-3/2 X2= 26-28 teeth
- What are the peg teeth? Where are the peg teeth located? What is the function of the peg teeth
Peg teeth are a small pair of incisors directly caudal to the primary maxillary inciosrs; the peg teeth are used to bite and shear food.
- True or False. Molars do not have roots and are characterized by deep enamel folds.
True
- What are the salivary glands in the rabbits? Which salivary glands are paired? Which gland is the largest?
Parotid, submaxillary, sublingual, and zygomatic; all are paired; parotid is largest
- Which salivary gland does not have a counterpart in humans?
zygomatic
- True or False. The esophagus of the rabbit has separate portions of striated and smooth muscle along its length.
False; the esophagus of the rabbit has 3 layers of striated muscle that extend the length of the esophagus down to the and including the cardia of the stomach.
- What are the parts of the rabbit’s stomach?
cardia, fundus, pylorus
Does the rabbit have a gall bladder? Name two animals that do not have a gall bladder.
Yes. Rabbits have a Gall Bladder. Horses and Rats do not have gall bladders.
- How do kits receive most of their passive immunity?
VIa the yolk sac prior to birth (not the colostrum)
- What is the sacculus rotundus?
lymphoid tissues at ileo-cecal junction
- What are cecotrophs?
Fecal pellets that contain nitrogen (niacin, riboflavin, pantothenate, and cyanocobalamin. Rabbits consume them directly from the anus.
- True or False. The musculature of the thoracic wall contributes directly to the respiratory effort in the rabbit.
False; the activity of the diaphragm contributes directly to the respiratory effort of in the rabbit.
- How is artificial respiration in the rabbit performed? Why is this method important? What method of artificial respiration should not be used?
Alternating the head of the rabbit in the up and down position 30-34 times per minute; this method best simulates the rabbit’s natural respirations. Chest compression is ineffective. musculature of the thoracic wall contributes little to the rabbit’s respiratory efforts.
- What features of the rabbit makes endotracheal intubation difficult to perform?
Long and narrow pharynx; large tongue; laryngospasms
- The rabbit lungs consist of _____ lobes. What is the lobe pattern
6 lobes; R and L have cranial, middle, caudal lobes with the caudal lobe divided into lateral and medial portions.
- Characterize the tricuspid valve in the rabbit heart
tricuspid valve has only two cusps
- The aortic nerve responds only to __________ (chemoreceptors, baroreceptors).
baroreceptors
- The blood supply to the brain is mainly via the ______ _________ _______.
internal carotid artery
- The kidney of the rabbit is:
A. Unipapillate
B. multipapillate
C. Neither A nor B
Unipapillate
- In the kidney, the medullary tissue may be perfused while the cortex is ischemic. Why does this happen?
blood vessels that perfuse the medulla remain open during many conditions
- Can creatinine clearance be used to measure the glomerular filtration rate? Why or why not?
Yes; rate of creatinine clearance is equal to that of inulin clearance.
- True or False. Albuminuria can be found in young healthy rabbits.
True
- In normal rabbits, the urine:
A. Is normally yellow, but can take on reddish to brown hues.
B. Usually has few cells, bacteria or casts.
C. Has a pH at about 8.2
D. Is typically cloudy in adults due to relatively high concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium monohydrate precipitates.
E. All of the above.
E, all of the above
- Differentiate between the urethral orifices in the buck and the doe
Bucks: rounded orifice
Does: slitlike orifice
- Why is it necessary to close the superficial inguinal ring when performing an orchiectomy by open technique?
To prevent herniation.
- True or False. The two uterine horns are connected to the vagina by separate cervices (bicornuate uterus).
True (bicornuate uterus)
- What type of placenta is found in the pregnant rabbit?
Hemochorial
- Including the ____ the rabbit has a relatively _______ (low, high) metabolic rate.
ears, the rabbit has a low metabolic rate
- What is the result of fasting a neonatal rabbit?
Hypoglycemia and ketosis
46. The normal temperature of an adult New Zealand white rabbit at rest is: A. 37.5-39.0° C B. 38.5-39.5° C C. 38.0-39.5° C D. 37.5-38.5° C E. 38.5-39.0° C
b. 38.5-39.5
- Explain the importance of the ears in thermoregulation.
Ears have large surface area with an extensive arteriovenous anastomosis system. This helps the rabbit snese and respond to cold and warm temperatures. They also can adjust body temp through a countercurrent heat exchange system.
- Rabbits deprived of water will ______ (increase, decrease) their food consumption
decrease
- ________is normal and accounts for the variation in reported values for RBC diameter
anisocytosis
50. The life span of the rabbit RBC averages \_\_\_\_\_\_\_days but some could survive up to \_\_\_\_ days. A. 57, 67 B. 75, 87 C. 50, 60 D. 55, 66 E. 67, 75
57, 67
- The neutrophil in the rabbit is also known as the pseudoeosinophil or the ______. Why?
Heterophil; red-staining granules in the cytoplasm; But, heterophils are smaller than eosinophils.
- What is Pelger-Huet anomaly
Heterophil nucleus is hyposegmented due to incomplete differentiation of the granulocytes.
53. Collection of blood samples in rabbits by what method(s) elevates AST levels due to muscle damage? A. Decapitation B. Cardiac puncture C. Aortic incision D. Restraint that causes exertion E. All of the above
E. all of the above
- How many forms of alkaline phosphatase are found in the rabbit? What are they? How does this differ from most other mammals?
Three. One intestinal form and two forms in the liver and kidney. Most other mammals only have two forms of AP, intestinal and liver/bone/kidney.
- Rabbits are ________ (herbivores, omnivores) with a preferred diet that is _____ (low, high) in fiber and _____ (low, high) in protein and soluble carbohydrate.
Herbivores. Low in Fiber. High in Protein
- True or False. Rabbits prefer feed in meal form over pelleted form.
False; rabbits like pellets.
- What is the average life span of the rabbit?
5-7 years
- What is the result of prolonged feeding of diets high in calcium?
Renal Disease
- What is the result of feeding a diet containing excessive Vitamin D?
Calcification of soft tissues
- What is the result of too much or too little Vitamin A in the diet?
Reproductive dysfunction and congenital hydrocephalus.
- What is the daily water intake in the rabbit?
120 ml/kg body weight
- Laboratory reared rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal), while wild rabbits are ______ (diurnal, nocturnal).
diurnal, nocturnal
- At what age does puberty occur in the New Zealand white rabbit?
5-7 months of age
- True or False. Ovulation in the doe is induced.
True
- How long is the breeding life of the doe?
1-3 years
66. Ovulation in the doe can be induced with: A. Luteinizing hormone B. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Gonadotropin releasing hormone D. Copulation E. All of the above
e, all of the above
- When can pregnancy in the doe be confirmed? How?
11 days, radiographically and 14 days by palpation
- What is the length of gestation in the rabbit?
30-33 days
- Pseudopregnancy is common in the rabbit and can follow a variety of stimuli, including:
A. Administration of human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Administration gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. Presence of pregnant does nearby
D. Presence of neonates from other does
E. None of the above
e, none of the above; Administration of LH, mating with a sterile male, mounting by does, and presence of bucks nearby
- Parturition is also known ___________.
kindling
- True or False. Breech and anterior presentations are normal in the rabbit.
True
- What is the average number of kits born?
7-9
- What influences litter size?
breed, parity, nutritional status, environmental factors
- True or False. Both does and bucks have 4-5 pairs of nipples
False; bucks have none
- When are kits generally weaned?
5-8 weeks
- According to both the Guide, what is the appropriate cage size for a 2-4 kg rabbit? 1.8 kg? 5.6 kg? 5 kg?
less than 2 Kg = 1.5 ft2
up to 4 Kg = 3 ft2
up to 5.4 Kg = 4 ft2
more than 5.4 Kg >= 5 ft2
- According to the Guide, what is the recommended temperature for the rabbit?
61-72 degrees ___*
- In breeding colonies, females should have ________ (10-12, 12-14, 14-16) hours of light
females should have 14-16 hours of light
What is the most common clinical manifestation of pasteurellosis in rabbits? A. Septicemia B. Rhinitis with or without sinusitis C. Otitis D. Diarrhea
B. Rhinitis w/ or w/o sinusitis
The common name for Pasteurella induced rhinitis is __________________________?
Snuffles
Rabbits with rhinitis also typically develop an associated conjunctivitis. True or False
True
Clinical signs for conjunctivitis include all of the following except: A. Head Tilt B. Mucopurulent ocular discharge C. Conjunctival bleeding D. Swollen eyelids E. Epiphora F. Periocular alopecia
A, head tilt
Pneumonia is a common clinical condition associated with Pasteurella infections. True or False
True
Pasteurella multocida infection can cause:
A. Rhinitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Otitis Media and Interna
D. Subcutaneous and visceral abscesses
E. Septicemia
F. All of the Above
F. All of the above.
Rabbits that develop Pasteurella septicemia generally die without any clinical signs. True or False
True
How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted
direct contact; aerosol/venerally are less common
When do rabbits become infected with Pasteurella multocida?
AT weaning
Pasteurella infection is never a subclinical disease in rabbits. True or False
False
What type of lung distribution is the typical Pasteurella pneumonia?
Cranioventral
Necropsy findings of Pasteurella pneumonia can include all of the following except:
A. Overinflation of the lungs
B. Atelectasis and consolidation
C. Abscess formation
D. Fibropurulent exudate
E. Fibrinopurulent pleuritis and pericarditis
A. over-inflation
Pasteurella organisms colonize the ________________________________________
Nasopharyngeal mucosa
What is the most definitive means of diagnosis of Pasteurella? ____________________________
culture
Rabbits are typically vaccinated for Pasteurella by vendors. True or False
False, no vaccine available.
Pasteurella-free colonies have been developed by:
A. Culture and culling the positives
B. Serological testing and culling the positives
C. Treating pregnant does with enrofloxacin past kindling and using the kits to form the
negative colony
D. Rederivation techniques
E. A and C
E
- When using procaine penicillin G in treating pasteurellosis in rabbits, one must be cautious to prevent
the development of _________________________________.
clostridial enterotoxemia
19) Rabbits typically remain culture positive from the nasal passages even with antibiotic treatment.
True or False
True
- There has been one exception to the statement in number 19, treatment with
______________________ has shown some rabbits to be culture negative post treatment
Enrofloxacin
What antibiotics have been used to treat pasteurellosis in rabbits? A. Enrofloxacin B. Tilmicosin C. Procaine penicillin G D. Clindamycin E. All of the above except D
E
What is the most common research complication associated with pasteurellosis?
________________________________________________________________________
Infection of injection sites in rabbits used for polyclonal antisera production.
- What is the etiologic agent of Tyzzer’s disease?
Clostridial piliforme
Clostridium piliforme is a ____________________ bacterium and is an _____________
______________ pathogen.
spore-forming; obligate intracellular
Clostridium piliforme can only be cultured in artificial media. True/False
False; requires tissue culture or embryonated egg media
List three possible clinical signs of Tyzzer’s disease. _____________, _____________, ___________
diarrhea, anorexia, dehydration, lethargy
Acute outbreaks of Tyzzer’s disease are characterized by high morbidity and low mortality. True/False
false, 90%mortality
Transmission of Clostridium piliforme is via the _________________ route
Fecal-oral
C. piliforme may cause what type of gross lesions in the liver and myocardium? _________________
pinpoint white foci
Gross lesions within the intestinal tract include: ______________, _____________, _______________
hemorrhage on serosal cecal surface, thickened edematous bowel walls, necrotic foci within the mucosa
Histologically, hepatic foci of necrosis are surrounded by __________________.
polymorphonuclear neutrophils
- What two stains can be used to identify the bacteria at the periphery of the necrotic lesions caused by
C. piliforme? _____________________ and ________________________
Warthin-Starry or Giesma
Tyzzer’s disease can be diagnosed by: _____________, _____________________,_______________
ELISA, Indirect immunoflourescence, special stains
What is the best way to prevent Tyzzer’s
Sanitization, decrease stress
Spores can be deactivated by using ___________________ or ________________________.
1% peracetic acid, 3% sodium hyp0chlorite
What is the primary causative agent of enterotoxemia? _____________________
Clostridium spiroforme
C. spiroforme infected rabbits usually present with signs of chronic diarrhea and emaciation. True/False
False, often acute death with no signs
- _____________________ can be associated with overgrowth and proliferation of the C. spiroforme
organisms to cause enterotoxemia.
A. Antibiotics administered
B. Change in gut flora associated with weaning
C. Coinfection with other bacteria
D. A & C
E. All of the above
E
To definatively diagnose enterotoxemia, ______________ is required.
A. Sera for ELISA
B. Isolation of the organism
C. Presence of Iota toxin from centrifuged cecal contents
D. All of the above can be used
E. B & C only
E
. C. spiroforme has a ________________ appearance in fecal smears
helically, coiled, semicircular
Rabbits should be vaccinated at weaning. True/False
No vaccine–FAlse
- _____________________________ has been proposed for the treatment because it binds the bacterial
toxins.
oral cholestyramine
- Strains of __________________ coding for the ______________ gene are particularly pathogenic in
rabbits.
E. Coli, eae
The gene identified in question 46 encodes for what protein? ___________________________
Intimin
The protein identified in question 47 is a
A. Toxin producer
B. Outer membrane protein needed for development of attaching and effacing lesions
C. A surface protein that mimics self protein to avoid detection by the immune system
D. None of the above
B, outer membrane protein needed for development and attaching and effacing lesions
Which of the following has been identified as a clinical syndrome?
A. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality
B. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality
C. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality
D. All of the Above
D
- Weanling rabbits typically develop a severe yellow diarrhea with high mortality, while suckling rabbits
usually develop a profuse watery diarrhea with variable mortality depending upon the virulence of the
infecting strain. True/False
False; it is the opposite
Match the following with the correct serotype(s):
1. Neonatal diarrhea with high mortality A. O15:H B. O190:H2 2. Weanling diarrhea with high mortality C. O128 D. O103:H2 3. Weanling diarrhea with low mortality E. O132 F. O123
1 = B 2 = A,D 3 = C,E,F
Gross necropsy findings may include all of the following except:
A. Thickened and edematous ileal, cecal and colonic walls +/- mucosal ulcerations
B. Swollen edematous kidneys with foci of necrosis
C. Yellow-brown feces within the entire intestinal tract of neonates
D. Watery brown cecal contents +/- serosal hemorrhages
B. Swollen kidneys
. Histologic lesions may include:
A. Flattened and disorganized intestinal epithelium
B. Colonies of coliforms attached to the intestinal mucosal surface
C. Neutrophil infiltration of the lamina propia
D. Villus atrophy
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
- Attachment of coliforms to the intestinal mucosal surface and effacement of epithelial cells leads to the
loss of the microvillus border and thus leads to an osmotic diarrhea. True/False
False, secretory diarrhea
- Definative diagnosis requires culture of E. coli from feces followed by somatic and flagellar serotyping
to correlate with a known enteropathgenic strain. True/False
True
Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Commercial vaccines are available
B. Good sanitation is important in stopping the spread of disease
C. Chloramphenicol and neomycin have been used successfully to treat this disease
D. Mortality is the major research complication
E. All of the above are true
F. B, C and D are true
F
Treponematosis is caused by ________________ and is related to _________________ (human
syphilis).
Treponema paraluis cuniculi, Terponema pallidum
The causative agent is a gram positive cocci. True/False
False, gram negative, spiral shaped rod
How is the organism transmitted? ______________________
During breeding
- The typical treponemal lesions occur in the vulvar and preputial areas but other mucocutaneous
junctions can be affected. True/False
True
The typical lesions:
A. May resolve after many weeks
B. May cause enlargement of the lymph nodes
C. Begin with swelling and erythema +/- vesicles or papules
D. Progress to ulceration with scaling and crusting
E. Can be considered chronic in nature
F. All of the above
F
The two other names for treponematosis are ___________ and __________________.
Rabbit syphilis and venereal spirochetosis
- Clinical evidence is very common in rabbit colonies while serologic evidence of infection is
uncommon. True/False
False: it’s the opposite
What type of stain can be used to identify the spirochete? ___________________________
Warthrin-Starry Silver Stain
Diagnosis can be made by:
A. Culture
B. Demonstration of spirochetes in lesions
C. Serologically by using assays designed to diagnose human syphilis
D. A & C
E. B & C
E
What antibiotic is an effective treatment? __________________________–
Penicillin
Treatment of all animals simultaneously has not been shown to eradicate the infection from a colony.
True/False
False- it is effective
The causative agent of proliferative enteropathy is ______________________.
Lawsonia intracellularis
Choose all that apply: The organism is : A. Gram Negative F. A virus B. Gram Positive G. Coccoid C. An obligate intracellular bacterium D. An extracellular bacterium E. Curved
A, gram negative
C, Obligate intracellular bacterium
E, Curved
The organism is species specific to rabbits. True/False
False: affects hamsters, pigs, rhesus
What age group is most commonly affected? _______________________
Weanlings
What is the most striking feature grossly at necropsy? ____________________________
Thickening/corrugation of the ileum
The organisms are most easily found
A. Within the lumen of the intestines
B. In the cytoplasm of the lymphoctyes in the lamina propia
C. In the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
D. Within the nucleus of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
C, in the cytoplasm of the crypt epithelial cells of the ileum
How is the organism diagnosed?
A. PCR
B. Histologic identification of the organism in the cytoplasm of crypt cells
C. Immunohistochemistry
D. Culture of the bacteria in cultured enterocytes
E. All of the above
E
- Myxomatosis is endemic in rabbits of the genus ______________________ but fatal in rabbits of the
genus ____________________.
Sylvilagus, Oryctolagus
Myxomatosis, the fatal disease, is characterized by A. Fibroma-like lesions B. Wart-like lesions C. Granuloma formation D. Mucinous skin lesions
D. Mucinous skin lesions
How is a definative diagnosis of myxomatosis made? ____________________________
Viral culture
How is myxomatosis spread? ___________________________________________________
direct contact, fleas, mosquitos
Myxomatosis, the endemic disease is characterized by: A. Fibroma-like lesions B. Wart-like lesions C. Granuloma formation D. Mucinous skin lesions
A, fibroma like lesions
- How can one distinguish the fibroma-like lesions caused by the fibroma virus from the fibroma-like
lesions caused by the myxoma virus in Slyvilagus? _______________________________________
Inject bibroma material into Oryctolagus rabbits; if they develop fibromas, it is the fibroma virus; if they develop mucinous lesions, it is the myxoma virus
Characterize the fibromas caused by the fibroma virus. ________________________________
Flat, SQ, easily moveable tumors
Which of the following may be found in a rabbit pox virus infection?
A. Eye lesions consisting of blepharitis, conjunctivitis, keratitis with corneal ulcers
B. Edematous face
C. Wide spread skin lesions
D. Fever and nasal discharge
E. Extensive nodules in multiple organs with widespread necrosis at necropsy
F. All of the above
F, all of the above may be found
- Histologically, multiple characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions typical of a pox virus infection can be
found in a rabbit poxvirus infection. True/False
False, inclusions are rare
- Herpesvirus sylvilagus is known as ______________________ and is isolated from
__________________.
Leporid herpesvirus 1, cottontail rabbits
Herpesvirus cuniculi is known as _________________ and is isolated from _________________.
Leporid herpesvirus 2, domestic rabbits
The cottontail papilloma virus is used as a model to study _____________ and ____________.
oncogenic virus biology, induction of protective immunity against papillomaviruses
Rotavirus is ubiquitous and causes a high rate of morbidity and mortality. True/False
FAlse, rare clinical disease
Which of the following are possible disease manifestations of a coronavirus infection? A. Liver failure B. Congestive heart failure C. Kidney failure D. Diarrhea E. A & D F. B & D
F, CHF and Diarrhea
Calicivirus causes a disease called ______________________________.
Rabbit hemorrhagic disease
What is the only consistent microscopic lesion in calicivirus infections? _____________________
Periportal hepatic necrosis
What is the typical cause of death with RHD? ____________________________
DIC
RHD can be transmitted by A. Intestinal secretions B. Fomites C. Respiratory secretions D. All of the Above E. B & C
D, all of the above
Hepatic coccidiosis is caused by _____________________________.
Eimeria stiedae
Which of the following statements about hepatic coccidiosis is true?
A. Transmission occurs via fecal-oral route
B. Prevention can be achieved by adding sulfaquinozaline to the feed
C. Most clinical signs develop due to blockage of the bile ducts and the resulting liver
dysfunction
D. Diagnosis can be made by: fecal floatation, oocyst identification in gall bladder exudate,
or on impression smear of cut liver sections
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
The greatest mortality from intestinal coccidiosis occurs in geriatric rabbits. True/False
False, post-weanling rabbits
Why is frequent sanitation pivotal in prevention of intestinal coccidiosis? ___________________
It requires 3 days for oocysts to sporulate and become infective after shedding into feces
- Immunity to intestinal coccidiosis can be developed through use of an oral vaccine or after infection
with a nonpathogenic strain of Eimeria. True/False
True
- Floroquinolones added to the water is an effective control and prevention of intestinal coccidiosis.
True/False
False, sulfamerazine or sulfaquinoxaline
__________________ is the causative agent of encephalitozoonosis and was historically known as
Encephalitozoon cuniculi, Nosema cuniculi
Clinical signs of encephalitozoonosis can include A. Tremors B. Seizures C. Motor paralysis D. Torticollis E. All of the above
E, all of the above
Lesions due to encephalitozoonosis can be seen in the A. Liver B. Kidney C. Spinal cord D. Brain E. All of the above F. B, C, & D
F: Kidney, Spinal Cord, Brain
Organisms can be demonstrated in the histologic lesions. True/False
False, free in the kidney tubules
_________________________________ is a characteristic lesion and can be seen in the brain and the
kidneys.
granulomatous inflammation
List three ways to diagnose this disease. _______________,_____________,_________________
Histology, serology, indirect fluorescence antibody, PCR
What testing methods must be used to eliminate this organism from a colony and why?
_______________________________ _________________________________
Serology; it is latent
Encephalitozoon can easily be killed by lysol, formalin or ethanol. True/False
True
Psoroptes cuniculi is the causative agent of _______________________ and is a
_________________________.
Psoroptic mange, nonburrowing mite
How long is the life cycle of this parasite and how long can it survive off of the host?
21 days, 7-20 days
How is this infestation diagnosed? ________________________________
Visualization of mites in exudate via otoscopic exam, or a dissecting scope
What are the clinical signs of this infestation? ________________________________________
Pruritis, head shaking, crusty exudate
Ivermectin and rotenone have been used successfully to treat this disease. True/False
True
Cheyletiella mites are nonburrowing mites and are intensely pruritic. True/False
False, not pruritic
What anatomic site is most commonly infested with this parasite?
Scapular area
What is the microscopic distinguishing feature of this parasite?
Large curved claw on palpi
Cheyletiella is a zoonotic pathogen and can be successfully treated with ivermectin. True/False
True
Sarcoptes is a burrowing mite and thus must be diagnosed by ______________________.
Skin scrape
Sarcoptes can cause
A. Hair loss and abrasions
B. Intense pruritis
C. Serous encrustations and secondary bacterial infections
D. Amyloidosis is the liver & kidneys in severe infestations
E. All of the above
F. A, B, & C
E, all of the above
There isn’t any documented treatment and thus, infested animals should be euthanized. True/False
False, treat with ivermectin
Because the oxyuris eggs require 72 hours to become infective once passed in the feces, cleaning cages every
two - three days can be an effective means of controlling this infection. True/False
False, immediately infective
. Clinical signs of pinworms include diarrhea, straining and rectal prolapse. True/False
FAlse, no clinical signs
Where are mature pinworms located? ____________________ & ________________________
Cecum, colon
Which treatments have been effective in eliminating pinworms? A. Fenbendazole B. Ivermectin C. Sulfonamides D. Piperazine citrate E. A, B, & D F. A & D
F, Fenbendazole and Piperazine
What is the more contemporary name of Oxyuris ambigua? ________________________________
Passalurus ambiguus
- What two causative agents are the most common cause of ringworm in the infrequent occasion that
laboratory rabbits become infected. _______________________ & ________________________
Trichophyton mentagrophytes, Microsporum canis
- The typical lesions of ringworm can be characterized by
A. Pruritus
B. Patchy alopecia with crusting
C. A circular lesion with a peripheral raised rim of inflammation and broken hairs
D. All of the above
D, all of the above
- What methods are used to diagnose ringworm? __________________________________________
KOH scraping with processing to examine for mycelia or arthrospores
- A negative Wood’s light exam rules out ringworm. True/False
False
- What treatment options are available for ringworm? ____________________________________ _________________________________________________
Griseofulvin, 1% copper sulfate, metastbilized chlorous acid chlorine dioxide
- What is the most common cause of deep or systemic mycoses in rabbits? _____________________
Aspergillus
- Pulmonary aspergillosis lesions can be characterized by
A. Free floating arthrospores within the alveoli
B. Macrospores within the type II pneumocytes
C. Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies
D. Mycelia within the type II pneumocytes
C, Hyphae surrounded by eosinophilic asteroid bodies
- Pneumocystis carinii causes pneumonia in ___________________________ rabbits.
immunocompromised
133. Clinical signs of gastric trichobezoars include: A. Vomiting B. Prolonged anorexia C. Metabolic disturbances D. All of the Above E. B & C
E, anorexia and metabolic disturbance
- What is the most frequent site of fracture in rabbits with a traumatic vertebral fracture injury?
L7
- The common name for ulcerative dermatitis is ____________________________.
Sore hocks
- The area ulcerative dermatitis most frequently affects is ________________________.
Plantar aspects of metatarsal/metacarpal regions
Heritable Diseases
137. Lack of vitamin ________ can result in hydrocephalus either due to an inherited inability to
metabolize it, or due to a lack of it in pregnant does.
A. B
B. D
C. A
D. E
C, Vitamin A
- What inheritable eye anomaly is common in New Zealand White rabbits bred for research
buphthalmia, congenital glaucoma
Clinical signs hypovitaminosis A typically begin at weaning. True/False
False, 3-4 months of age
Clinical signs of hypovitminosis A can include
A. Corneal ulceration and rupture
B. Corneal edema
C. Decreased libido and spermatogenesis in affected males
D. Increased corneal vascularity
E. All of the above
E, all of the above
What is the most common inherited disease of domestic rabbits? __________________________
Mandibular prognathism
The incisors wear more slowly on the anterior/posterior aspect in rabbits partly because the enamel is
thicker/thinner on this side
Anterior, thicker
Rabbits with malocclusion have a normal dental formula. True/False
True
- In rabbits with malocclusion, the maxilla is _____________ in length, while the mandible is
_____________________ in length
short, normal
- The condition characterized by the complete abduction of one or more legs and the inability to
assume a normal standing position is called ______________________________.
Splay leg
Inherited self-mutilation behavior occurs in the _______________________.
Checkered cross
What is the most common tumor in rabbits? _____________________________
Uterine adenocarcinoma
Embryonal nephromas are common tumors and usually result in the death of the neonate. True/False
False, an incidental finding
What tumor models had cells that were originally derived from rabbits? ___________________,
______________________, and ________________________.
VX-2 carcinoma, the Brown-Pearce carcinoma, Greene melanoma
- What two types of crystals are normally present in rabbit urine? ___________, ______________
Calcium carbonate; triple phosphate
- Hydrometra typically occurs in female rabbits postpartum. True/False
False, in unmated female rabbits.
What is the colliculus seminalis?
A valve like structure at the entrance of the vesicular gland from the urethra which controls release of sperm and vesicular gland secretions in rabbits and prevents entry of urine into reproductive glands.
What accessory sex glands are located along the dorsal aspect of the male rabbit urethra?
Seminal gland, vesicular gland, proprostate, prostate, paraprostate and bulbourethral gland.
Does the rabbit have an os penis?
NO
Why is rabbit urine generally cloudy?
High precipitate concentrations of ammonium magnesium phosphate and calcium carbonate monohydrate
