BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Polysaccharide capsule

A

S. pneumoniae, K. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis

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2
Q

d-glutamate capsule

A

bacillus anthracis

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3
Q

hyaluronic capsule

A

pasteurella multocida - animal bite wound

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4
Q

polyribosyl ribitol phosphate

A

h. influenzae

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5
Q

most common serotype in h. influenzae

A

serotype b

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6
Q

p. aeruginosa

A

alginate

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7
Q

stain for capsule

A

hiss, anthony’s, tyler, india ink

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8
Q

culture media to enhance babes ernst

A

PAI’s slant, loeffler’s serum

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9
Q

stain for inclusion bodies

A

loeffler’s methylene blue, albert, neisseria

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10
Q

halberstaedter prowazek is glycogen containing inclusion bodies that can be seen in

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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11
Q

stains for halberstaedter prowazek

A

gimenez, machiavello, castaneda

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12
Q

stain for y. pestis

A

wayson and methylene blue

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13
Q

corkscrew motility can be noted in what organisms

A

spiral organisms

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14
Q

capnophilic organisms

A

neisseria,strep, helicobacter, haemophilus, hasek

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15
Q

obligate anaerobe organisms

A

prevotella, porphyromonas, fusobacterium

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16
Q

this removes O2 in gaspak jar

A

palladium catalysts

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17
Q

indicators in gaspak jar

A

resazurin and methylene blue

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18
Q

microaerophilic organisms

A

campylobacter, treponema, borrelia, helicobacter

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19
Q

can tolerate cold enrichment

A

y. enterolitica and L. monocytogenes

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20
Q

blood bag contaminants at 4 deg C

A

enterolitica, liquefasciens, fluorescens

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21
Q

blood bag contaminants at RT

A

enterolytica, b. cereus, cutibacterium acnes

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22
Q

common contaminants of blood

A

epidermidis, strep, p. acnes and bacillus except anthracis

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23
Q

blood-broth ratio is

A

1;10

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24
Q

media used in blood

A

TSB, BHI and brucella broth

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25
Q

anticoagulant used in blood

A

0.025 percent sps

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26
Q

selective differential media used for vibrios

A

TCBS

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27
Q

COLOR of sucrose fermenter

A

yellow colonies

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28
Q

COLOR of non-sucrose fermenters

A

green colonies

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29
Q

enrichment media for vibrios

A

alkaline peptone water

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30
Q

anticoagulant used in bacteriology

A

0.025 percent sps-sodium polyanethol sulfonate

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31
Q

addition of this will neutralize effect of SPS

A

1 PERCENT gelatin

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32
Q

0.025 percent of SPS is inhibitory to what organisms

A

neisseria, anaerobius, vaginalis and monilliforms

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33
Q

anticoagulant NOT USED for culture

A

EDTA

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34
Q

HEPARIN is not recommended because it

A

inhibits other gram negative organisms and also yeast

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35
Q

heparin used for

A

VIRAL culture

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36
Q

common agents of bacteremia

A

CONS, e. coli, aureus, aeruginosa, fragilis

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37
Q

must be processed in BSC

A

sputum

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38
Q

if specimen is non-sterile, this should be done

A

digestion and decontamination

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39
Q

agents of pneumonia

A

k. pneumoniae, aureus and aeruginosa in those with cystic fibrosis

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40
Q

agents of ventilator associated pneumonia

A

s. pneumoniae, influenzae, aureus, aeruginosa, klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia

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41
Q

bartlett’s classification is used to differentiate

A

sputum and saliva

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42
Q

sputum should have

A

less than 10 ECS and more than 25 PMNs

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43
Q

sputum is collected thru

A

deep cough collection = 5-10 mL

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44
Q

this will indicate poor collection

A

presence of alveolar macrophage and columnar cells

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45
Q

gold standard in m. tuberculosis

A

n-acetyl-l-cysteine for digestion and NaOH for decontamination

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46
Q

other reagents used in sputum collection

A

5 percent oxalic acid, Z-TSP, 4 percent NaOH, sputolysin

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47
Q

these reagents are used for pseudomonas

A

5 percent oxalic acid, Z-TSP

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48
Q

what biosafety level is M. tuberculosis

A

3, sputum pathogen and is acquired thru inhalation

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49
Q

swab is used for

A

aerobic bacteria

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50
Q

major throat pathogen

A

s. pyogenes causes pharyngitis, scarlet fever and erysipelas

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51
Q

major throat flora and its test

A

viridians strep. ALPHA HEMOLYTIC, BILE SOLUBLE NEGATIVE, SBE, OPTOCHIN RESISTANT, NEUFELD NEGATIVE

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52
Q

nasopharyngeal swab is for

A

carrier state of b. pertussis-whooping cough, n. meningitidis and influenzae, and sars-cov2 and MRSA

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53
Q

materials used in swabbing

A

dacron, rayon, calcium alginate

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54
Q

this material is toxic to neisseria

A

cotton

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55
Q

this material is toxic to viruses

A

calcium alginate

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56
Q

storage temp of CSF

A

37 deg

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57
Q

transport temp of CSF

A

RT

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58
Q

CSF is cultured on

A

BAP and CAP

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59
Q

usual pathogens in CSF

A

influenzae, meningitidis, s. pneumoniae, monocytogenes, agalactiae

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60
Q

alternative specimen in stool

A

rectal swab

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61
Q

common pathogens in stool

A

jejuni, shigella, salmonella, e. coli and its serotypes, vibrio and enterolytica

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62
Q

media used in stool

A

SSA, EMB AND MCconkey

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63
Q

most common cause of UTI

A

e. coli

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64
Q

most common cause of UTI in young females

A

saphrophyticus

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65
Q

urine colony count considered to be significant and is indicative of UTI

A

more than 100,000

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66
Q

dilution factor is 1000 using —- loop

A

1 uL

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67
Q

dilution factor is 100 using —- loop

A

10 uL

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68
Q

——– is the specimen to collect if the patient is intubated/on a ventilator

A

endotracheal aspirate

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69
Q

example of biphasic media

A

castaneda

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70
Q

nutrient agar broth, sabouraud’s dextrose agar
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media

A

b

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71
Q

selenite broth, alkaline peptone water, tetrathionate broth, carrot broth
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media

A

a

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72
Q

CAP, BAP
a. enrichment media
b. general purpose media
c. enriched media
d. transport media

A

c

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73
Q

CTBA, McConkey, lowenstein jensen
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. selective media
d. transport media

A

c

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74
Q

EMB, McConkey, HEA, XLD, TCBS
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. selective media
d. selective differential media

A

d

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75
Q

transgrow, cary blair, stuart
a. biochem test media
b. AST media
c. selective media
d. transport media

A

d

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76
Q

Muellerhinton agar
a. biochem test media
b. general purpose media
c. AST media
d. transport media

A

AST

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77
Q

SIM and MIO is an example of what type of media

A

semi-solid

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78
Q

always a pathogen

A

n. gonorrhea

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79
Q

naso or osopharynx and can be a normal flora

A

n. meningitidis

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80
Q

CTBA

A

cysteine tellurite blood agar, c. diptheriae, potassium tellurite

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81
Q

McConkey

A

enterobacteriacae, crystal violet

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82
Q

lowenstein jensen

A

mycobacterium-malachite green

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83
Q

a device that encloses a workspace

A

BSC

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84
Q

this can remove objects larger than 0.3 um

A

hepa filter

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85
Q

system is entirely open, sterilizes air to be exhausted; least effective
a. I
b. II
c. III

A

a

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86
Q

the most common, AKA laminar flow the type that is used in most laboratories, partly open and closed, and sterilizes air that flows over infectious material and air to be exhausted
a. I
b. II
c. III

A

b

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87
Q

exhaust air inside the room
a. IIA
b. IIB
c. III

A

a

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88
Q

exhaust air outside the building
a. IIA
b. IIB
c. III

A

b

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89
Q

this type uses gloves, attached and sealed to the cabinet; entirely closed system, self-contained ventilated system
a. I
b. II
c. III

A

c

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90
Q

poses minimal risk to lab personnel
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

A

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91
Q

poses moderate risk to lab personnel, acquired thru ingestion, mucuos membrane and percutaneous exposure, associated with laboratory acquired infections
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

b

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92
Q

poses HIGH risk to laboratory personnel, acquired thru inhalation, possible for aerosol transmission
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

c

93
Q

poses EXTREME RISK to laboratory personnel, causes life threatening diseases
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

d

94
Q

practice of standard laboratory techniques
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

a

95
Q

those practice in BSL-1 agents, use of BSC, gowns, gloves and face shield. use of biohazard warning signs, decontaminate all infectious waste
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

b

96
Q

must have sustainable airflow in which air is drawn from clean area of the lab towards contaminated area, use of PPE
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

c

97
Q

lab must be situated in a separate building, use of PPE
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

d

98
Q

poses minimal risk to lab personnel
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A
98
Q

b. subtilis, m. gordonae, e. aerogenes
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

a

99
Q

salmonella, shigella, s. aureus, HBV, HIV
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

b

100
Q

agents of systemic mycoses, m. tuberculosis, coxiella burnetti, st. louis encephalitis virus
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

c

101
Q

arenaviruses, maroburg virus
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4

A

d

102
Q

destruction of all forms of microbial life including spores

A

sterilization

103
Q

principle of autoclave

A

steam under pressure

104
Q

121 deg celcius 15-30 mins at 15 psi

A

used/unused media

105
Q

121 deg celcius 30 mins at 15 psi

A

contaminated microbiological material

106
Q

132 deg celcius at 30-60 mins

A

infectious material wastes

107
Q

biological indicator of autoclave

A

geobacillus stearrothermophilus

108
Q

not killed by sterilization

A

prions

109
Q

target of sterilization

A

spores

110
Q

thickening thru evaporation

A

insipissation

111
Q

uses flowing steam and arnold sterilizer

A

tyndallization

112
Q

prions can cause what neurologic diseases

A

bovine spongiform encelopathy, mad cow disease and creutzfeldt jacob syndrome

113
Q

can be done at 100 deg for for 30 mins at 3 days

A

tyndallization

114
Q

can be done at 75-80 deg for 2 hrs at 3 days

A

inspissation

115
Q

to sterilize media with increased protein

A

lowenstein jensen, petraganis and ATS

116
Q

biological indicator for oven

A

bacillus subtilis var niger

117
Q

biological indicator for ionizing radiation/gamma rays

A

bacillus pumilus

118
Q

biological indicator for cold sterilization - ethylene oxide

A

bacillus subtilis var globijii

119
Q

to eliminate prions, we can use

A

extended steam sterilization, add 1 M of sodium hypochlorite or sodium hypochlorite - 2 percent available chlorine

120
Q

how many minutes for HBV AND HIV

A

HBV= 10 mins
HIV= 2 mins

121
Q

standard disinfectant

A

phenol

122
Q

best to remove blood spills

A

10 percent bleach or sodium hypochlorite - zonrox/chlorox

123
Q

CDC recommends —– dilution for porous surfaces

A

1;10

124
Q

CDC recommends —– for surfaces

A

1;100

125
Q

can be used as substitute for bleach/sodium hypochlorite

A

vinegar

126
Q

best antiseptic

A

iodophore

127
Q

tincture of iodine

A

iodine plus 70 percent alcohol

128
Q

donning

A

gown, mask, goggles, face shield, gloves

129
Q

to dispose infectious materials, exposure to high temp

A

incineration techniques

130
Q

precaution applied to all human blood and body fluids that contain visible blood

A

universal precaution

131
Q

precaution to treat patient’s blood and body fluid as potentially infectious

A

standard precaution

132
Q

doffing

A

gloves, goggles, gown, mask then do handwashing

133
Q

incubator, water bath, refrigerator, freezer, heating block
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

a

134
Q

autoclave efficiency/spore testing
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

b

135
Q

autoclave temp
a. daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

a

136
Q

GASPAK JAR
a. temperature checking daily
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

c

137
Q

centrifuge function/rpm
a. every 6 months
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

a

138
Q

microscopes/weighing balance
a. every 6 months
b. weekly
c. every use
d. annual

A

d

139
Q

overdecolorization will cause

A

false negative

140
Q

gram positive color

A

violet

141
Q

gram negative color

A

red

142
Q

most critical step in gram staining

A

decolorization

143
Q

this is used for fungi

A

hucker’s modification

144
Q

hucker’s modification contains

A

crystal violet and ammonium oxalate

145
Q

fungi are reported as gram

A

positive

146
Q

steps in gram staining

A

V-VIOLET CRYSTAL
I-GRAM’S IODINE
A-ALCOHOL/ACETONE
S-SAFFRANIN

147
Q

steps in acid fast staining

A

C-carbol fuchsin
A-3 percent acid alcohol
M-malachite green/methylene blue

ziehl neelsen- stem/heat
kinyoun- cold method, tergitol-wetting agent

148
Q

color of acid fast organism

A

red against blue

149
Q

color of non-acid fast

A

blue/green

150
Q

size of AFB smear

A

2x3 cm

151
Q

best method for DSSM

A

ziehl- direct sputum smear microscopy

152
Q

best method for AF organism in tissues

A

kinyoun’s

153
Q

carried out to determine susceptibility or resistance of organisms to antimicrobial agents

A

antibiotic susceptibility testing

154
Q

examples of bactericidal

A

P- penicillin
A- aminoglycosides
V- vancomycin
Q- quinolones
M- metronidazole

155
Q

examples of bacteriostatic

A

C- chloramphenicol
E- erythromycin
S- streptomycin
T- tetracyclin

156
Q

cell wall inhibitors

A

beta lactams and glycopeptides

157
Q

examples of beta lactams

A

P- penicillin
C- carbapenems
C- caphalosporins

158
Q

example of glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

159
Q

protein synthesis inhibitors

A

M- macrolides
A- aminoglycosides
T- tetracycline
C- chloramphenicol

160
Q

macrolides

A

erythromycin

161
Q

aminoglycosides

A

gentamicin, tobramycine

162
Q

tetracycline

A

doxycycline

163
Q

beta lactamase inhibitors

A

tazobactam, sulbactam, clavulanic acid

164
Q

sulfonamides

A

SXT- trimetophrim sulfamethoxazole

165
Q

drug which can be used as treatment for UTI, inhibits bacterial enzyme

A

nitrofurantoin

166
Q

inhibition of DNA activity
examples; levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin

A

quinolones

167
Q

2 methods of AST

A

dilution method- quantitative
disk diffusion method- qualitative-kirby bauer

168
Q

media used in kirby bauer

A

MHA

169
Q

pH in kirby bauer

A

7.2-7.4

170
Q

depth of agar in kirby bauer

A

4mm

171
Q

inoculum size in in kirby bauer

A

1.5x10^8 CFU/mL

172
Q

manner of streaking in kirby bauer

A

overlap using sterile cotton swab

173
Q

waiting time in kirby bauer

A

3-5 mins

174
Q

reference used in in kirby bauer

A

mac farland- 99.5 mL, 1 percent sulfuric acid, 1.175 percent barium chloride

175
Q

size of filter paper disk in kirby bauer

A

6mm

176
Q

storage temp for disk in kirby bauer- WORKING SUPPLY

A

2-8 degC

177
Q

storage temp in kirby bauer- LONG TERM

A

-20 deg C in a dessicant

178
Q

in kirby bauer incubate at

A

35-37 degC for 16-18 hrs in ambient air

179
Q

in kirby bauer if plate size is 100 mm, place no more than —- disks

A

5

180
Q

in kirby bauer if plate size is 150 mm, place no more than —- disks

A

12

181
Q

in kirby bauer distance of disk from center

A

24 mm

182
Q

in kirby bauer distance between 2 disks

A

15 mm

183
Q

use — —- when measuring zone of inhibition

A

ruler or caliper

184
Q

in kirby bauer if there is swarming of proteus

A

IGNORE

185
Q

when using sulfonamides like SXT, if in case there would be 2 concentric zones, measure the

A

outerzone

186
Q

to light inoculum, very dry and thin agar

A

false susceptible

187
Q

to heavy inoculum, too much moisture on agar surface, thick agar

A

false resistant

188
Q

possible results in AST

A

resistant, intermediate, susceptible

189
Q

this is used for dilution method for fastidious organisms like haemophilus

A

e-test

190
Q

uses a strip with single antibiotic of decreasing concentrations along its length

A

e-test

191
Q

positive result in e-test

A

ellipse of growth inhibition

192
Q

beta-lactamase/cephalosporinase test

A

CEFINASE DISK
NITROCEFIN
POSITIVE- pink to red

193
Q

presence of — in the cell wall which is encoded by ——

A

PBP2A, mec A gene

194
Q

MRSA detection

A
  1. CHROM agar
  2. CEFOXITIN disk test - 30 ug
  3. OXACILIN screen agar
  4. Molecular- PCR
195
Q

use of chrom agar, positive result
a. rose/mauvy colony color
b. pink to red
c. ellipse growth of inhibition
d. yellow colonies

A

a

196
Q

use of chrom agar, negative result
a. rose/mauvy colony color
b. colorless/blue
c. ellipse growth of inhibition
d. yellow colonies

A

b

197
Q

in oxacillin screen agar test, positive means

A

resistant

198
Q

considered as the GOLD standard because it detects Mec A gene

A

Molecular-PCR

199
Q

OXACILLIN uses

A

MHA with 6 oxacillin with 4 percent NaCl

200
Q

this test is to detect inducible clindamycin resistance among strains of S. aureus

A

d-test

201
Q

this gene activate resistance to clindamycin

A

erm gene

202
Q

d-test uses what media

A

MHA

203
Q

d-test uses

A

15 ug of erythromycin and 2 ug of clindamycin

204
Q

antibiotics in d-test are positioned —–

A

15 mm apart

205
Q

positive result in d-test

A

blunting or flattening of clindamycin zone to produce d-pattern

206
Q

positive in D-test will be reported as

A

clindamycin resistant

207
Q

negative in d-test will be reported as

A

clindamycin sensitive

208
Q

penicillin resistance is a test for

A

s. pneumoniae

209
Q

for penicillin resistance, we uses

A

MHA with sheep’s blood and 1 ug oxacillin disk

210
Q

penicillin resistance, greater than 20 mm
a. resistant
b. sensitive

A

b

211
Q

penicillin resistance, less than 20 mm
a. resistant
b. sensitive

A

a

212
Q

screening test for detection to produce carbapenemase

A

modified hodge test

213
Q

positive result in modified hodge test

A

clover leaf like pattern of zone of inhibition

214
Q

improve TAT, uses data base, numeric codes for identification - software

A

semi-automated methods for bacterial ID

215
Q

uses microtubes with dehydrated substrates - plastic couples and cards
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF

A

a

216
Q

one step inoculation, no need to add reagent and oil
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF

A

b

217
Q

which of the following are automated system

I. MADI-TOF
II. BBL CRYSTAL ID
III. VITEK
IV. API

a. I, II, III
b. III AND IV
c. I AND IV
d. I AND III

A

d

218
Q

automation program for bacterial identification and susceptibility
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF

A

c

219
Q

can do what VITEK can do but faster
a. API
b. BBL crystal ID
c. VITEK
d. MADI-TOF

A

d

220
Q

s. pneumoniae

A

alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive/susceptible

221
Q

this makes beta lactamase antibiotics ineffective

A

CARBAPENEMASE

222
Q

matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization time of flight mass spectrometry

A

MALDI-TOF

223
Q

autoclaving, tyndallization, inspissation
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat

A

d

224
Q

oven, incineration, cremation, flaming
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat

A

a

225
Q

millipore filter, nucleopore filter, HEPA filter, antibiotics
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat

A

c

226
Q

gamma rays, for those that cannot be filtered
a. use of dry heat
b. ionizing radiation
c. filtration
d. use of moist heat

A

b

227
Q

use of chemical sterilants/biocides- ethylene oxide
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. tyndallization
d. inspissation

A

a

228
Q

boiling and pasteurization
a. sterilization
b. disinfection
c. tyndallization
d. inspissation

A

b