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Drug Action IV > Bacteria Species and Mechanisms (Pathophys) - Block 1 > Flashcards

Bacteria Species and Mechanisms (Pathophys) - Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

List G+ cocci

A
  1. Staphylococcus (aureus, epidermidis, saprophyticus)
  2. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A)
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. Strep agalactiae (Group B)
  5. Viridans strep
  6. Enterococcus (faecalis, faecium)
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2
Q

What makes are Staph similar?

A

Catalase + -> aerobic

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3
Q

What is the most pathogenic staph?

A

Aureus

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4
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Differentiation, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Differentiation:
* Catalase +
* Coagulase +
* G+

Location: skin, GI, GU
Transmission: person-person, direct, fomite
Dx: Toxin mediated, pyogenic

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5
Q

What are examples of toxin mediated dx?

A

Food poisoning, TSS, Scalded skin syndrome

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6
Q

What are examples of pyogenic dx?

A

Impetigo, folliculits, wound infection

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7
Q

What are the virulence factors of S. aureus?

A
  1. Encapsulated
  2. Teichoic acid (adhesion)
  3. MSCRAMMS -> biofilm
  4. Protein A that binds to IgG blocking complement binding
  5. Coagulase
  6. Lipases, hyaluronidase, fibrinolysin
  7. CYtotoxins (a, b, d, g)
  8. Exofoliative toxins (ETA, ETB)
  9. Enterotoxins (A to R)
  10. TSS toxin 1 (TSST-1)
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8
Q

What is the function of exofoliative toxins?

A

Serine proteases that breakdown the connections between stratum granulosum epidermis

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9
Q

What is enterotoxins?

A

Superantigens that stmulates T cell proliferation and release of cytkines and stimulates mediator release from mast cells -> nausea and vomiting

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10
Q

What is TSST-1?

A

Superantigen that stmulates T cell proliferation and release of cytokines and can cause endothelial leakage as well as cellular damage of endothelial cells

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11
Q

What is the difference between food-poisoning and foodbourne illness?

A

Food poisoning: preformed toxins that doesn’t require bacterial growth
Foodbourne illness: Requirs microbial growth within the host

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12
Q

How does the composition of MRSA diffferent from VRSA?

A

Meethicillin RSA: contains mecA gene that codes for PBP2a (lower affintiy for beta-lactams and methicillin)
Vancomycin RSA: contains van genes that change peptidoglycan precursors reducing vancomycin binding affinity

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13
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis

Differentiation, Location, Transmission, Diseases

A

Differentiation:
* Catalase +
* Coagulase -
* Urese -
* G+

Location: skin, conjunctiva, nose, GU
Transmission: person-person, direct, fomites
Dx: bacteremia, opportunistic

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14
Q

VF of S. epidermidis

A
  1. Encapsulated
  2. Slime layer
  3. Cytotoxin (delta)
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15
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Differentiation, Location, Transmission, Diseases

A

Diff:
* Catalase +
* Coagulase -
* Urease +
* G+

Location: perineum, rectum, urethra, cervix, GIT
Trasmission: sexually active females and catheters
Dx: Dysuria, pyuria

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16
Q

VF of S. saprophyticus

A
  1. Urease
  2. Non-hemolytic
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17
Q

Staph that has B-hemolysis?

A

Aureus

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18
Q

Staph’s response to mannitol salt agar?

A

Aureus: yellow colonies
Epidermis: pink/white

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19
Q

What staph presents with a + urease?

A

Saprophyticus

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20
Q

What Staph is coagulase +? -?

A

+: aureus
-: epidermis, saprophyticus

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21
Q

What are the common characteristcs of Streptococcus?

A

SOD+, catalase +

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22
Q

What is Strep calassified

A
  1. Lancefield groupings
  2. Hemolytic patterns
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23
Q

Streptococcal pyogenes

Classifications, Location

A

Classification:
* Group A
* b-hemolytic

Location: Upper respiatory, GUT

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24
Q

VF of Streptococcal pyogenes?

A
  1. Hyaluronic acid capsule
  2. M protein
  3. Adhesions
  4. C5a peptidase
  5. Hyaluronidase and streptokinase
  6. Cytotoxins (Steptolysin S and Streptolysin O)
  7. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin
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25
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Classifications, Location, Transmisson, Diseases

A

Classifications:
* No cell wall
* a-hemolytic
* Facultative anarobe
* diplococci

Location: upper resp
Transmission: respiratory droplets
Dx: otits media, CAB pneumonia

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26
Q

VF of S. pneumoniae

A
  1. Capsule
  2. IgA protease
  3. H2O2
  4. Pneumolysin
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27
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Classifications, Locaton, Diseases

A

Classification:
* Group B
* Capsule
* B-hemolytic

Location: UT, GIT
Dx: Neonatal sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremi

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28
Q

Viridans streptococci

Classifications, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Green pigment colonies
* Non-capsulated
* Catalase -
* a-hemolytic/nonhemolytic

Location: oropharynx, GI, GU
Dx: dental infection, endocarditits

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29
Q

Enterococcus

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* Group D
* Facultative anaerobes (catalase -)
* Oxidase -
* E. faecalis: gamma non-hemolyic
* E. faecium: a-hemolyic (MDR)

Location: GI
Transmission: nosocomial, patient-patient
Dx: UTI

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30
Q

VF of enterococcus?

A

Biofilms

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31
Q

G+ bacilli that form spores?

A

Bacillus and clostridium

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32
Q

G+ bacilli that don’t form spores

A

Corynebacterium, Listeria

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33
Q

Bacillus cereus

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Spore forming
* Opportunisitc
* B-hemolytic
* Facultative anaerobe
* Catalase +
* Oxidase -

Location: from contaminated soil
Disease: Gastroenteritis, ocular infection

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34
Q

What are the types of enterotoxins produced by Bacillus cereus?

A

Heat stable: , proteolysis-resistant toxin causes emetic form of disease -> food poisoning
Heat labile: enterotoxin causes the diarrheal form -> foobourne

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35
Q

Costridium perfrigens

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Capsulated
* Non-motile
* SPore forming
* B-hemolytic inner zone, a-hemolytic outer
* Obligate anaerobe (catalase -)

Location: GI
Dx: soft tissue infections

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36
Q

VF of costridium perfringens?

A
  1. Enzymes: collagenase, proteases, and hyaluronidase
  2. Cytotoxin: phospholipase C lyses host cells
  3. Enterotoxin and can cause food poisoning
  4. Fermentation -> gas gangrene
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37
Q

Clostridioides (Costridium) difficile

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Anaerobic
* Spor forming
* Dysbiosis

Location: GIT
Disease: CDAD, PMC

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38
Q

How does C. diff become infectious?

A
  1. Produces toxin A (excessive fluid secretion) and B (cytotoxin)
  2. Occurs in stationary phase
  3. ID’d by ELISA in fecal sample
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39
Q

What are the large G+ bacilli?

A
  1. Bacillus cereus
  2. Costridium perfrigens
  3. C. diff
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40
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Catalase +
* weakly b hemolytic
* Facultatitve intracellular anaerobe

Location: Laboratory testing: gram stain of sterile samples (blood/CSF) and culture on blood agar
Dx: listerosis, menigitis, pregnant femal, neonates, elders, ICU

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41
Q

Describe how listeria is incorporated into the body?

A
  1. Adheres to enterocytes by listeria adhesion protein and internalin A
  2. Produces cytolysisns that allows it to escape phagolysosome to cytosol
  3. Multiples move to cell membrane to go to another cell (infected cell dies)
  4. Listeria is taken up by phagocytosis and distributed in the body
  5. Penetrates microglia and neurons in CNS
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42
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Classification, Disease

A
  1. Facultative anaeobes
  2. COntagious through resp drops, direct contact, fomites
  3. Releases diptheria toxin

Dx: diptheria, pharyngitis, endocarditis

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42
Q

What is the mechanism of diphtheria toxin?

A
  1. Exopoxin is produced when lysogenized by bacteriophage carrying the toxin gene
  2. Creation of pseudomembran in throat -> respiratory obstruction -> toxemia
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43
Q

How can you prevent Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection?

A

DTaP toxoid vaccine

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44
Q

Nocardia

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* partially acid fast
* Mycolic acid
* Strict aerobe
* Catalase +
* SOD +
* Blocks acidification of lysosome in order to replicate and survive

Location: lungs, skin, brain
Transmission: Inhalation, trauma
Dx: pulmonary, cutaneus, CNS infections

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45
Q

What are the small G+ bacilli?

A
  1. Listeria
  2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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46
Q

Examples of branching G+ bacilli?

A

Nocardia

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47
Q

VF of Neisseria

A
  1. Lipooligosaccharide (LOS, endotoxin) lack the repeating O antigen
  2. Encampsulated
  3. IgA protease
  4. Pili
48
Q

What are the common characteristics of Neisseria?

A
  1. Obligate aerobe
  2. Fastidious
  3. Oxidase +
  4. Catalase +
49
Q

Neisseria menigtides

Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Location: nasopharynx
Transmission: respiratory droplets
Disease: CAB meningitis
* Conjugate meningococcal vaccine is available

50
Q

What is the 2nd most common STI?

A

N. gonorrheae

51
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Location: vagina, urethral, rectal, oral
Transmission: vertical, horizontal (sex)
Disease: gonorrhea or related PID
* Sticky purlent discharge

52
Q

VF of N. gonorrhoeae

A

Pili for adherence

53
Q

What are you G- cocci?

A

Neisseeria:
1. menigitides
2. gonorrhoeae

53
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Oxidase +
* Catalase +
* Obligate aerobe
* Non-motil
* LPS endotoxin
* B-lactamases

Location: Upper respiratory tract
DIsease: sinusitis, otitis media infection

54
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Facultative anaerobes, catalase +, oxidase +
* Pleomorphic, thick capsule
* 6 caqpsular serotypes exist
* Fastidious

Location: upper respiratory tract (throat)
Transmission: respiratory droplets
Dx: pneumonia, meningitis

55
Q

What bacteria is the leading cause of bacterial meningitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

56
Q

VF of Haemophilus influenzae?

A
  1. IgA protease
  2. Hib capsule
  3. endotoxin
  4. pili
57
Q

What are you G- coccobacilli?

A
  1. Moraxella
  2. Haemophilus influenzae
58
Q

Aeromonas

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Lactose fermenter
* Catalase +
* Oxidase +

Location: brackish water, contaminated food
Disease: dysentery, cellulitis, opportunistic infection

59
Q

VF of thee Aeromonas?

A
  1. Adhesion (flagella, pilli)
  2. Hemolysins
  3. Siderophores
  4. Endotoxin
  5. Enterotoxins
  6. MDR
60
Q

Vibrio

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* Lactose ferementer
* Oxidase +
* O-antigen

Location: GI mucous membrane
Transmission: Fecal-oral food and water
Disease: Vibrio cholerae

61
Q

Bacteria that cause rice water stool?

A

Vibrio

62
Q

Describe the characterisitcs of the cholera toxin?

A

Rice water stool -> dehydration:
1. B part of toxin binds to GI epithelial cells
2. A part enters cells to increase cAMP levels -> active secretion of ions from cell

63
Q

Escherichia coli

Classification, Location, Disease

A

CLassification:
* faculatative anaeerobe
* Catalase +
* Oxidase -
* Fermenter of glucose and lactose
* O antigen

Location: GIT
Disease: opportunistic, water diarrhea, dysentery

64
Q

VF of E coli?

A
  1. Capsule and fimbriae to adhere to mucosal surfaces
  2. Hemolysins
  3. Siderophores
  4. Enterotoxins
  5. Motile due to flagella
65
Q

How can MacConkey detect lactose fermenters?

A

Pink colonies

66
Q

What E.coli strain is a major cause of UTI in healthy individuals?

A

UPEC

67
Q

What E. coli stain produces enterotoxins that cause diarrhea without destroying the cells of the intestines?

A

ETEC
* traveler’s diarrhea
* heat stable enterotoxin and heat labile enterotoxin
* Fecal oral from contaminated food

68
Q

What E. coli strain destroys intestinal lining, kidney failure, and hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC) 0157:H7 E. coli
* produces shiga toxin -> inhibits protein synthesis
* Abdominal cramps, diarrhea, fever, vomiting
* Causes severe foodborne disease from raw food

69
Q

Klebsiella

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* faculative anearobe
* Oxidase -
* Lactose fermenting
* Urease +

Location: GI and GUT
Transmission: Horizontal
Disease: Pneumonia, UTI, wound infection, sepsis, alveolar necrosis, nosocomial infection

70
Q

VF of Klebsiella

A
  1. Fimbriae
  2. Siderophores
71
Q

Eneterobacter

Classification, Location, Transmission, DIsease

A

Classification:
* facultative anaerobe
* Oxidase -
* Motile
* Feremtner
* Urease +

Location: GIT
Transmission: Horizontal
Disease: nosocomial

72
Q

VF of Enterobacter?

A
  1. Fimbriae
  2. LPS
  3. Capsule
  4. Hemolysins
  5. Siderophores
73
Q

Citrobacter

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Facultative anaerobe
* Oxidase -
* Lactose-fermenting, use citrate as carbon source
* Motile (flagella)

Location: GIT and soil
Transmission: Vehicle from contaminated food
Disease: diarrhea, UTI, pneumonia, nosocomial infection (shiga toxin)

74
Q

VF of Citrobacter?

A
  1. Flagella
  2. LPS
  3. Shiga toxin
75
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* Microaerophile
* Oxidase +
* Urease -
* Non-fermenter

Location: GIT
Transmission: animals to humans by fecal oral route, COntaminated meat, milk, water
Dx: foodbourne illness, dysentery

76
Q

VF of Campylobacter jejuni?

A
  1. Adhesion
  2. Cytolysins
  3. Hemolysins
77
Q

Helicobacter pylori

Classifcation, Location, DIsease

A

Classification:
* Enteric GNR
* Motile
* oxudase +
* Non fermenter
* Catalase -
* Urease

Location: Lower stomach, intestines
Disease: acute and chronic gastritis, peptic ulcers, and gastric cancer

78
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* Polar flagella
* Obligate aerobe
* Catalase +
* Oxidase +
* b-hemolytic
* Non fermenter

Location: soil and moist reservious
Dx: Opportunistic

79
Q

What type of bacteria is green in color and grown on blood agar?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

80
Q

VF of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  1. Flagella
  2. Pilli
  3. Exotoxins
  4. Proteases
  5. b-lactamases
81
Q

What are your non-enteric G- bacilli?

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Acinetobacter
  3. Bordetella
  4. Legionella
82
Q

What are you enteric GNR G- bacilli?

A
  1. Serratia
  2. Proteus
  3. H. pylori
  4. Klebsiella
  5. Enterobacter
  6. Citrobacter
83
Q

What are your GI G- bacilli?

A
  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Salmonella
  3. Shigella
84
Q

Serratia

Classification, Location, Disease

A

Classification:
* enteric
* Oxidase -
* Non feremetner
* Motile

Location: UT, lower respi
Disease: Opportunistic and nosocomial pathogens, UTI, lower resp infection

85
Q

Proteus

Classification, Disease

A

Classification:
* enteric
* Oxidase -
* Non feremetner
* Motile
* urease +
* Causes formation of insoluble phosphates and magnesium stones (struvite stones

Disease: Nosocomial UTI

86
Q

Salmonella enterica

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* Faculative anaerobes
* Non fermenter
* Catalase +
* Oxidase -

Location: Attach to mucosa in small intestine and enter enterocytes and Peyer patches and be transported into the blood or lymph
Transmission: eating contaminated food or by fecal-oral spread
Dx: Dysentery, enteric fever (typhoid)

87
Q

VF of Salmonella

A

Can survive in macrophages, neutrophils and DCs and spread from the intestine to other body sites or blood
* Release typhoid toxin -> cell senescence allowing bacteria to hide and replicate

88
Q

Shigella sonnei

Classification, Location, Transmission, Dx

A

Classification:
* Non motile
* Facultative anaerobes
* No fermentation or oxidase

Location: GIT
Transmission: fecal contaminated food
Dx: FBI, dysentery

89
Q

VF of shigella sonnei

A
  1. Invades and destroys the mucosa of large intestine -> dysentery
  2. Exotoxin with enterotoxic and cytotoxic properties fro shiga toxin -> inhibits protein synthesis
  3. Reproduce intracellularly with invasins
  4. O antigen of LPS
90
Q

Bordetella pertussis

Classification, Disease

A

Classification:
* Encapsulated
* Aerobic, oxidase +
* Fimbraiae

Disease: upper respiratory infection, pertussis
* Vaccine- TDaP

91
Q

Acinetobacter

Classification, Disease

A

Classification:
* Obligate aerobe
* Oxidase -
* Opportunisitc

Disease: Nosocomial wound and pulmonary infections

92
Q

Legionella

Classification, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* Aerobic
* Uncap

Transmission: aerosolized water
Dx: Respiratory infection

93
Q

VF of Legionella

A
  1. Chlorine tolerant
  2. Intracellular pathogen: blocks lysosome while replicating in macrophages
94
Q

What are the nosocomial pathogens that exhibit MDR?

A
  1. Enterococcus faecium
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  4. Acinetobacter baumannii
  5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  6. Enterobacter spp
  • E. coli
95
Q

What are spirochetes?

A
  1. Slender and tightly coiled bacteria
  2. Visible by darkfield microscopy not by Gram stain
  3. Move by using periplasmic flagella
  4. Protoplasmic cylinder
96
Q

What are the types of atypical spirochetes?

A
  1. Treponema
  2. Borrelia
  3. Leptospira
97
Q

Treponema pallidum

Classification, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification: Atypical spirochetes
Transmission: Direct contact on lesions of skin and mucous membranes
* Vertical

Dx: syphilis

98
Q

How does Terponema enter the body?

A
  1. enters through breaks in mucosal membranes and skin
  2. Prefers to grow in lower temperatures so lesions are found on lips, tongue, and genitalia
  3. Spreads through blood and lymph
  4. Fastidious and fragile
99
Q

What enzyme is produced by Treponema?

A

Hyaluronidase

100
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

Classification, Location, Transmission, Disease

A

Classification:
* No toxins

Location: Spread from the site of the tick bite to the surrounding skin
Transmission:
* Reservoir is small mammals
* Transmitted by arthropod bites

Disease: Lyme and relapsing fever

101
Q

What are the stages of Lyme?

A

1: spread from the site of the tick bite to the surrounding skin
2: 2-cardiac and neurologic involvement (weeks-months)
3: Arthritis

102
Q

Describe the life cycle of borrelia?

A
103
Q

How do atypical bacteria differ from other groups?

A
  1. No typical G stain
  2. Facultative intracellular bacteria can replicate inside or outside of host
  3. Facultative intracellular bacteria can replicate inside or outside of host
104
Q

What bacteria invade host cells as a means of protection from the immune system?

A

Mycobacterium, Mycoplasm

105
Q

What bacteria utilizes host’s cellular machinery to replicate?

A

Chlamydia, Rickettsia

106
Q

How does mycoplasma differ from other atypicals?

A

Lack a cell wall
* Bound by a cell membrane lacking peptidoglycans
* Contains lots of sterols in membrane

107
Q

Disease acquired from Mycoplasma?

A

Community-acquired walking or atypical pneumonia

108
Q

How does Mycobacterium differ from other bacteria?

A
  1. Strictly aerobic and have slow generation times
  2. Contains Mycolic acid therefore can use an acid fast stain to ID
109
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Classification, Trasmission

A

Classification: Atypical that causes TB, obligate aerobe
Transmission: Respiratory droplets

110
Q

Describe the mechanism of m. tuberculosis?

A
  1. Inhibits phagolysosome
  2. Causes a delayed type hypersensitivity resulting in formation of destructive multinucleate giant cells and granulomas -> destroying lung tissue
  3. Granulomas develop when there is continuous activation of macrophages
  4. Granulomas release large amounts of lytic enzymes that damage blood vessels and lead to tissue necrosis–granulomatous response.
  5. Can cause latent infection
111
Q

Describe the characteristics of Chlamydiae?

A
  1. Obligate intracellular atypical
    * Rely on host to make ATP (energy parasites)
    * Block fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome
    * Have a rigid cell envelope with 2 lipid bilayers with LPS, but with no peptidoglycan
112
Q

Disease caused by Chlamydiae?

A

Chlamydia that can cause urethritis (discharge and pain with urination), cervicitis, and conjunctivitis (can lead to corneal scarring)
* Asymptomatic in females
* Symptomatic in males

113
Q

What bacteria utilizes elementary body?

A

Chlamydiae

114
Q

Describe the life cycle of chlamydiae?

A
  1. EB attaches to receptor on host cell
  2. EB enters host cell by endocytosis
  3. EB converts into RB in vesicle
  4. RB undergoes binary fission producing inclusion bodies
  5. RB udergoes more binary fission to form EBs
  6. EBs are released from host and infects others
115
Q

How is Rickettsia trasmitted?

A

arthropod vector (deer and dog ticks)

116
Q

Dx caused by Rickettsia?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever:
* Vascularitis, endothelial damage, edema
* arthropod vector (deer and dog ticks)

Drug Action IV (28 decks)

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