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152 LE4 > Bacteria in the Respiratory Tract II > Flashcards

Bacteria in the Respiratory Tract II Flashcards

1
Q

Tuberculosis is characterized by __________ and _________

A

caseation necrosis and granuloma formation

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2
Q

The mycolic acid of M. tuberculosis is responsible for the bacteria’s resistance to

A. Host Defenses
B. Antiviral action
C. Antibiotics

A

C. Antibiotics

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3
Q

Tuberculosis can infect up to ______ people/year

A. 7-10
B. 10-15
C. 15-20

A

B

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4
Q

What environmental factors contribute to the risk of TB transmission?

A

Temperature, humidity, O2, radiation

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5
Q

_________ MTB have a higher risk of transmission as compared to _____ MTB

A

Drug resistant, drug susceptible

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6
Q

Duration and intensity are ______ risk factors of Tubercolosis.

A

Exposure

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7
Q

Which Immune cell mainly responds to tuberculosis infection?

A. CD4
B. CD8
C. APC
D. Th1

A

A. CD4

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8
Q

______ is an MTB-presenting cell which releases ______ which stimulates _______. It then stimulates release of ______ which release _______.

A. APC, Th1, Interferon, IL12,CD4
B. APC, IL12, Th1, Interferon, CD4
C. APC, Th1, IL12, CD4, Interferon
D. APC, IL12, Th1, CD 4, Interferon

A

D. APC, IL12, Th1, CD 4, Interferon

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9
Q

Enumerate some of the actions employed by the immune system in response to tuberculosis infection.

A
  • Inhibition of Ca2+ Signals
  • Blockage of recruitment and assembly of fusion mediating proteins
  • Granuloma formation
  • Killing of intracellular mycobacteria
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10
Q

CD__: Fas independent
CD__: Fas Dependent

A

CD8+
CD4-8-

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11
Q

What conditions must be met for tuberculosis to progress to secondary tuberculosis?

A
  • Host factors (Low immune response)
  • Agent factors (more virulent, more resistant)
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12
Q

People who have had _______ are at higher risk for getting drug-resistant TB

A

Previous TB treatment

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13
Q

In extrapulmonary TB, infection can be found where?

A

Lymph nodes, GI, CNS, genitourinary

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14
Q

A doctor orders you to do an AFB smear on a CSF specimen. However, you recall that AFB smear is only done on sputum specimens. Should you do the AFB smear and why?

A

Yes, because the infection may have spread to the CNS

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15
Q

Which AFB smear requires a heating-step?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

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16
Q

This technique is also referred to as ‘cold’ acid-fast stain

A

Kinyoun Stain

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17
Q

________is used to report AFB microscopy

A

Direct sputum smear microscopy

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18
Q

What are the limitations of AFB?

A
  • Not specific to mycobacteria
  • less sensitive and specific than culture
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19
Q

MTB: ___ grower
NMTB: _____ grower

A

rapid grower
slow grower

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20
Q

What is the WHO recommended media for TB?

A

Broth media

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21
Q

What is the egg media for TB called?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

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22
Q

What is the recommended diagnostic test by DOH for TB?

A

Xpert MTB/Rif Assay

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23
Q

Chest X-ray: ____
AFB Smear: _____

A

Positive
Negative

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Chest X-ray can distinguish between active and latent infection

A

False

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25
Q

What laboratory test is used to test for extrapulmonary tuberculosis, and is the indicator?

A

Histopathology
Granuloma or Caseation Necrosis

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26
Q

What samples are sent for Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)?

A

Blood and antibody

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27
Q

2-phase chemotherapy consists of ____ phase and ____ phase

A

intensive and continuation

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28
Q

The continuation phase for TB Treatment is used to kill _____ to prevent ____

A

persisters, relapse

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29
Q

MDR TB is resistant to ______ and ______, the most potent anti-TB drugs

A

INH (Isoniazid) and rifampicin

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30
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Based on culture-positive PTB results, there was no evidence of a decline in the PTB Prevalence rates in the 2016 NTPS compared to the 2007 NTPS.

A

TRUE

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31
Q

What are the 5 key elements in DOTS?

A
  • Government Commitment
  • Case detection by sputum microscopy
  • Standardized 6-8 month treatment regimen
  • Regular, uninterrupted drug supply
  • Standardized surveillance and Monitoring
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32
Q

What are the steps in the DOH program for TB Control?

A
  1. Screening
  2. Testing
  3. Treatment
  4. Prevention
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33
Q

Intensified TB Case Finding is done in health facilities, meanwhile Enhanced TB case finding is done in?

A

House-to-house visits using symptom screening

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34
Q

The first isolated Mycoplasma spp. was from bovines as pleuropneumonia and was deemed as _______

A

Eaton agent (M. pneumoniae)

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35
Q

Define pleomorphic

A

occurring in different forms

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36
Q

_________ has a fried egg colony appearance

A

Mycoplasma spp.

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37
Q

Mycoplasma: ___ pH
Ureaplasma: ____pH

A

6-8
5.5-6.5

38
Q

Pleuropneumonia-like (PPLO) broth or agar contains _______ and ______

A

yeast extract and horse serum

39
Q

Mycoplasma are fastidious organisms which require ______ for membrane function and growth

A

Sterols

40
Q

Modified New York City Agar is similar to ____

A

modified Thayer-Martin

41
Q

All of the following Mycoplasma species occupy the urogenital tract EXCEPT:

A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumoniae
C. U. urealyticum
D. U. parvum

A

B. M. pneumoniae

42
Q

What is the primary metabolite of M. pneumoniae?

A

Glucose

43
Q

Which two mycoplasma species are known human pathogens?

A. M. pneumoniae and M. genitalium
B. M. genitalium and M. hominis
C. M. pneumoniae and M. hominis

A

C. M. pneumoniae and M. hominis

44
Q

What is the smallest free-living organism in nature?

A

Mycoplasma spp.

45
Q

_____ is the normal laboratory contaminant

A

B. subtiis

46
Q

Mycoplasma species are extremely sensitive to drying due to ________

A

The lack of cell wall

47
Q

The transport medium for mycoplasma consists of ______

A

Trypticase soy broth with 0.5% albumin and penicillin

48
Q

Due to the lack of cell wall, antimicrobials targets _____ and _____ of mycoplasma

A

Protein synthesis and DNA gyrase

49
Q

Mycoplasma is usually treated with ______

A

macrolides, tetracyclines, or fluoroquinolones

50
Q

For bacteria with cells walls, which type of antibiotics are usually used?

A

Beta Lactam and vancomycin

51
Q

Which of the following targets the DNA gyrase?

A. Macrolides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Fluoroquinolines

A

C. Fluoroquinolones

52
Q

Which Mycoplasma spp. causes primary atypical pnuemonia in young adults?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

53
Q

Due to the _________ , Mycoplasma pneumoniae do not take up dye under gram staining

A

lack of proper rigid cell wall

54
Q

M. pneumoniae is osmotically _____ in the external environment

A

Unstable

55
Q

M. pneumonia is the leading cause of _______

A

community-acquired pneumonia

56
Q

Adhesion Protein (P1) of M. pneumoniae attaches through interaction with ______

A

neuramic acid

57
Q

To avoid the battlefield, M. pneumoniae sneaks into the ______ where they remain dormant or replicate intracellularly

A

lung cells

58
Q

Atypical pneumonia is also called _____

A

Walking pneumonia

59
Q

Incubation period for M. pneumoniae

A

2-3 weeks

60
Q

In chest x-rays of patients diagnosed with M. pneumoniae, what signs indicate infection?

A

Patchy infiltrates

61
Q

Eaton’s Agar media is rich in _____ and ____

A

Cholesterol and nucleic acid

62
Q

Which is more frequently done, culture or cold agglutinin test

A

Cold agglutinin test since it is faster than culture

63
Q

In cold agglutinin test, IgM antibodies against bacterial antigens cross-react with _____

A

Human RBC antigens

64
Q

For M. pneumonia, antibiotics like _____ are inefficient. Hence, antibiotics that ______ are used

A

beta-lactam antibiotics (cell wall inhibitors)
inhibit protein biosynthesis

65
Q

What is the principle virulence factor for Haemophilus?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

66
Q

For Haemophilus,

Typeable: _____
Non-typeable: ______

A

encapsulated
unencapsulated

67
Q

How many capsular serotypes and biotypes does H. influenzae have?

A

6 capsular serotypes (A-F)
8 Biotypes (I - VIII)

68
Q

The polysaccharide capsule of H. influenzae is identified using _____ and _____

A

capsule stains and Quellung reaction

69
Q

H. influenzae is tested for _______

A

beta-lactamase

70
Q

What are the virulence factors of typeable H. influenzae?

A

Fimbriae, IgA proteases, Outer membrane proteins and LPS

71
Q

Typeable H. influenzae is ______

A

antiphagocytic and anticomplementary

72
Q

What is Typeable H. influenzae composed of?

A

Composed of sugar-alcohol phosphate (polyribosyl ribitol phosphate)

73
Q

_________ detects the Hib capsular antigen

A

latex agglutination

74
Q

It is the 2nd Prevalent etiologic agent after S. pneumoniae

A

NTHI

75
Q

What bacteria causes pink eye, a very contagious conjunctivitis?

A

H. aegyptius

76
Q

H. aegyptius resembles ____

A

H. influenzae biotype III

77
Q

What is the agent of chancroid of ‘soft chancre’ (STD)?

A

H. ducreyi

78
Q

H. ducreyi can be isolated using chocolate agar with ____

A

vancomycin

79
Q

________factors are required in the culture medium of Haemophilus(fastidious)

A

X and V

80
Q

All clinically significant Haemophilus require the V factor, except ____ and ____

A

H. ducreyi and H. aphrophilus

81
Q

The preferred culture media for Haemophilus is ____________ blood agar to observe hemolysis

A

Rabbit or horse

82
Q

Why is sheep’s blood not used as culture medium for haemophilus?

A

Due to presence of NADase which inactivates NAD (V factor)

83
Q

S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Neisseria all produce _____

A

V factor

84
Q

CAP: _______
Nairobi Biplate medium: H. ducreyi

A

H. aegyptius

85
Q

Satellism is observed in an organism that secretes what substance?

A

NAD substance

86
Q

X (hemin): synthesis of cytochrome C
V (NAD): ____-

A

oxidation-reduction process

87
Q

How many stains of encapsulated H. influenzae is present?

A

6 serotypes

88
Q

What are the virulence factors of H. influenzae?

A

Polysaccharide capsule, pili, adhesion proteins, LOS, IgA protease, Biofilms, Phase variation of oligosaccharides

89
Q

Epiglottitis: Hib infection
Bronchopneumonia: ______

A

NTHi infection

90
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Encapsulated strains are more invasive than than nonencapsulated

A

True

152 LE4 (6 decks)

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