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152 LE4 > Bacteria in the Respiratory Tract II > Flashcards

Bacteria in the Respiratory Tract II Flashcards

1
Q

Tuberculosis is characterized by __________ and _________

A

caseation necrosis and granuloma formation

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2
Q

The mycolic acid of M. tuberculosis is responsible for the bacteria’s resistance to

A. Host Defenses
B. Antiviral action
C. Antibiotics

A

C. Antibiotics

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3
Q

Tuberculosis can infect up to ______ people/year

A. 7-10
B. 10-15
C. 15-20

A

B

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4
Q

What environmental factors contribute to the risk of TB transmission?

A

Temperature, humidity, O2, radiation

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5
Q

_________ MTB have a higher risk of transmission as compared to _____ MTB

A

Drug resistant, drug susceptible

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6
Q

Duration and intensity are ______ risk factors of Tubercolosis.

A

Exposure

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7
Q

Which Immune cell mainly responds to tuberculosis infection?

A. CD4
B. CD8
C. APC
D. Th1

A

A. CD4

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8
Q

______ is an MTB-presenting cell which releases ______ which stimulates _______. It then stimulates release of ______ which release _______.

A. APC, Th1, Interferon, IL12,CD4
B. APC, IL12, Th1, Interferon, CD4
C. APC, Th1, IL12, CD4, Interferon
D. APC, IL12, Th1, CD 4, Interferon

A

D. APC, IL12, Th1, CD 4, Interferon

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9
Q

Enumerate some of the actions employed by the immune system in response to tuberculosis infection.

A
  • Inhibition of Ca2+ Signals
  • Blockage of recruitment and assembly of fusion mediating proteins
  • Granuloma formation
  • Killing of intracellular mycobacteria
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10
Q

CD__: Fas independent
CD__: Fas Dependent

A

CD8+
CD4-8-

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11
Q

What conditions must be met for tuberculosis to progress to secondary tuberculosis?

A
  • Host factors (Low immune response)
  • Agent factors (more virulent, more resistant)
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12
Q

People who have had _______ are at higher risk for getting drug-resistant TB

A

Previous TB treatment

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13
Q

In extrapulmonary TB, infection can be found where?

A

Lymph nodes, GI, CNS, genitourinary

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14
Q

A doctor orders you to do an AFB smear on a CSF specimen. However, you recall that AFB smear is only done on sputum specimens. Should you do the AFB smear and why?

A

Yes, because the infection may have spread to the CNS

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15
Q

Which AFB smear requires a heating-step?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

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16
Q

This technique is also referred to as ‘cold’ acid-fast stain

A

Kinyoun Stain

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17
Q

________is used to report AFB microscopy

A

Direct sputum smear microscopy

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18
Q

What are the limitations of AFB?

A
  • Not specific to mycobacteria
  • less sensitive and specific than culture
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19
Q

MTB: ___ grower
NMTB: _____ grower

A

rapid grower
slow grower

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20
Q

What is the WHO recommended media for TB?

A

Broth media

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21
Q

What is the egg media for TB called?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

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22
Q

What is the recommended diagnostic test by DOH for TB?

A

Xpert MTB/Rif Assay

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23
Q

Chest X-ray: ____
AFB Smear: _____

A

Positive
Negative

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Chest X-ray can distinguish between active and latent infection

A

False

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25
What laboratory test is used to test for extrapulmonary tuberculosis, and is the indicator?
Histopathology Granuloma or Caseation Necrosis
26
What samples are sent for Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)?
Blood and antibody
27
2-phase chemotherapy consists of ____ phase and ____ phase
intensive and continuation
28
The continuation phase for TB Treatment is used to kill _____ to prevent ____
persisters, relapse
29
MDR TB is resistant to ______ and ______, the most potent anti-TB drugs
INH (Isoniazid) and rifampicin
30
TRUE OR FALSE: Based on culture-positive PTB results, there was no evidence of a decline in the PTB Prevalence rates in the 2016 NTPS compared to the 2007 NTPS.
TRUE
31
What are the 5 key elements in DOTS?
- Government Commitment - Case detection by sputum microscopy - Standardized 6-8 month treatment regimen - Regular, uninterrupted drug supply - Standardized surveillance and Monitoring
32
What are the steps in the DOH program for TB Control?
1. Screening 2. Testing 3. Treatment 4. Prevention
33
Intensified TB Case Finding is done in health facilities, meanwhile Enhanced TB case finding is done in?
House-to-house visits using symptom screening
34
The first isolated Mycoplasma spp. was from bovines as pleuropneumonia and was deemed as _______
Eaton agent (M. pneumoniae)
35
Define pleomorphic
occurring in different forms
36
_________ has a fried egg colony appearance
Mycoplasma spp.
37
Mycoplasma: ___ pH Ureaplasma: ____pH
6-8 5.5-6.5
38
Pleuropneumonia-like (PPLO) broth or agar contains _______ and ______
yeast extract and horse serum
39
Mycoplasma are fastidious organisms which require ______ for membrane function and growth
Sterols
40
Modified New York City Agar is similar to ____
modified Thayer-Martin
41
All of the following Mycoplasma species occupy the urogenital tract EXCEPT: A. M. hominis B. M. pneumoniae C. U. urealyticum D. U. parvum
B. M. pneumoniae
42
What is the primary metabolite of M. pneumoniae?
Glucose
43
Which two mycoplasma species are known human pathogens? A. M. pneumoniae and M. genitalium B. M. genitalium and M. hominis C. M. pneumoniae and M. hominis
C. M. pneumoniae and M. hominis
44
What is the smallest free-living organism in nature?
Mycoplasma spp.
45
_____ is the normal laboratory contaminant
B. subtiis
46
Mycoplasma species are extremely sensitive to drying due to ________
The lack of cell wall
47
The transport medium for mycoplasma consists of ______
Trypticase soy broth with 0.5% albumin and penicillin
48
Due to the lack of cell wall, antimicrobials targets _____ and _____ of mycoplasma
Protein synthesis and DNA gyrase
49
Mycoplasma is usually treated with ______
macrolides, tetracyclines, or fluoroquinolones
50
For bacteria with cells walls, which type of antibiotics are usually used?
Beta Lactam and vancomycin
51
Which of the following targets the DNA gyrase? A. Macrolides B. Tetracyclines C. Fluoroquinolines
C. Fluoroquinolones
52
Which Mycoplasma spp. causes primary atypical pnuemonia in young adults?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
53
Due to the _________ , Mycoplasma pneumoniae do not take up dye under gram staining
lack of proper rigid cell wall
54
M. pneumoniae is osmotically _____ in the external environment
Unstable
55
M. pneumonia is the leading cause of _______
community-acquired pneumonia
56
Adhesion Protein (P1) of M. pneumoniae attaches through interaction with ______
neuramic acid
57
To avoid the battlefield, M. pneumoniae sneaks into the ______ where they remain dormant or replicate intracellularly
lung cells
58
Atypical pneumonia is also called _____
Walking pneumonia
59
Incubation period for M. pneumoniae
2-3 weeks
60
In chest x-rays of patients diagnosed with M. pneumoniae, what signs indicate infection?
Patchy infiltrates
61
Eaton's Agar media is rich in _____ and ____
Cholesterol and nucleic acid
62
Which is more frequently done, culture or cold agglutinin test
Cold agglutinin test since it is faster than culture
63
In cold agglutinin test, IgM antibodies against bacterial antigens cross-react with _____
Human RBC antigens
64
For M. pneumonia, antibiotics like _____ are inefficient. Hence, antibiotics that ______ are used
beta-lactam antibiotics (cell wall inhibitors) inhibit protein biosynthesis
65
What is the principle virulence factor for Haemophilus?
Polysaccharide capsule
66
For Haemophilus, Typeable: _____ Non-typeable: ______
encapsulated unencapsulated
67
How many capsular serotypes and biotypes does H. influenzae have?
6 capsular serotypes (A-F) 8 Biotypes (I - VIII)
68
The polysaccharide capsule of H. influenzae is identified using _____ and _____
capsule stains and Quellung reaction
69
H. influenzae is tested for _______
beta-lactamase
70
What are the virulence factors of typeable H. influenzae?
Fimbriae, IgA proteases, Outer membrane proteins and LPS
71
Typeable H. influenzae is ______
antiphagocytic and anticomplementary
72
What is Typeable H. influenzae composed of?
Composed of sugar-alcohol phosphate (polyribosyl ribitol phosphate)
73
_________ detects the Hib capsular antigen
latex agglutination
74
It is the 2nd Prevalent etiologic agent after S. pneumoniae
NTHI
75
What bacteria causes pink eye, a very contagious conjunctivitis?
H. aegyptius
76
H. aegyptius resembles ____
H. influenzae biotype III
77
What is the agent of chancroid of 'soft chancre' (STD)?
H. ducreyi
78
H. ducreyi can be isolated using chocolate agar with ____
vancomycin
79
________factors are required in the culture medium of Haemophilus(fastidious)
X and V
80
All clinically significant Haemophilus require the V factor, except ____ and ____
H. ducreyi and H. aphrophilus
81
The preferred culture media for Haemophilus is ____________ blood agar to observe hemolysis
Rabbit or horse
82
Why is sheep's blood not used as culture medium for haemophilus?
Due to presence of NADase which inactivates NAD (V factor)
83
S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Neisseria all produce _____
V factor
84
CAP: _______ Nairobi Biplate medium: H. ducreyi
H. aegyptius
85
Satellism is observed in an organism that secretes what substance?
NAD substance
86
X (hemin): synthesis of cytochrome C V (NAD): ____-
oxidation-reduction process
87
How many stains of encapsulated H. influenzae is present?
6 serotypes
88
What are the virulence factors of H. influenzae?
Polysaccharide capsule, pili, adhesion proteins, LOS, IgA protease, Biofilms, Phase variation of oligosaccharides
89
Epiglottitis: Hib infection Bronchopneumonia: ______
NTHi infection
90
TRUE OR FALSE: Encapsulated strains are more invasive than than nonencapsulated
True

152 LE4 (6 decks)

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