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Med 103 > Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

where does e coli grow in the body

A

in the gut

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2
Q

is e coli gram negative or gram positive

A

gram negative

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3
Q

what is PAMP in full

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

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4
Q

what is the correct order of gram staining

A 
Crystal violet (primary stain)
Iodine solution (fixes crystal violet to cell wall)
Decolorizer (e.g. ethanol)
Safranin (secondary stain)
Water
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5
Q

which of the following is not bacteria

1) thermatoga
2) sulfolobus
3) aquifex
4) bacillis

A

sulfolobus is archaea

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6
Q

which of the following is not a eukaryote

1) euglena
2) trypanosoma
3) giardia
4) methanococcus

A

methanococcus is archaea

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7
Q

which of the following is not archaea

1) haloferax
2) trichonomas
3) methanothermobacter
4) aeropyrum

A

trichonomas is a eukaryote

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8
Q

what do prokaryotes use for ATP production/electron transport

A

cytoplasmic membrane

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9
Q

do prokayotes have 80S or 70S ribosomes

A

70S , 50S + 30S

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10
Q

true or false, chromosomes contain sterols

A

false, only eukaryotic chromosomes

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11
Q

teichoic acid is more common in cell walls of

A

gram positive bacteria

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12
Q

which of the following organelles do prokaryotes have

a) golgi body
b) mitcohondria
c) nucleus
d) endoplasmic reticulum

A

none of the above

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13
Q

how many chromosomes do prokaryotes have

A

1

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14
Q

prokaryotes have highly repetitive DNA, true or false

A

false, they have little repetition

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15
Q

prokaryotes have individually expressed genes, true or false

A

false, they have their genes groups called operons

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16
Q

bacteria have chlorophyll scattered in their cytoplasm but lack chloroplasts, true or false

A

true

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17
Q

bacteria have perixosomes, true or false

A

false. only eukaryotes

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18
Q

prokaryotes lack a centrosomes, true or false

A

true

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19
Q

bacterial zygotes are

a) diploid
b) merazoygotic
c) haploid
d) triploid

A

merazygotic - partially diploid

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20
Q

what processes occur simultaneously in prokaryotes

A

transcription and translation

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21
Q

where does DNA replication occur in bacteria

A

cytoplasm

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22
Q

what is the process of cell division in prokaryotes

A

replication
septum formation
cleavage/incomplete cleavage

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23
Q

give two examples of spore forming bacteria

A

Bacillus (B. anthracis) and Clostridium (C. tetani or

botulinum) which are gram positive

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24
Q

what are the seven structural components of a spore

A 
exosporium
protein coat 
outer membrane 
cortex 
spore wall
inner membrane 
core
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25
Q

what is the function of dipicolinic acid

A

for heat resistance in endospores

26
Q

what are endospores covered with

A

surrounded by the cytoplasmic membrane, the peptidoglycan, and the membrane of the septum, tough keratin-like protein coat

27
Q

how long does it take to form an endospore

A

6-8 hours

28
Q

lack of what amino acid triggers endospore formation

A

alanine

29
Q

putrescine, spermidine, and spermine are examples of what

A

polyamines

30
Q

what is the function of polyamines in bacteria

A

they maintain chromosomes

31
Q

what are the products of arginine catabolism

A

putrescine, spermidine, and spermine

32
Q

what are protein structural genes/coding genes in bacteria called

A

cistrons

33
Q

what are operons with many genes called

A

polycistronic

34
Q

what are examples of extrachromosomal genetic elemements

A

plasmids and bacteriophages

35
Q

what enzyme performs RNA synthesis

A

DNA dependant RNA polymerase

36
Q

what recognizes a particular sequence of nucleotides in the DNA called the promoter

A

sigma factor

37
Q

what does sigma factor act as

A

a docking site for RNA polymerase

38
Q

what are -10 and -35 elements

A

short sequences of DNA within a gene promoter or enhancer region that are able to bind specific transcription factors and regulate transcription of genes

39
Q

what do bacteria do under conditions like heat shock, starvation, special nitrogen metabolism, or sporulation

A

they encode multiple sigma factors

40
Q

what antibiotic inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase

A

rifampin

41
Q

what are the two termination methods in bacteria

A

Rho- dependent and Rho independent termination

42
Q

what does the Rho factor do

A

pulls the RNA transcript and the DNA template strand apart, releasing the RNA molecule and terminating the transcription process

43
Q

a Rho independent region is rich in which nucleotides

A

G and C

44
Q

how does Rho independent work

A

The RNA that is transcribed from this region folds back on itself, form hairpin and Stalled RNA polymerase causes an instability allowing the enzyme to fall off
and end from the new RNA transcript

45
Q

what are the three promoter elements in bacteria

A

-10,-35 and upstream elements

46
Q

bacteria dont undergo posttranslational modifications, true or false

A

true

47
Q

what genetic inhibitor is extracted from yeast

A

alpha amanitin which is selective for RNA polymerase I and II

48
Q

how does rifampicin inhibit protein synthesis

A

by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase by binding to the beta-subunit

49
Q

what is an example an antifungal transcription inhibitor

A

8-hydroxyquinoline

50
Q

what is an example of CDK9 inhibitors

A

DRB

51
Q

actinomycin, flavopiridol and triptolide are examples of what

A

genetic inhibitors/protein synthesis inhibitors

52
Q

what does histone myelination cause

A

bars the action of transcription in eukaryotes

53
Q

what is fmet (formyl methionine)

A

starting residue in the synthesis of proteins in bacteria

54
Q

what is shine dalgarno sequences

A

short sequence rich in purines. ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG

55
Q

what do Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines do

A

binding to the small ribosomal subunit and inhibiting normal ribosomal function

56
Q

what are examples of Aminoglycosides

A

streptomycin and gentamicin

57
Q

what do macrolide and lincosamide do

A

groups of antibiotics act by binding to the large ribosomal subunit.

58
Q

erythromycin and clindamycin are examples of what inhibitors

A

macrolide and lincosamide respectively

59
Q

what do N-Formylmethionine (fMet) peptides attract

A

neutrophils to site of infection

60
Q

what are examples of small molecular activators

A

cAMP and cGMP

61
Q

what do increased cAMP levels show

A

low levels of glucose

Med 103 (13 decks)

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