Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

where does e coli grow in the body

A

in the gut

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2
Q

is e coli gram negative or gram positive

A

gram negative

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3
Q

what is PAMP in full

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

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4
Q

what is the correct order of gram staining

A
Crystal violet (primary stain)
Iodine solution (fixes crystal violet to cell wall)
Decolorizer (e.g. ethanol)
Safranin (secondary stain)
Water
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5
Q

which of the following is not bacteria

1) thermatoga
2) sulfolobus
3) aquifex
4) bacillis

A

sulfolobus is archaea

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6
Q

which of the following is not a eukaryote

1) euglena
2) trypanosoma
3) giardia
4) methanococcus

A

methanococcus is archaea

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7
Q

which of the following is not archaea

1) haloferax
2) trichonomas
3) methanothermobacter
4) aeropyrum

A

trichonomas is a eukaryote

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8
Q

what do prokaryotes use for ATP production/electron transport

A

cytoplasmic membrane

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9
Q

do prokayotes have 80S or 70S ribosomes

A

70S , 50S + 30S

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10
Q

true or false, chromosomes contain sterols

A

false, only eukaryotic chromosomes

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11
Q

teichoic acid is more common in cell walls of

A

gram positive bacteria

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12
Q

which of the following organelles do prokaryotes have

a) golgi body
b) mitcohondria
c) nucleus
d) endoplasmic reticulum

A

none of the above

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13
Q

how many chromosomes do prokaryotes have

A

1

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14
Q

prokaryotes have highly repetitive DNA, true or false

A

false, they have little repetition

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15
Q

prokaryotes have individually expressed genes, true or false

A

false, they have their genes groups called operons

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16
Q

bacteria have chlorophyll scattered in their cytoplasm but lack chloroplasts, true or false

A

true

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17
Q

bacteria have perixosomes, true or false

A

false. only eukaryotes

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18
Q

prokaryotes lack a centrosomes, true or false

A

true

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19
Q

bacterial zygotes are

a) diploid
b) merazoygotic
c) haploid
d) triploid

A

merazygotic - partially diploid

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20
Q

what processes occur simultaneously in prokaryotes

A

transcription and translation

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21
Q

where does DNA replication occur in bacteria

A

cytoplasm

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22
Q

what is the process of cell division in prokaryotes

A

replication
septum formation
cleavage/incomplete cleavage

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23
Q

give two examples of spore forming bacteria

A

Bacillus (B. anthracis) and Clostridium (C. tetani or

botulinum) which are gram positive

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24
Q

what are the seven structural components of a spore

A
exosporium
protein coat 
outer membrane 
cortex 
spore wall
inner membrane 
core
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25
what is the function of dipicolinic acid
for heat resistance in endospores
26
what are endospores covered with
surrounded by the cytoplasmic membrane, the peptidoglycan, and the membrane of the septum, tough keratin-like protein coat
27
how long does it take to form an endospore
6-8 hours
28
lack of what amino acid triggers endospore formation
alanine
29
putrescine, spermidine, and spermine are examples of what
polyamines
30
what is the function of polyamines in bacteria
they maintain chromosomes
31
what are the products of arginine catabolism
putrescine, spermidine, and spermine
32
what are protein structural genes/coding genes in bacteria called
cistrons
33
what are operons with many genes called
polycistronic
34
what are examples of extrachromosomal genetic elemements
plasmids and bacteriophages
35
what enzyme performs RNA synthesis
DNA dependant RNA polymerase
36
what recognizes a particular sequence of nucleotides in the DNA called the promoter
sigma factor
37
what does sigma factor act as
a docking site for RNA polymerase
38
what are -10 and -35 elements
short sequences of DNA within a gene promoter or enhancer region that are able to bind specific transcription factors and regulate transcription of genes
39
what do bacteria do under conditions like heat shock, starvation, special nitrogen metabolism, or sporulation
they encode multiple sigma factors
40
what antibiotic inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase
rifampin
41
what are the two termination methods in bacteria
Rho- dependent and Rho independent termination
42
what does the Rho factor do
pulls the RNA transcript and the DNA template strand apart, releasing the RNA molecule and terminating the transcription process
43
a Rho independent region is rich in which nucleotides
G and C
44
how does Rho independent work
The RNA that is transcribed from this region folds back on itself, form hairpin and Stalled RNA polymerase causes an instability allowing the enzyme to fall off and end from the new RNA transcript
45
what are the three promoter elements in bacteria
-10,-35 and upstream elements
46
bacteria dont undergo posttranslational modifications, true or false
true
47
what genetic inhibitor is extracted from yeast
alpha amanitin which is selective for RNA polymerase I and II
48
how does rifampicin inhibit protein synthesis
by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase by binding to the beta-subunit
49
what is an example an antifungal transcription inhibitor
8-hydroxyquinoline
50
what is an example of CDK9 inhibitors
DRB
51
actinomycin, flavopiridol and triptolide are examples of what
genetic inhibitors/protein synthesis inhibitors
52
what does histone myelination cause
bars the action of transcription in eukaryotes
53
what is fmet (formyl methionine)
starting residue in the synthesis of proteins in bacteria
54
what is shine dalgarno sequences
short sequence rich in purines. ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG
55
what do Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines do
binding to the small ribosomal subunit and inhibiting normal ribosomal function
56
what are examples of Aminoglycosides
streptomycin and gentamicin
57
what do macrolide and lincosamide do
groups of antibiotics act by binding to the large ribosomal subunit.
58
erythromycin and clindamycin are examples of what inhibitors
macrolide and lincosamide respectively
59
what do N-Formylmethionine (fMet) peptides attract
neutrophils to site of infection
60
what are examples of small molecular activators
cAMP and cGMP
61
what do increased cAMP levels show
low levels of glucose