Bacteria Flashcards
where does e coli grow in the body
in the gut
is e coli gram negative or gram positive
gram negative
what is PAMP in full
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns
what is the correct order of gram staining
Crystal violet (primary stain) Iodine solution (fixes crystal violet to cell wall) Decolorizer (e.g. ethanol) Safranin (secondary stain) Water
which of the following is not bacteria
1) thermatoga
2) sulfolobus
3) aquifex
4) bacillis
sulfolobus is archaea
which of the following is not a eukaryote
1) euglena
2) trypanosoma
3) giardia
4) methanococcus
methanococcus is archaea
which of the following is not archaea
1) haloferax
2) trichonomas
3) methanothermobacter
4) aeropyrum
trichonomas is a eukaryote
what do prokaryotes use for ATP production/electron transport
cytoplasmic membrane
do prokayotes have 80S or 70S ribosomes
70S , 50S + 30S
true or false, chromosomes contain sterols
false, only eukaryotic chromosomes
teichoic acid is more common in cell walls of
gram positive bacteria
which of the following organelles do prokaryotes have
a) golgi body
b) mitcohondria
c) nucleus
d) endoplasmic reticulum
none of the above
how many chromosomes do prokaryotes have
1
prokaryotes have highly repetitive DNA, true or false
false, they have little repetition
prokaryotes have individually expressed genes, true or false
false, they have their genes groups called operons
bacteria have chlorophyll scattered in their cytoplasm but lack chloroplasts, true or false
true
bacteria have perixosomes, true or false
false. only eukaryotes
prokaryotes lack a centrosomes, true or false
true
bacterial zygotes are
a) diploid
b) merazoygotic
c) haploid
d) triploid
merazygotic - partially diploid
what processes occur simultaneously in prokaryotes
transcription and translation
where does DNA replication occur in bacteria
cytoplasm
what is the process of cell division in prokaryotes
replication
septum formation
cleavage/incomplete cleavage
give two examples of spore forming bacteria
Bacillus (B. anthracis) and Clostridium (C. tetani or
botulinum) which are gram positive
what are the seven structural components of a spore
exosporium protein coat outer membrane cortex spore wall inner membrane core
what is the function of dipicolinic acid
for heat resistance in endospores
what are endospores covered with
surrounded by the cytoplasmic membrane, the peptidoglycan, and the membrane of the septum, tough keratin-like protein coat
how long does it take to form an endospore
6-8 hours
lack of what amino acid triggers endospore formation
alanine
putrescine, spermidine, and spermine are examples of what
polyamines
what is the function of polyamines in bacteria
they maintain chromosomes
what are the products of arginine catabolism
putrescine, spermidine, and spermine
what are protein structural genes/coding genes in bacteria called
cistrons
what are operons with many genes called
polycistronic
what are examples of extrachromosomal genetic elemements
plasmids and bacteriophages
what enzyme performs RNA synthesis
DNA dependant RNA polymerase
what recognizes a particular sequence of nucleotides in the DNA called the promoter
sigma factor
what does sigma factor act as
a docking site for RNA polymerase
what are -10 and -35 elements
short sequences of DNA within a gene promoter or enhancer region that are able to bind specific transcription factors and regulate transcription of genes
what do bacteria do under conditions like heat shock, starvation, special nitrogen metabolism, or sporulation
they encode multiple sigma factors
what antibiotic inhibits DNA dependant RNA polymerase
rifampin
what are the two termination methods in bacteria
Rho- dependent and Rho independent termination
what does the Rho factor do
pulls the RNA transcript and the DNA template strand apart, releasing the RNA molecule and terminating the transcription process
a Rho independent region is rich in which nucleotides
G and C
how does Rho independent work
The RNA that is transcribed from this region folds back on itself, form hairpin and Stalled RNA polymerase causes an instability allowing the enzyme to fall off
and end from the new RNA transcript
what are the three promoter elements in bacteria
-10,-35 and upstream elements
bacteria dont undergo posttranslational modifications, true or false
true
what genetic inhibitor is extracted from yeast
alpha amanitin which is selective for RNA polymerase I and II
how does rifampicin inhibit protein synthesis
by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase by binding to the beta-subunit
what is an example an antifungal transcription inhibitor
8-hydroxyquinoline
what is an example of CDK9 inhibitors
DRB
actinomycin, flavopiridol and triptolide are examples of what
genetic inhibitors/protein synthesis inhibitors
what does histone myelination cause
bars the action of transcription in eukaryotes
what is fmet (formyl methionine)
starting residue in the synthesis of proteins in bacteria
what is shine dalgarno sequences
short sequence rich in purines. ribosomal binding site in bacterial and archaeal messenger RNA, generally located around 8 bases upstream of the start codon AUG
what do Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines do
binding to the small ribosomal subunit and inhibiting normal ribosomal function
what are examples of Aminoglycosides
streptomycin and gentamicin
what do macrolide and lincosamide do
groups of antibiotics act by binding to the large ribosomal subunit.
erythromycin and clindamycin are examples of what inhibitors
macrolide and lincosamide respectively
what do N-Formylmethionine (fMet) peptides attract
neutrophils to site of infection
what are examples of small molecular activators
cAMP and cGMP
what do increased cAMP levels show
low levels of glucose
