B4M1 16-17 Flashcards

1
Q

The liquid portion of the blood with fibrinogen and some of the clotting proteins removed is called:
A. Plasma
B. Platelets
C. Formed elements
D. Serum

A

D. Serum

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2
Q

Which chemical is involved in the breakdown of a clot (fibrinolysis)
A. Fibrinogen
B. Antithrombin
C. Hepatin
D. Plasmin

A

D. Plasmin

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3
Q

Hematopoiesis occurring in the liver and spleen is termed
A. Intramedullary
B. Extramedullary
C. Production and differentiation
D. Compensatory Erythropoiesis

A

B. Extramedullary

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4
Q

The lymphoid stem cell gives rise to precursors of
A. Myeloblasts
B. Monoblasts
C. T cells and B cells
D. Granulocytes

A

C. T cells and B cells

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5
Q

Normal clotting time is:
A. 4 to 10 minutes
B. 2 to 3 minutes
C. 1 to 10 minutes
D. 3 to 5 minutes

A

A. 4 to 10 minutes

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6
Q

Which of the following is a major function of erythrocytes?
A. Responsible for blood plasma to transport enormous quantities of carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs in the form of bicarbonate ion
B. Transports hemoglobin which carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues
C. Responsible for most of the acid-base buffering power of the whole blood
D. Responsible for maintaining osmotic balance

A

B. Transports hemoglobin which carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues

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7
Q

Case: A 23 years old female consulted at the clinic for acute urinary tract infection. CBC showed a WBC count of 18,000/cu.mm.
Peripheral smear showed a preponderance of WBC with dark purple segmented nuclei & densely stained chromatin material in clumps. The cytoplasm stained light pink with numerous specific granules.

Identify these WBCs:
A. Basophil
B. Segmented neutrophil
C. Band
D. Eosinophil

A

C. Band

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8
Q

Case: A 23 years old female consulted at the clinic for acute urinary tract infection. CBC showed a WBC count of 18,000/cu.mm.
Peripheral smear showed a preponderance of WBC with dark purple segmented nuclei & densely stained chromatin material in clumps. The cytoplasm stained light pink with numerous specific granules.

What is the major function of the above WBC:
A. It is involved in cell mediated immunity
B. It inactivates histamine & other factors released by mast cells
C. It stops or retards the action of infectious agents by phagocytosis
D. It is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reaction

A

C. It stops or retards the action of infectious agents by phagocytosis

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9
Q

Which of the following is the most immature form of granulocyte?
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Myeloblast

A

D. Myeloblast

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10
Q

The granules of neutrophils are packaged & released from the:
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes

A

C. Golgi apparatus

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11
Q

Which agranulocyte has a heavily clumped chromatin which is arranged in a radial or wheel-like pattern?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Plasma cell
D. Macrophage

A

C. Plasma cell

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12
Q

A person who has tuberculosis has:
A. Increased monocytes in the blood and increased lymphocytes
B. Increased monocytes, increased platelets
C. Increased monocytes and decreased lymphocytes
D. Increased monocytes and increased lymphocytes

A

C. Increased monocytes and decreased lymphocytes

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13
Q

A measure of the variability of the red cell size and shape:
A. Red cell distribution width
B. Mean corpuscular volume
C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
D. Red blood cell count

A

A. Red cell distribution width

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14
Q

A 19 year old female has a hemoglobin of 10.5. What is the estimated hematocrit?
A. 21
B. 42
C. 31.5
D 28

A

C. 31.5

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15
Q

This refers to the average amount of hemoglobin in an average red blood cell?
A. Mean corpuscular volume
B. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
C. Hematocrit
D. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

A

B. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin

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16
Q

Cecil had her CBC taken, she had fever for 3 days. Results showed the following:

WBC ct.: 12,000/cu.mm
Differential ct.:
Segmenters - 80%
Lymphocytes - 15%
Eosinophils - 2%
Monocytes - 3%

What is the most likely clinical interpretation:
A. Normal laboratory result
B. Bacterial infection
C. Allergic reaction
D. Parasitic infection

A

B. Bacterial infection

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17
Q

What is the normal myeloid: erythrocyte ratio in bone marrow?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 10:1
D. 1:10

A

A. 4:1

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18
Q

Which of the following white blood cells most likely increases in cases of parasitic infestation?
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes

A

C. Eosinophils

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19
Q

Which of these compounds act as a negative regulator of the synthesis of ALA synthase during heme biosynthesis?
A. Ferrous
B. Heme
C. Glycine
D. Pyridoxine

A

B. Heme

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20
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step in heme synthesis?
A. Ferrochelatase
B. ALA dehydratase
C. HMB synthase
D. ALA synthase

A

D. ALA synthase

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21
Q

The first major step of hemostasis:
A. Tissue injury
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Platelet plug formation
D. Blood coagulation

A

B. Vasoconstriction

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22
Q

A potent vasoconstrictor found in blood vessels but when over-expressed causes hypertension:
A. Norepinephrine
B. Epinephrine
C. Endothelin
D. Thromboxane A2

A

C. Endothelin

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23
Q

How long will it take a clot to develop if there is severe trauma to the vascular wall?
A. 5 to 10 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 15 to 20 seconds
D. 20 to 25 seconds

A

C. 15 to 20 seconds

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24
Q

The vitamin K dependent factors include:
A. Fibrinogen and factors VII, IX, X
B. Tissue factor and factors V, VIII, XI
C. Prothrombin and factor VII, IX, X
D. Fibrinogen and factors V, VII, IX

A

C. Prothrombin and factor VII, IX, X

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25
Q

Proaccelerin is the most unstable of the coagulation factors. It is also known as:
A. Factor VII
B. Factor IV
C. Factor V
D. Factor III

A

C. Factor V

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26
Q

Factor XII is also known as:
A. Fletcher factor
B. Fitzgerald factor
C. Christmas factor
D. Hageman factor

A

D. Hageman factor

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27
Q

The extrinsic pathway for initiating blood clotting begins with:
A. Trauma to the blood
B. Traumatized vascular wall
C. Tissue factor
D. Activated factor X

A

B. Traumatized vascular wall

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28
Q

In the activation of factor XI by factor XII, a high molecular weight kininogen is required and is accelerated by:
A. Platelet phospholipids
B. Tissue phospholipids
C. Prekallikrein
D. Prothrombin activator

A

C. Prekallikrein

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29
Q

This step in the intrinsic pathway is the same as the last step in the extrinsic pathway:
A. Activation of factor IX by activated factor XI
B. Activation of factor X which is a role of factor VIII
C. Activation of factor XI which is enzymatically acted on by factor XII
D. Action of activated factor X to form prothrombin factor

A

D. Action of activated factor X to form prothrombin factor

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30
Q

The reticulum of the clot is made up of:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Fibrin monomer molecule
C. Fibrin fibers
D. Fibrin stabilizing factor

A

C. Fibrin fibers

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31
Q

This test is a crude measure of capillary fragility where a positive test results in the presence of numerous petechiae:
A. Bleeding time
B. Clotting time
C. Tourniquet test
D. Clot retraction

A

C. Tourniquet test

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32
Q

This test is a useful screening procedure for the extrinsic coagulation mechanism, including the common pathway, which detects deficiencies in factors II, V, VII, X:
A. Bleeding time
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
C. Tourniquet test
D. Prothrombin time

A

D. Prothrombin time

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33
Q

This is the most useful procedure for routine screening of coagulation disorders in the intrinsic system
A. Clotting time
B. Prothrombin time
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Clot retraction time

A

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time

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34
Q

A 26 year old female is scheduled for repeat Cesarean section. The attending obstetrician (OB) would like to do a routine screening of coagulation disorders in the intrinsic system in preparation for the surgery. Which of the following diagnostic tests will the OB consultant request?
A. Complete blood count
B. Bleeding time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

A

D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

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35
Q

A medial technologist extracted 5 mL of blood from a patient. He placed two mL of blood in a citrated test tube and the remaining 3 mL of the blood sample in a plain test tube. He then proceeded to perform other laboratory tests. After two hours, he noted that the blood on the plain test tube underwent certain changes. A clear fluid was expressed from it and the clot became denser. Which of the following statements will explain the phenomenon?
A. Normal clot retraction as taken place.
B. Some coagulation factors maybe deficient in the blood sample
C. The plasminogen system may be defective in the blood sample
D. The clotting time is prolonged.

A

A. Normal clot retraction as taken place.

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36
Q

Which of the following is/are correct of erythrocytes?
1. Designed for hemoglobin delivery
2. Travels more than 300 miles through the peripheral circulation
3. Subjected to the swift flow of the circulatory system
4. Squeezes itself through the threadlike splenic sinuses.

A
  1. Designed for hemoglobin delivery
  2. Travels more than 300 miles through the peripheral circulation
  3. Subjected to the swift flow of the circulatory system
  4. Squeezes itself through the threadlike splenic sinuses.
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37
Q

In order for the RBC to survive in the circulation for 120 days, which of the following conditions are necessary?
1. The red cell membrane should be deformable
2. Hemoglobin structure and function must be adequate
3. Red cell must maintain osmotic balance and permeability
4. Must contain large quantity of carbonic anhydrase

A
  1. The red cell membrane should be deformable
  2. Hemoglobin structure and function must be adequate
  3. Red cell must maintain osmotic balance and permeability
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38
Q

How do you describe a macrophage?
1. It is a monocyte that spends several months outside the blood.
2. It is the tissue component of the monocyte system
3. It has an irregular cell membrane with bleeds and pseudopods
4. It is present in both blood and marrow

A
  1. It is a monocyte that spends several months outside the blood.
  2. It is the tissue component of the monocyte system
  3. It has an irregular cell membrane with bleeds and pseudopods
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39
Q

Which of the following cells synthesize heme?
1. Normoblast
2. Erythroblast
3. Reticulocyte
4. Erythrocyte

A
  1. Normoblast
  2. Erythroblast
  3. Reticulocyte
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40
Q

The following statement is TRUE regarding vascular constriction:
1. The more a vessel is traumatized the greater the degree of spasm.
2. Vasoconstriction results from local indirect damage of the vascular wall
3. Local vascular spasm can last minutes to hours
4. Vasoconstriction results from production of nitric oxide

A
  1. The more a vessel is traumatized the greater the degree of spasm.
  2. Local vascular spasm can last minutes to hours
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41
Q

The concentration and formation of the temporary hemostatic plug involves the following hemostatic reaction(s):
1. Contraction of the blood vessel wall
2. Clot refraction
3. Platelet metamorphosis
4. Growth of fibrous tissue into the clot

A
  1. Contraction of the blood vessel wall
  2. Platelet metamorphosis
42
Q

The transformation of the temporary plug into the definitive blood clot involves the activity of:
1. Actin and myosin in the blood vessel wall
2. Serotonin released from platelet degranulation
3. Factor XIII or Laki-Lorand factor on the fibrin monomers
4. Blood coagulation factors

A
  1. Blood coagulation factors
43
Q

Serotonin released from platelet granules when there is blood or blood vessel injury has the following role(s) in hemostasis:
1. Activation of factor X
2. Vasoconstriction
3. Thromboplastic activity
4. Clot retraction

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Clot retraction
44
Q

The following coagulation factor(s) need(s) vitamin K for their synthesis:
1. Prothrombin
2. Proconvertin
3. Antihemophilic factor B
4. Stuart prower factor

A
  1. Prothrombin
  2. Proconvertin
  3. Antihemophilic factor B
  4. Stuart prower factor
45
Q

The activation of prothrombin to thrombin can be inhibited by:
1. Heparin
2. Vitamin K deficiency
3. Liver disease
4. Citrate

A
  1. Heparin
  2. Vitamin K deficiency
  3. Liver disease
46
Q

Jonas, a 16 year old male, was admitted to the hospital because of 5 days high grade fever associated with upper abdominal pain, anorexia (loss of appetite), general body malaise, and lately with appearance of tiny red spots in the trunk and extremities. Further work-up in the hospital revealed the following:
CBC:
RBC - 3 M/ul
WBC - 3,000/ul
Platelet- 25,000/uL
Hematocrit - 45%
40% Neutrophils, 10% Lymphocytes
NS1 - (+) Dengue fever
Chest X-Ray - Within Normal Limits

If the platelet factor is deficient the following hemostatic response(s) to blood vessel injury can also be affected
1. Vasoconstriction
2. Formation of white thrombus
3. Activation of coagulation factors
4. Integrity/strength of vascular endothelium

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Formation of white thrombus
  3. Activation of coagulation factors
  4. Integrity/strength of vascular endothelium
47
Q

Jonas, a 16 year old male, was admitted to the hospital because of 5 days high grade fever associated with upper abdominal pain, anorexia (loss of appetite), general body malaise, and lately with appearance of tiny red spots in the trunk and extremities. Further work-up in the hospital revealed the following:
CBC:
RBC - 3 M/ul
WBC - 3,000/ul
Platelet- 25,000/uL
Hematocrit - 45%
40% Neutrophils, 10% Lymphocytes
NS1 - (+) Dengue fever
Chest X-Ray - Within Normal Limits

The tiny red spots (petecchiae) which appear in the skin of Dengue fever patients, are actually hemorrhagic spots which are produced due to the following pathology in dengue fever:
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Lysis of thrombi
3. Fragile capillary walls
4. Toxins from dengue virus

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Fragile capillary walls
48
Q

Jonas, a 16 year old male, was admitted to the hospital because of 5 days high grade fever associated with upper abdominal pain, anorexia (loss of appetite), general body malaise, and lately with appearance of tiny red spots in the trunk and extremities. Further work-up in the hospital revealed the following:
CBC:
RBC - 3 M/ul
WBC - 3,000/ul
Platelet- 25,000/uL
Hematocrit - 45%
40% Neutrophils, 10% Lymphocytes
NS1 - (+) Dengue fever
Chest X-Ray - Within Normal Limits

This patient has a platelet count of 25,000/uL, so the following can be observed:
1. Patient has no abnormal bleeding even with major surgery
2. Patient may have spontaneous bleeding
3. Patient may bleed longer than normal with severe trauma
4. Bleeding occurs with minor trauma

A
  1. Patient may have spontaneous bleeding
  2. Bleeding occurs with minor trauma
49
Q

The above dengue patient started to bleed profusely from his GIT on the 7th day of illness, and passed out bloody stools. His hemoglobin and RBC count dropped drastically so that whole blood transfusion was indicated. After receiving 4 units of whole blood, the patient complained of muscle spasms in the face and hands.

These manifestations could be explained by the following:
1. Dengue virus affecting neurons in the CNS
2. Hemoconcentration of blood and thus sluggish blood flow and hypoxia
3. Allergic reactions to certain blood components
4. Hypocalcemia due to the aded calcium removing agent to the transfused blood

A
  1. Hypocalcemia due to the aded calcium removing agent to the transfused blood
50
Q

If a dengue patient is tested for hemostatic capability, the results would include the following:
1. Bleeding time, prolonged
2. Platelet count, low
3. Clotting time, normal or prolonged
4. Partial thromboplastin time, prolonged

A
  1. Bleeding time, prolonged
  2. Platelet count, low
  3. Clotting time, normal or prolonged
51
Q

Where does the primitive erythroblast develop during fetal development?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Fetal yolk sac

A

D. Fetal yolk sac

52
Q

Which of the following organs give rise to fetal hemoglobin during the hepatic period?
A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Liver
D. Lymph nodes

53
Q

Which of the following is the main organ for the production of erythrocytes during the last month of gestation?
A. Yolk sac
B. Bone marrow
C. Spleen
D. Lymph nodes

A

B. Bone marrow

54
Q

A committed stem cell that produces red blood cells is called:
A. Colony forming unit - erythrocyte
B. Lymphoid stem cell
C. Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
D. Colony forming unit - megakarytocyte

A

A. Colony forming unit - erythrocyte

55
Q

Which of the following is the most essential regulator of red blood cell production?
A. Infection
B. Tissue oxygenation
C. Availability of cyanocobalamin
D. Degree of iron absorption from the gut

A

B. Tissue oxygenation

56
Q

The granules of neutrophils are packaged and released by:
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Lysozymes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

B. Golgi apparatus

57
Q

The kidney shaped nucleus it the chief identification criterion of which stage of the neutrophilic series:
A. Promyelocyte
B. Myelocyte
C. Metamyelocyte
D. Band

A

C. Metamyelocyte

58
Q

Monocytes are in the blood for a shortened time period in which of the following cases?
A. Monocytosis
B. Splenomegaly
C. Allergic reaction
D. Anemia

A

B. Splenomegaly

59
Q

Basophils are granulocytes appearing in many specific kinds of inflammatory reactions especially those that cause:
A. Helminthic destruction
B. Allergic reactions
C. Phagocytic reactions
D. Synthesis of bioreactive moleculs

A

B. Allergic reactions

60
Q

What does basophil contain which prevents blood from clotting too quickly?
A. Histamine
B. Heparin
C. Peroxidase
D. Eosinophilic chemotactic factor A

A

B. Heparin

61
Q

What does the cytoplasm of basophil contain?
A. Heparin, histamine, serotonin
B. B glucoronidase, cathepsin
C. Chemokines, histamines, peroxidase
D. Major basic proteins

A

A. Heparin, histamine, serotonin

62
Q

What is one of the functions of plasma cells?
A. Carry out cell-mediated immunity
B. Provide defense against neoplasms
C. Production of humoral antibodies
D. Synthesis of bioactive molecules

A

C. Production of humoral antibodies

63
Q

T cells and their progeny functions in which of the following cases?
A. Parasitic infections
B. Antigen processing
C. Immediate hypersensitivity
D. Graft versus host reactions

A

D. Graft versus host reactions

64
Q

Which among the following cells originates from the polypoid megakaryocytes?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Macrophages
D. Platelets

A

D. Platelets

65
Q

A.N., a first-year medical student learned that activities of daily living can at times cause small vascular injuries. She is now wondering which cells could possibly prevent further blood loss in the presence of an injured blood vessel.
A. Monocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. Clotting factor cells

A

C. Platelets

66
Q

Parasitic infections will portray which hematologic abnormality?
A. Neutrophilia
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Eosinophilia
D. Basophilia

A

C. Eosinophilia

67
Q

The normal myeloid to erythroid ratio (M:E ratio):
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1

68
Q

Which of the parameters directly reflects the general function of the bone marrow?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time
B. Complete blood count
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Tourniquet test

A

B. Complete blood count

69
Q

A 17 year old male patient with thrombocytopenia has to maintain a normal platelet range of:
A. 50-79 x 109/L blood
B. 80-120 x 10/L blood
C. 170-450 x 109/L blood
D. 480-505 x 109/L blood

A

C. 170-450 x 109/L blood

70
Q

The more abundant and more important porphyrin type because it includes heme:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

C. Type III

71
Q

Where does the synthesis of aminolevulinate (ALA) take place?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytosol
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

C. Cytosol

72
Q

Biosynthesis of heme does not occur in which of the following cells?
A. Liver
B. Pancreatic
C. Mature lymphocytes
D. Mature erythrocytes

A

D. Mature erythrocytes

73
Q

The most important factor/factors for preventing clotting in the normal vascular system is/are:
A. Smoothness of the endothelial surface which allows contact activation of the intrinsic clotting system
B. A layer of glycocalyx on the endothelium which attracts clotting factors and platelets
C. The protein thrombomodulin which binds thrombin to slow the clotting process
D. The thrombomodulin-thrombin complex that deactivates the plasma protein-C

A

C. The protein thrombomodulin which binds thrombin to slow the clotting process

74
Q

This molecule is a highly negatively charged conjugated polysaccharide which is considered as a powerful anticoagulant especially so when in combination with antithrombin III.
A. Heparin
B. Protein-C
C. Aspirin
D. Clopidogrel

A

A. Heparin

75
Q

While a clot is forming, 85-90 percent of the thrombin formed from the prothrombin because adsorbed to which structure to prevent the excessive spread of the clot?
A. Alpha globulin
B. Glycocalyx
C. Fibrin fibers
D. Protein-C

A

C. Fibrin fibers

76
Q

Immediately after a blood vessel has been cut or ruptured, which of the following instaneously reduces flow of blood from the traumatized blood vessel?
A. Endothelin secretion
B. Local direct damage of the vascular wall causing vasoconstriction
C. Pain nerve impulses
D. Secretion of thromboxane A2

A

B. Local direct damage of the vascular wall causing vasoconstriction

77
Q

For smaller blood vessels, which of the following is responsible for much of the vasoconstriction?
A. Release of thromboxane A2 by the platelets
B. Endothelin from the traumatized tissues
C. Blood clot formation
D. Presence of Ca

A

A. Release of thromboxane A2 by the platelets

78
Q

Which of the following processes takes place during local vascular spasm which may last for many minutes or even hours?
A. Platelet plugging blood coagulation
B. Lysis of blood
C. Vasodilation
D. Minimal oozing of blood from traumatized blood vessel

A

A. Platelet plugging blood coagulation

79
Q

What is the most unstable coagulation factor?
A. Factor II
B. Tissue factor
C. Factor V
D. Factor IX

A

C. Factor V

80
Q

In liver failure, which clotting factor decreases first in plasma because it has the shortest half-life (3-6 hours)?
A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X

A

B. Factor VII

81
Q

Under normal circumstances, the rate-limiting component of prothrombinase complex formation and the ultimate generation of thrombin activity is the concentration of which activated coagulation factor?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Stuart factor
D. Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

A

C. Stuart factor

82
Q

Which test is most useful for screening for coagulation disorders in the intrinsic system?
A. Prothrombin time
B. Clotting time
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Bleeding time

A

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time

83
Q

Which of the following tests is most useful in monitoring patients on heparin therapy
A. Prothrombin
B. Clotting time
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Bleeding time

A

C. Activated partial thromboplastin time

84
Q

What is the normal range value for APTT?
A. 2-8 minutes
B. 10-15 minutes
C. 10-12 seconds
D. 25-35 seconds

A

D. 25-35 seconds

85
Q

The rate limiting factor in causing blood coagulation is the formation of which of the following?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin activator
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin

A

B. Prothrombin activator

86
Q

Which of the following plays a major role in fetal hematopoiesis until adult life?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Thymus

A

C. Bone marrow

87
Q

Intramedullary hematopoiesis refers to:
A. Hematopoiesis in the liver
B. Hematopoiesis in the spleen
C. Hematoiesis within the bone marrow
D. Hematopoiesis in the yolk sac during fetal life

A

C. Hematoiesis within the bone marrow

88
Q

The following active factor causes platelets to contract
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Thrombosthenin
D. Fibrin-stabilizing factor

A

C. Thrombosthenin

89
Q

The half-life of platelets in the blood
A. 4-8 days
B. 8-12 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 12-16 days

A

B. 8-12 days

90
Q

This term refers to the reduction in the absolute neutrophil count sometimes seen in a complete blood count
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Neutrophilia
C. Neutropenia
D. Necrophilia

A

C. Neutropenia

91
Q

This condition is relatively common cause for an increase in the number of eosinophils or eosinophilia.
A. Radiation poisoning
B. Chicken pox
C. Pertussis
D. Bronchial asthma

A

D. Bronchial asthma

92
Q

This condition is usually seen in cases of organ transplant or graft rejection
A. Basophilia
B. Monocytosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Lymphocytosis

A

D. Lymphocytosis

93
Q

The average human blood volume is:
A. 3 liters
B. 4 liters
C. 5 liters
D. 7 liters

A

C. 5 liters

94
Q

Which of the contents of the erythrocyte catalyzes the reaction between carbon dioxide and water?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Carbonic anhydrase
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide

A

B. Carbonic anhydrase

95
Q

In order for the erythrocyte to be effective in hemoglobin delivery, its membrane must be
A. able to change in shape
B. firm and strong
C. Thick and rounded
D. Round and coarse

A

A. able to change in shape

96
Q

Patients with platelet count of 50,000 will most probably present with
A. No abnormal bleeding even with major surgery
B. Bleeding when brushing teeth
C. Bleeding after a crushing injury from a motor vehicular accident
D. Have spontaneous bleeding

A

C. Bleeding after a crushing injury from a motor vehicular accident

97
Q

Which of the following components of the coagulation system will facilitate clot retraction
A. Factor X
B. Factor XI
C. Factor XII
D. Factor XIII

A

D. Factor XIII

98
Q

Which of the following will be considered an activator of plasminogen?
A. Thrombin
B. Tissue phospholipids
C. Heparin
D. Vitamin K

A

A. Thrombin

99
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of platelet aggregation?
A. Initiated at the site of an injury by conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
B. Inhibited in uninjured blood vessels by prostacyclin of intact vascular endothelium
C. Causes release of potent vasodilators
D. Inhibited by thromboxane A2

A

B. Inhibited in uninjured blood vessels by prostacyclin of intact vascular endothelium

100
Q

Which of the following substances is useful as a hemostatic agent?
A. Streptokinase
B. Coumarin
C. Epinephrine
D. Vitamin K

A

C. Epinephrine