Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum height for the autopilot on takeoff?

A

100ft AGL and at least 5 secs after takeoff

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2
Q

What is the minimum height for the autopilot when using:
Final APP, V/S, FPA?
ILS CAT I?
Circling approach?

A

Final APP, V/S, FPA: 250ft AGL
ILS CAT I: 160ft AGL
Circling approach: 500ft AGL

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3
Q

In the FMGC, what is meant by recommended max?

A

Recommended maximum altitude computed based on gross weight and temperature assuming anti ice is OFF.
Use perf application EFB if icing conditions expected.
Limit FL398

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4
Q

Gross error check for calculating green dot?

A

1.5 X weight (metric tons) +110

Eg weight is 62 tons = 62x1.5+110=203kts

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5
Q

On some types there can be a discrepancy between vapp on the PFD and that on the FMGC, why?

A

Ref speed on PFD calculated by the FACs and FMGC by weight and CG position.

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6
Q

When is the autoland light armed?

A

200ft AGL

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7
Q

Briefly explain the function of groundspeed mini?

A

Autothrust function that uses the energy or inertia of the aircraft to compute a safe approach speed during varying wind conditions. The calculation uses tower wind and actual winds aloft to vary the target speed to maintain a safe energy during the approach.

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8
Q

If you lose an FMGC, how might this effect what you see on PFDs 5th column, and how might this effect the ND?

A

AP/FD now in single mode operation (2FD2). NDs will need to be selected to the same range to restore MAP functions. Loss of an autothrust channel? Try engage the other.

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9
Q

What methods does the aircraft have to calculate its own position?

A

Each FMGC calculates its own position (FM position) from a MIX IRS position and a computed radio position, or GPS position.

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10
Q

What is the aircraft’s FM position comprised of? What is EPE?

A

MIX IRS/GPS position
EPE= estimated position error seen on the progress page predictive GPS

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11
Q

What is meant by GPS primary?

A

RAIM capability with indicated NAV accuracy

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12
Q

With a loss of both FMGCs, how do you recover radio nav?

A

NAV BACKUP (covered switch on RMP) not to be confused with BACKUP NAV which takes a freeze frame of the previous flight plan in the MCDU

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13
Q

Prior to entering a hold, what will happen when you press the immediate exit button?

A

Aircraft will not enter the holding pattern, but will resume it’s applicable managed speed for the flight phase.

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14
Q

Once in the hold, what will happen when you press immediate exit?

A

If heading towards the hold fix, aircraft will exit at next fix overfly.
If on the outbound leg, aircraft will make immediate turn towards the fix where the hold will be exited.

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15
Q

For alternate planning, what assumptions are made for flight level and speed by the FMGC in terms of fuel burn for the alternate?

A

CI 0
FL100 <100NM
FL220 between 100nm-200nn

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16
Q

Explain SRS

A

Speed reference system, controls speed via the elevator, adjusts to maintain a speed.
On takeoff target V2+10

17
Q

Are there any protections with SRS?

A

Flight path angle minimum VS 120ft/min.
Pitch angle protection= reduce A/C nose up
Speed limiting= limiting target speed to V2+15kt

18
Q

What would happen when selecting a revised altitude when aircraft is in ALT*?

A

ALT* reverts to VS/FPA when the flight crew changes the FCU altitude by more than 250ft

19
Q

What is the two engine operating range of the autothrust?

A

IDLE to CLB

20
Q

What is the single engine operating range of the autothrust?

A

IDLE to MCT

21
Q

With autothrust failure, what FMA do you expect to see?

A

THRUST LOCK would appear on the FMA and ECAM chime every 5 seconds

22
Q

If you took off in FLEX, how do you achieve MCT in an engine failure after takeoff?

A

Move thrust levers back to CLB then forward again to MCT

23
Q

What is the guidance for selecting reverse with one reverser inop?

A

SELECT BOTH

24
Q

If you move the thrust levers below the CLB detent, what FMA would you expect to see?

A

LVR CLB would flash continuously in the FMA 1st column

25
Q

What is the maximum speed you can set on the FCU?

A

399kt
M0.99

26
Q

What is the minimum speed you can set on the FCU?

A

100kt
M0.10

27
Q

What is the backup speed scale, when might you need to use it, and where is it’s data derived?

A

Alternative method of getting speed/ALT information during unreliable airspeed event.

Data derived from Angle of Attack and GPS altitude

28
Q

Explain the bird and where it gets its data from?

A

Displays track and flight path angle.

Computed from IRS and static pressure.

29
Q

Explain “data lock”

A

When aircraft reaches 700ft AGL with APPR mode armed of engaged, the ILS FREQ and course are frozen in the receiver.

30
Q

What is LAND mode?

A

Common vertical and lateral mode, tracks LOC and G/S beams from 400ft AGL to approx 40ft AGL

31
Q

What would cause the AUTOLAND light to illuminate?

A

BALDGRAF

B-
A- both autopilots
L- localiser 15’<
D- deviation LOC and Glide
G- glideslope 100’<
R
A- radio altimeter discrepancy
F- flare, fmgs detects long or untimely flare

32
Q

What is the definition of the alert height?

A

Height above the runway based on the characteristics of an aircraft and it’s fail operational automatic landing system. Above which a CATIII approach would be discontinued and a G/A flown in the event of a failure of one of the redundant parts of the autoland system or relevant ground equipment.

33
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000ft AGL
An approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. If the approach is commenced and the reported RVR/VIS is below the applicable minima, and the aircraft is above the approach ban, then the approach must be discontinued.

If the approach is below the ban 1000ft and the RVR/VIS deteriotes below the applicable minima then the approach may be continued to MDA/DH

34
Q

Would the failure of an engine illuminate the AUTOLAND light?

A

No, see BALDGRAF

35
Q

What is the definition of FAIL OPERATIONAL and FAIL PASSIVE

A

Fail operational: in the event of a failure of one of the redundant systems, the approach, landing and rollout can be completed automatically

Fail passive: if there is a failure of a system, there will be no significant out of trim condition, but the landing is completed manually

36
Q

How much runway is left when you see alternating red and white lights?

A

600m

37
Q

How much runway is left when you see all red lights?

A

300m

38
Q

What is the difference between disconnecting autothrust from the FCU Vs the instinctive disconnect buttons?

A

Instinctive PB- standard
FCU PB- non standard

One of the preliminary conditions required for A/THR arming or activation is no longer applicable when disconnecting from FCU.