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BOC Prep > Athletic Performance Nutrition Exam 2 > Flashcards

Athletic Performance Nutrition Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the macronutrient sources that provide energy for ATP resynthesis during physical activity?

A
  1. Liver and muscle glycogen
  2. triacylglycerols within adipose tissue and active muscle
  3. skeletal muscle’s amino acids donate their carbon skeletons minus nitrogen
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2
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

Muscle

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3
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 200m?

A

25% Phosphocreatine
65% Anaerobic Glycogen
10% Aerobic Glycogen

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4
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 100m?

A

50% Phosphocreatine
50% Anaerobic Glycogen

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5
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 400m?

A

12.5% Phosphocreatine
65.5% Anaerobic Glycogen
25% Aerobic Glycogen

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6
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 800m?

A

6% Phosphocreatine
50% Anaerobic Glycogen
44% Aerobic Glycogen

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7
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 1500m?

A

25% Anaerobic Glycogen
75% Aerobic Glycogen

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8
Q

What supplies almost all the energy in the transition from rest to moderate physical activity and intense effort?

A

Glycogen

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9
Q

As PA progresses from low to high intensity does the liver markedly increase glucose release to active muscles?

A

Yes

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10
Q

When does stored muscle glycogen supply the predominant carb energy source during activity?

A

The first few minutes & as intensity increases

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11
Q

What remains the preferential fuel during intense aerobic effort because it rapidly supplies ATP during oxidative processes?

A

Carbohydrates

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12
Q

What is the remainder of the energy supplied by?

A

Lipid breakdown as intramuscular triacyglycerols contributes up to 20% of total energy expenditure including a small amount of protein

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13
Q

When do carbs become the sole contributor of ATP production?

A

During anaerobic effort requiring glycolytic reactions

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14
Q

What is carb availability influenced by?

A

It’s availability in the metabolic mixture and carb intake

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15
Q

When does blood glucose decrease to hypoglycemic levels (<45mg/dL blood)

A

During 90 minutes of strenuous effort

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16
Q

What are two purposes of increasing carb oxidation by ingesting rapidly absorbed, high-glycemic carbs before activity?

A
  1. Blunts long-chain fatty acid oxidation by skeletal muscle
  2. Blunts free fatty acid (FFA) liberation from adipose tissue during exertion
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17
Q

What induces fatigue despite sufficient oxygen availability to muscles and almost unlimited potential energy in stored lipids during prolonged, intense physical activity?

A

Dramatically lowered liver and muscle glycogen levels

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18
Q

With strenuous PA, neural -humoral factors increase what 3 hormones & decrease what 1 hormone?

A

Increase epinephrine, norepinephrine, & glucagon
Decrease insulin release

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19
Q

Aerobically trained muscle exhibits a greater capacity to oxidize carbs than untrained muscle - T/F

A

True

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20
Q

Why does carb depletion during prolonged exercise coincide with reduced exercise capacity?

A
  1. Blood glucose provides energy for the central nervous system
  2. Muscle glycogen’s role as a “primer” in lipid metabolism
  3. Slower rate of energy release from lipid catabolism than carb breakdown
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21
Q

What 7 possible factors account for slower rate of lipid vs carbohydrate oxidation?

A
  1. FFA mobilization from adipose tissue
  2. FFA transport to skeletal muscle via circulation
  3. FFA uptake by muscle
  4. FFA uptake by muscles from triacylglycerol in chylomicrons & lipoproteins
  5. Fatty acid mobilization from intramuscular triacylglycerol & cytoplasmic transport
  6. Fatty acid transport into mitochondria
  7. Fatty acid oxidation within mitochondria
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22
Q

What are the gender differences that occur in carb metabolism?

A

Women derive a smaller proportion of total energy from carb oxidation than men during exercise

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23
Q

What identical pathways do carbs & lipid breakdown use?

A

Acetyl-coenzyme A (COA) oxidation

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24
Q

Do men and women show decreased glucose influx for a given submaximal power output during similar endurance training protocols - T/F

A

True

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25
Q

Do men or women display an exaggerated shift toward lipid catabolism while following a similar workload?

A

Women

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26
Q

What does the shift towards lipid catabolism in women suggest?

A

Endurance training induces greater glycogen sparing at a given sub maximal intensity for women than for men

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27
Q

What does a carb-deficient diet do and affect?

A

Rapidly depletes muscle and liver glycogen which affects performance in all-out, short-term anaerobic and intense aerobic activities

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28
Q

What do the 5 potential sites for endocrine substrate regulation include?

A
  1. Availability via effects on nutrient storage
  2. Mobilization from body tissue stores
  3. Uptake at the tissue site of use
  4. Uptake within tissue itself
  5. Trafficking among storage, oxidation, & recycling
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29
Q

Are starvation, low-carb, high fats, high protein diets good for exercise?

A

No, it remains counterproductive for weight control, exercise performance, optimal nutrition, and hood health

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30
Q

Does diet composition profoundly affect glycogen reserves?

A

Yes

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31
Q

Do active muscles rely on ingested carbs as a readily available energy nutrient?

A

Yes

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32
Q

What does carb depletion do during exercise?

A

Exercise intensity decreases to a level governed by how efficiently tissues mobilize and oxidize lipid

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33
Q

Does injury likelihood increase when training & competing with low glycogen reserves?

A

Yes

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34
Q

Will this gender difference in substrate metabolisms response to training reflect differences in sympathetic nervous system adaptation to regular PA?

A

Yes

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35
Q

When does fatty acid oxidation occur?

A

Low-intensity activities. For example, lipid combustion almost totally powers light effort 25% of aerobic capacity

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36
Q

What 3 lipid sources supply the major energy for light to moderate PA?

A
  1. Fatty acids
  2. Plasma triacylglycerols bound to lipoproteins
  3. Triacylglycerol within active muscle
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37
Q

What % of the energy requirement does intracellular & extracellular lipid supply?

A

30-80% depending on nutritional & fitness status with exercise intensity & duration

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38
Q

Does lipid use for energy in light & moderate exertion vary closely with blood flow through adipose tissue (a 3-fold increase is not uncommon)?

A

Yes

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39
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 5000m?

A

12.5% Anaerobic Glycogen
87.5% Aerobic Glycogen

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40
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the 10000m?

A

3% Anaerobic Glycogen
97% Aerobic Glycogen

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41
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the marathon?

A

75% Aerobic Glycogen
5% Blood glucose (liver glycogen)
20% Triacylglycerol (fatty acids)

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42
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for the ultramarathon?

A

35% Aerobic Glycogen
5% Blood Glucose
60% Fatty Acids

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43
Q

What is the contribution % of different fuels to ATP for a 24- hour race?

A

10% Aerobic Glycogen
2% Blood Glucose
88% Fatty Acids

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44
Q

Is the any “one” diet that exists for optimal health and nutrition?

A

No

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45
Q

What does the protein RDA represent?

A

A liberal “margin of safety”

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46
Q

What protein is acting as an energy source?

A

Primarily to the branched-chain amino acids leucine, valine, and isoleucine oxidized in skeletal muscle rather than in liver

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47
Q

How does proper nutrition enhance physical activity?

A
  1. Improves overall physical performance
  2. Optimizes physical conditioning process
  3. Enhances recovery from fatigue
  4. Minimizes musculoskeletal injures
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48
Q

What does an optimal diet supply?

A

Adequate amounts for tissue maintenance, repair, and growth without excess energy intake

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49
Q

The laws of thermodynamics cannot be circumvented - T/F

A

True

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50
Q

Should you adhere to sound nutritional guidelines with careful planning & food take evaluation?

A

Yes

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51
Q

What does SAD stand for?

A

Standard American Diet

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52
Q

What does SAD rely heavily on?

A

Sugar, lipid, salt, and processed food

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53
Q

What is the energy balance equation?

A

replenishing the body’s macronutrient energy to modify body weight and body composition

  • the balance between energy input (proteins, fats, carbs) & energy output (PA, resting metabolism, TEF)
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54
Q

What do the Guidelines consistently recommend?

A

The basic principles of a healthful diet - variety, balance, and moderation

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55
Q

When does weight gain occur?

A

When a long-term positive energy imbalance results from subtle regulatory alterations between energy intake & energy expenditure

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56
Q

Ways Exercise Nutritionists Can Empower Physically Active Individuals and Competitive Athletes

A
  1. Educate athletes about the energy requirements for their sport and food’s role in feeling the body
  2. Assess an athletes’ body size and composition to determine an appropriate weigh
  3. Assess the athlete’s typical dietary and supplement intake during training, competition, and off-season
  4. Assess fluid intake and weight loss
  5. For veg athletes with special nutrition concerns, provide nutritional guidelines to ensure adequate intakes of energy, protein, and micronutrients
  6. Carefully evaluate any vitamin/mineral or herbal supplements, ergogenic aids, or performance-enhancing drugs
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57
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics? (Conservation of energy)

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only be transferred to other forms or systems

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58
Q

What are nutritional guidelines for the general population?

A
  • consume a varied diet
  • match energy intake to needs
  • limit foods high in saturated fats, trans fat, & cholesterol
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59
Q

Specific dietary guideline recommendations for general population

A
  1. Restrict total fat to < or =30% of total calories
  2. Restrict saturated fat to < or =10% of total calories
  3. Limit the total intake of cholesterol-raising fatty acids (saturated & trans) to < or =10% of calories
  4. Limit cholesterol intake to < or = 300 mg/d
  5. replace cholesterol-raising fatty acids with whole grains & unsaturated fatty acids from fish, veggies, legumes, & nuts
  6. Limit sodium intake to < or =2400mg/d
  7. If alcohol is consumed, limit intake to 2 drink/day for men, 1 drink/day for women
  8. Eat at least 2 servings of fish per week
  9. Eat 5+ servings of veggies and fruits per day
  10. Eat 6+ servings of grain products per day
  11. Emphasize daily intake of low-fat or non-fat dairy products
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60
Q

What is desirable blood pressure?

A

Systolic <140
Diastolic <90

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61
Q

What does the Healthy Eating Plate emphasize?

A
  1. The type of carb in the diet than the amount in the diet
  2. Avoid sugary beverage drinks
  3. Consumers to use healthy oils, but does not set a max on the percentage of calories people should consume
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62
Q

Figure 7.2, Table 7.2

A

Pg. 219, 224

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63
Q

Do fruits and veggies occupy half the plate?

A

Yes

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64
Q

What are the specifics of the alternative plan?

A
  1. Eat an abundant variety, but limit potatoes and other high-glycemic starches
  2. Choose fish, poultry, beans, or nuts
  3. Use olive, canola, and other plant oils in cooking
  4. Drink water, tea, or coffee (with little or no sugar) and limit milk and dairy (1-2 servings daily)
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65
Q

Does my plate include recommendations for daily caloric intake, portion size, lipid intake, and energy expenditure?

A

Yes

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66
Q

Look at Figure 7.6

A
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67
Q

What are the 7 suggested changes to my plate?

A
  1. Provide information that whole grains are better for health than refined grains
  2. Indicate that some high-protein foods-fish, poultry, beans, nuts-are healthier than red meats & processed meats that often link to various chronic diseases
  3. Be more insistent on including beneficial lipids as part of a healthy diet
  4. Differentiate btwn potatoes & other high glycemic veggies that act like sugars in the body
  5. Reduce dairy intake
  6. Emphasize the potential negative effect of sugary drinks
  7. Elevate the importance of daily PA to counter a sedentary lifestyle
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68
Q

What is possible with the Mediterranean diet in term of longevity?

A

It can slow the rate of cognitive decline for memory and thinking thus slowing down the aging process through antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects

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69
Q

What is adequate calcium intake?

A

1000 mg daily 50 and younger
1200 mg above age of 50

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70
Q

What are the 8 strategies the Mediterranean diet emphasizes?

A
  1. Substitute olive oil for other lipids & oils including butter and margarine
  2. Make the goal for total lipid less than 25 to over 35% of energy (cal), with saturated fat not to exceed 7-8%
  3. Include daily consumption of low to moderate amounts of cheese & yogurt
  4. Consume low to moderate amounts of fish & poultry twice weekly
  5. Emphasize fresh fruit as the typical daily dessert, & minimize high-sugar sweets & saturated fats
  6. Reduce red meat consumption to twice monthly (limit to 12-16oz or 340-450g)
  7. Increase regular PA at a level that promotes a healthy weight, fitness, & well-being
  8. Emphasize moderate wine consumption (1-2 for men, 1 for women daily)
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71
Q

Compare all the figure/ food pyramids

A

Pg 224-227

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72
Q

What is the Diet Quality Index (DQI)

A

Focus on nutritional elements of a diet considered most important relative to good health and disease prevention

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73
Q

What are the most significant findings in the Aerobics Center Longitudinal Study?

A
  1. Progressively lower BMI for men and women with increasing physical fitness levels
  2. Remarkably small differences in energy intake related to physical fitness classification of women and men, with moderate group consuming the feast calories for both sexes
  3. Progressively higher dietary fibre intake and lower cholesterol intake across fitness categories
  4. Men and women with higher fitness levels consumed diets that more closely approached dietary recommendations related to fiber, percentage of energy
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74
Q

Table 7.5 what do the scores mean?

A

Score of 4 or less reflects a more healthful diet & a score of 10+ pinpoints a less healthful diet requiring improvement

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75
Q

What does research indicate about for teenagers, adults, & competitive athletes who exercise regularly to keep fit?

A

They don’t require additional nutrients beyond those obtained by consuming nutritionally well-balanced meals

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76
Q

pg 231lists

A
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77
Q

Table 7.6 and healthy eating index pg. 230

A
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78
Q

What are the functions and examples of fat replacers?
pg 235

A
  1. Provides expected texture and a creamy “mouth-feel” in reduced-fat foods
  2. Baked goods, dressings, frozen desserts, confections
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79
Q

Pg 232 and 233 understand difference between men and women for different fitness level values

A
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80
Q

What is the preferred energy source for the anaerobic energy system that it relies on primarily in resistance training?

A

Carbs

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81
Q

What do food additives do for foods & how many are in the FDA database?

A

2 types (direct & indirect food additives)
17 additives in FDA database
1. Maintain or improve safety & freshness
2. Improve or maintain nutritional value
3. Improve taste, texture, & appearance

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82
Q

Are there a firm standards for optimal lipid intake? - T/F

A

False

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83
Q

What does eating a high-carb diet with adequate energy intake do for individuals who train intensely?

A

It conserves muscle protein in these individuals

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84
Q

What is the lipid intake for good health

A

Should not exceed 30-35% of diet’s total energy content, with 70% coming from unsaturated fatty acids

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85
Q

Does protein breakdown occur above the resting level during endurance & with resistance training to a degree greater than previously believed?

A

Yes

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86
Q

Does physical performance benefits occur by reducing lipid intake percentage below 30%

A

No, the opposite occurs - significant reductions in dietary lipid may compromise exercise performance

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87
Q

How much high-quality protein should those who untertake endurance training & resistance-training consume?

A

1.2-1.4g/kg body mass daily (endurance)
1.8g/kg body mass (resistance)

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88
Q

How much of an active individual’s daily diet should contain carbs?

A

55-60%, with it primary starches from unprocessed grains, fruits, and veggies

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89
Q

Does a low-fat diet also blunt the normal rise in plasma testosterone following a short-term resistance exercise bout?

A

Yes

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90
Q

Table for Nutrient value of whole-wheat vs refined flour

A

239

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91
Q

Does a low-carb diet rapidly compromise energy reserves for vigorous PA or regular training?

A

Yes

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92
Q

What carbs do athletes consume during a season (to consume 10g carbs/kg body weight daily)?

A
  1. Consume easily digested high-carb drinks or solid foods 1 to 4 hours before training or competition
  2. Consume an easily digested, high-carb, liquid or solid food contain at least 0.35 to 1.5 g carb . kg body weight per hr immediately after exercise for the first 4 hrs thereafter
  3. consume a 15 to 25% carb drink or a solid high-carb supplement with each meal
  4. Maintain a stable body weight during all training phases by matching energy consumption to training’s energy demands to maintain body carb reserves
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93
Q

What difficulties does consuming a low-fat diet during strenuous training create?

A

Increasing carb & protein intake enough to furnish energy to maintain body weight & muscle mass

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94
Q

What is the general recommendation for daily carb intake?

A

6-10 kg/body mass daily

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95
Q

What foods are Vitamins A found in?

A

Organs, meats; carrots; cantaloupe; sweet potatoes; pumpkin; apricots; spinach milk; collards; eggs

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96
Q

What is the minimum time it takes for muscle glycogen levels to replenish following long exhaustive PA?

A
  • 24 hour for long exhaustive PA (liver glycogen restores at a faster rate)
  • 1-2 days of rest or lighter effort combined with a high-carb intake reestablishes pre activity muscle glycogen levels following exhaustive workouts or competition
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97
Q

What fraction of Americans take vitamin supplements?

A

More than1/3

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98
Q

What foods are Vitamins C found in?

A

Guava, citrus fruits and juices, red-yellow-greens peppers, papaya, kiwi, broccoli, strawberries, tomatoes, sweet and white potatoes, kale, mango, cantaloupe

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99
Q

What foods are Vitamins D found in?

A

Salmon, tuna, sardines, mackerel, oysters, cold liver oil, egg yolks, fortified milk, fortified orange juice, fortified breakfast cereal

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100
Q

How much of dietary supplements and vitamin/mineral supplement purchases does this 1/3 account for?

A

1/6 of all dietary supplements
40% of vitamin/mineral supplements

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101
Q

What foods are Vitamins E found in?

A

Veggie oils, nuts, seeds, spinach, kiwi, wheat germ

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102
Q

What foods are Vitamins K found in?

A

Spinach, kale, collards, Swiss chard, broccoli, romaine lettuce

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103
Q

What were dietary supplement sales in 2014 & 2017?

A

Over $36.7 billion in 2014
Over $40 billion in 2017

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104
Q

What foods are Vitamins B1 found in?

A

Sunflowerseeds, enriched bread, cereal, pasta, whole grains, lean meats, fish, beans, green peas, corn, soybeans

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105
Q

Do supplements improve performance or increase bloods levels of micronutrients when vitamin intakes are achieved?

A

No, there is no effect on the physical responses to strenuous trining and do not protect against muscle damage from intense physical activity

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106
Q

What % of athletes regularly consumes multivitamin/mineral supplements?

A

More than 50% of athletes

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107
Q

What can intense & prolonged training produce?

A

Overtraining, staleness, & burnout

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108
Q

What are overtraining performance symptoms?

A
  1. Consistent performance decline
  2. persistance fatiguer and sluggishness
  3. excessive recovery required after competitive events
  4. inconsistent performance
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109
Q

What are overtraining physiologic symptoms?

A
  1. decrease in max work capacity
  2. frequent headaches or stomachaches
  3. insomnia
  4. persistent low-grade stiffness & muscle or joint soreness
  5. frequent constipation or diarrhea
  6. unexplained loss of appetite & body weight
  7. amenorrhea
  8. elevated rhr on waking
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110
Q

What is overtraining associated with?

A

Associated with sustaining poor exercise performance, frequent infections particularly of upper respiratory tract, general malais, & loss of interest in high-level training & injuries, chronic fatigue

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111
Q

What are psychologic overtraining symptoms?

A
  1. depression
  2. general apathy
  3. decreased self-esteem
  4. mood changes
  5. difficulty concentrating
  6. loss of competitive drive
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112
Q

Is there a danger in consuming a multivitamin capsule that contains recommend quantities of each vitamin?

A

No, the concern is those who take megavitamins doses believe that it will have a supercharging effect to improve overall health and general fitness

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113
Q

Which groups often are shown to have vitamin/mineral deficiencies that are apparent?

A
  1. Vegetarians or other groups with low energy intake
  2. Individuals who eliminate one or more food groups from their diet
  3. Those who consume large amounts of processed foods & simple sugars with low micronutrient density
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114
Q

Are there exercise benefits for intake of VItamin C and E above recommended values?

A

No

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115
Q

What happens when iron-deficient individuals megadose on Vitamin C?

A

It may destroy significant amounts of vitamin B12

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116
Q

Does consuming Vitamin C above recommended daily values (75 for women & 90 for men) protect against upper respiratory tract infections?

A

No

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117
Q

Does moderate PA heighten immune functions?

A

Yes

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118
Q

Pg 247

A
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119
Q

Does prolonged periods of intense marathon running or very intense training session suppress & stress the body’s first line of defense against infectious agents?

A

Yes

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120
Q

What are the 4 proposed mechanisms for selenium’s protection?

A
  1. Functions as an essential component of antioxidant enzymes
  2. Alters carcinogen metabolism and inhibits tumor growth
  3. Affects endocrine and immune systems
  4. Acts through molecular mechanisms to regulate apoptosis, cellular programmed death or regulated cell suicide of damaged precancerous cells
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121
Q

Italicized on pg 246

A
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122
Q

What questions arise concerning free radical production & PA?

A
  1. Are physically active individuals more prone to from radical damage?
  2. Are nutritional agents with antioxidant properties required in increased quantities by the physically active person?
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123
Q

What is the recommend dose of selenium for men and women?

A

Men: 70 micrograms
Women: 55 micrograms

124
Q

Does the body’s natural defenses respond adequately to increased PA stress?

A

Yes

125
Q

What does overdose of selenium cause?

A

hair and fingernail loss and gastrointestinal dysfunction

126
Q

If supplementation proves beneficial, what may be the most important antioxidant related to PA?

A

Vitamin E

127
Q

pg 249

A
128
Q

3 paragraphs on pg 248- selenium and antioxidants

A
129
Q

What does a combination of supplementation of vitamins C and E

A

pg 251

130
Q

Is replacement of water lost through sweating crucial and an immediate need? - T/F

A

True

131
Q

What are two acute effects of natural immune functions?

A
  1. Moderate PA boosts natural immune function & host defenses for up to several hours
  2. Exhaustive PA (or other forms of extreme stress) impairs body’s first line of infection defenses
132
Q

What 4 trace minerals will strenuous physical activity increase excretion of?

A
  1. Chromium
  2. Copper
  3. Manganese
  4. Zinc
133
Q

Does loss of water & accompanying mineral salts, primarily sodium chloride & some potassium chloride in sweat, pose an important challenge during prolonged PA in hot weather?

A

Yes

134
Q

What may compromise a person’s full potential to train efficiently and compete?

A

The possibility of a negative energy balance in the transition from moderate to intense training

135
Q

Do short- & long-term mineral supplementation above recommended levels benefit exercise performance or enhance training responsiveness?

A

No

136
Q

Do trace mineral losses with PA mean that physically active individuals should supplement with these micronutrients?

A

No

137
Q

Do sedentary persons often not maintain a fine energy balance, thereby allowing energy intake to exceed daily energy expenditure? - T/F

A

True

138
Q

Do trace mineral losses occur without impairing exercise performance, training responsiveness, & overall health for most physically active people?

A

Yes

139
Q

Iron, zinc, & copper interact & compete for the same carrier during intestinal absorption. Does disruption of the normal intake/output equation mean that excessive intake of one mineral often causes deficiency in another?

A

Yes

140
Q

PA and food intake beginning of paragraph on pg 254

A
141
Q

pg 255

A
142
Q

Look at figur 7.13 on pg 255

A
143
Q

What was the daily energy intake for men and women competitors in the Netherland?

A

2900-5900 kcal for men
1600-3200 kcal for women

144
Q

How quickly did the Greek ultramarathon champion Gianni’s Kouros complete the race?

A

5 days, 5 hours, and 7 mins, finishing 24 hrs and 40 mins ahead of the next competitor

145
Q

What did the energy intake for elite Netherlands athletes not surpass for both men and women?

A

4000 kcal for men
3000 kcal for women

146
Q

What were the macronutrient results for the men & women in the Netherlands?

A

Men- 15% protein, 35% lipid, 50% carbs
Women- 14% protein, 32% lipid, 54% carbs

147
Q

Pg 256 elite marathoners & professional cyclists?

A
148
Q

Daily variation paragraph on pg 256

A
149
Q

pg 257 the greek dude

A
150
Q
A
151
Q

What are high risk sports that promote marginal nutrition?

A

Gymnasts
Ballet dancers
Ice dancers
Weight-class athletes in
- boxing
- wrestling
- judo

152
Q

Do high risk sports often intentionally have energy intake fall short of energy expenditure, which forces a state of malnutrition?

A

Yes

153
Q

Do high-risk athletes train & perform year round in a carb depleted state?

A

Yes

154
Q

What should the precompetition meal provide?

A

Adequate carb energy & ensure optimal hydration

155
Q

If training or competing in the afternoon, is the morning meal important for optimizing glycogen reserves?

A

Yes

156
Q

For late-afternoon training & competition what do afternoon meals become important for?

A

Important sources of “topping off” glycogen stores

157
Q

What 3 key factors individualize the precompetition meal?

A
  1. Food preferences
  2. Psychological set
  3. Food digestibility
158
Q

Does considerable depletion occur in carb reserves over 8-12 hour periods, even if the person follows appropriate dietary recommendations?

A

Yes

159
Q

Should you eliminate high-lipid & protein food on competition day?

A

Yes

160
Q

Why should high-lipid & protein foods be eliminated on competition day?

A

They digest slowly & remain in the digestive tract longer than carbs of similar energy content

161
Q

How long does a carb rich precompetition meal require to digest, absorb, & replenish muscle & liver glycogen?

A

1-4 hours

162
Q

6 reasons why individuals should favor a high-carb precompetition meal instead of high-protein.

A
  1. Dietary carbs replenish liver & muscle glycogen depletion that occurs during sleep, an essentially fasting state
  2. Carbs digest & absorb more rapidly than proteins or lipids, & provide energy faster & reduce the feelings of fullness following a meal
  3. High-protein meals elevate resting metabolism considerably more than high-carb meals because digestion, absorption, & protein assimilation require more energy
  4. Additional metabolic heat produced by ingesting high-protein meals places increased demand on the body’s heat-dissipating mechanisms
  5. Protein catabolism for energy facilitates dehydration during PA because the by-products of amino acid breakdown require water for urinary excretion. About 50ml of water “accompany” each gram of urea excreted in urine
  6. Carbs provide primary energy nutrients or “fuel” for both short-duration anaerobic activity & prolonged, intense mainly aerobic or endurance physical activities
163
Q

Why is timing of precompetition meals important?

A

Increased stress & tension that comes with competition decreases digestive tract blood flow, depressing intestinal absorption

164
Q

What should the preferred precompetition meal maximize & provide during PA?

A

It should maximize muscle & liver glycogen storage & provide glucose for intestinal absorption

165
Q

What are 3 precompetition meal guidelines?

A
  1. Contain 150-300g of carbs (3-5 g/kg body mass index either solid or liquid form)
  2. Be consumed 3-4 hours before undertaking PA
  3. Contain relatively little lipid & fiber to facilitate gastric emptying & minimize GI distress
166
Q

Is the precompetition feeding only important if a person maintains a nutritionally sound meal plan throughout training?

A

Yes

167
Q

What do liquid meals provide?

A

High-carb content along with enough lipid & protein to contribute to feelings of fullness called satiety

168
Q

Does a liquid meal digest rapidly and leave essentially no residue in the intestinal tract?

A

Yes

169
Q

Do liquid meals offer a practical approach to supplementing caloric intake during high-energy output training phases?

A

Yes

170
Q

What are nutrition bars which contain high protein content also called?

A

Energy bars
Protein bars
Diet bars

171
Q

How much protein is normally in a nutrition bar?

A

10-30g of protein/bar

172
Q

Why should nutrition bars not substitute for normal food?

A

They lack a broad array of plant fibers & photochemical & typically contain a relatively high saturated fatty acid level

173
Q

Do nutrition bars provide a convenient way to consume important nutrients?

A

Yes

174
Q

What is the only federal or state agency that can validate labeling claims for bar nutrient content & comp, or police sale of bars that may contain harmful or banned substances?

A

FDA

175
Q

What is a high protein content in powders and drinks?

A

10-50 g/serving which is a big array of numbers

176
Q

Does the nutrients composition vary considerably for liquid meals?

A

Yes

177
Q

What is the average recommended serving of a powder?

A

45 g (1.5 oz)

178
Q

Are the FDA and other federal/state agencies required to make independent assessments of the validity of labeling claims for ingredients, macronutrient contents, & composition for powders and drinks?

A

No

179
Q

Is the US the world’s largest consumer of energy beverages by volume?

A

Yes

180
Q

Red Bull is the number one seller. How much is sold each year since 2014?

A

50 billion cans sold each year

181
Q

Does Energy beverage consumption correlate positively with high-risk behaviors (illicit drug use, sexual risk taking, fighting, failure to use seatbelts, taking risks on a dare, smoking, excessive alcohol abuse)?

A

Yes

182
Q

Recommendations for nonathlete consumers of EB:

A
  1. Limit consumption of EB’s to no more than 500ml or 1 can daily
  2. Don’t mix EBs with alcohol because it can mask intoxication & precipitate undesirable dehydration effects
  3. Rehydrate with water or an appropriately formulated SD folllowing PA or intense PA
  4. Inform your healthcare professional or organization if you experience an adverse reaction to EB
  5. Avoid taking EBs along with hypertension medication
  6. Consult a physician before using EBs if you have a serious underlying medical conditions (coronary artery disease, heart failure, arrhythmia)
183
Q

Recommendations for Athletes with < 1 hour of PA and EB consumption

A
  1. Don’t use EBs
  2. Don’t consume EBs during exercising because of potential dehydration, elevated BP, & lack of equivocal benefits vs waters of SDs
184
Q

Recommendations for Athletes with > 1 hour of PA and EB consumption

A
  1. Don’t use EBs
  2. SDs containing carbs & electrolytes help to prevent dehydration & restore minerals lost through sweating & produce better hydration than water
185
Q

3 ways that consuming high-glycemic, rapidly absorbed carbs within 1 hour before exercise negatively impacts endurance performance:

A
  1. Induces an insulin overshoot from the rapid blood sugar rise. Insulin excess causes a relative hypoglycemia called rebound hypoglycemia, which impairs CNS fxn to produce fatiguing effects
  2. Facilitates glucose influx into muscle through a large insulin release to increase carb use for energy in PA. Greater carb breakdown & blunted lipid mobilization contributes to premature glycogen depletion & early exercise fatigue
  3. High insulin inhibits lipolysis, reducing FFA mobilization from adipose tissue
186
Q

What is accentuated hyperinsulinemia?

A

A dramatic rise in blood glucose within 5-10 minutes after ingestion produced an overshoot in insulin release from the pancreas

187
Q

What is one way to eliminate potential negative effects & re-establish hormonal balance from added sugars before exercise?

A

Ingesting added sugars at least 60 minutes before activity begins

188
Q

Does fructose which is the sweetest of all naturally occurring carbs (1/3x more than sucrose) absorb more slowly from the gut than glucose or sucrose?

A

Yes

189
Q

How can consuming a high-fructose beverage negatively effect subsequent exercise?

A

It can produce vomiting & diarrhea

190
Q

Pg 269 all but first high light

A
191
Q

What are the 4 salient findings?

A
  1. Effects of carb supplements ranged from 2-6% improvements
  2. Most effective strategy was a 3-10% carb plus protein drink
  3. Increases in supplement benefit were small with additional 9hr fast & 0.2g/kg/h of protein. A small to moderate effect might occur by ingesting the first bolus not when PA begins, but 1-4hrs before PA, with further increases to perhaps 3 boluses and hour
  4. Effects of PA duration depend on the supplements carb plus the concentration of protein content
192
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

A numerical indicator of how carb-containing food affects glucose appearance in systemic circulation.

193
Q

What is glycemic response?

A

A rapid rise in blood sugar

194
Q

Does a high GI rating indicate poor nutritional quality?

A

No

195
Q

How is glycemic response determined?

A

After ingesting 50g of digestible carb compared over a 2 hour period

196
Q

What is the most rapid strategy to replenish glycogen following longer duration PA?

A

Consume foods with medium to high GIs rather than foods rated low, even if the replenishment meal contains a small amount of lipid & protein

197
Q

Pg 276 coca cola

A
198
Q

Does gorging or nibbling produce a difference in final muscle glycogen level?

A

No

199
Q

What are the 2 consuming patterns that have been compared to 24-hour carb replenishment?

A
  1. “Gorging” on a single large meal, with its greater incremental glucose & insulin response
  2. “Nibbling” on frequent smaller snacks, which produces a more stable glucose & insulin response
200
Q

With optimal carb intake, what percent does glycogen stores replenish hourly?

A

5-7% hourly

201
Q

How long does it take to re-establish glycogen stores following a glycogen-depleting exercise bout?

A

At least 20 hours

202
Q

Optimal glycogen replenishment benefits people involved in what 3 types of PA?

A
  1. Regular intense training
  2. Tournament competition with qualifying rounds
  3. Competitive events scheduled with only 1 or 2 recuperation days
203
Q

Can the glycemic index help formulate the composition of immediate pre-physical activity feedings?

A

Yes

204
Q

What 3 factors negatively affect endurance performance?

A
  1. Rebound hypoglycemia
  2. Depressed lipid catabolism
  3. Premature depletion of glycogen reserves
205
Q

What is insulinemic response?

A

Excessive insulin release

206
Q

What does a glycemic response often trigger?

A

Excessive insulin release

207
Q

Fluid ingestion before & during PA minimizes detrimental dehydration effects on what 3 factors?

A
  1. Cardiovascular dynamics
  2. Temperature regulation
  3. Exercise performance
208
Q

Does adding carbs to an oral rehydration drink provide additional glucose energy during prolonged endurance activity when the body’s glycogen reserves slowly deplete?

A

Yes

209
Q

Does ingesting up to 8% glucose-sodium oral rehydration beverage cause little negative effect on gastric emptying?

A

Yes

210
Q

Will maintaining a relatively large stomach fluid volume speed gastric emptying to compensate for any inhibitory effects of the beverage’s carb content?

A

Yes

211
Q

Does stomach emptying rate greatly affects the small intestine’s fluid & nutrients absorption?

A

Yes

212
Q

How does PA up to an intensity of about 75% of max VO2max affect gastric emptying?

A

Minimally if it does impact gastric emptying

213
Q

How does intensity exceeding 75% of max VO2max affect gastric emptying?

A

It slows gastric emptying rate

214
Q

How much fluid should be consumed 20 minutes before PA to optimize the beneficial effect of increased stomach volume on fluid & nutrient passage in the small intestines?

A

400-600 ml of fluid

215
Q

What does regularly ingesting 150-250ml(5-8oz) of fluid at 15-min intervals during activity do?

A

It continually replenishes fluid passed into the intestine to maintain a large & constant gastric volume

216
Q

Does fluid temperature have a major influence during PA?

A

No

217
Q

What effect do beverages with alcohol or caffeine induce on PA?

A

A diuretic effect (alcohol is most pronounced) which facilitates water loss

218
Q

Will a 5-8% carb-electrolyte beverage consumed while exercising in the heat help regulate temperature & fluid balance as effectively as regular water?

A

Yes

219
Q

How much does following the fluid intake 20 min before and every 15 min during activity bring to small intestine?

A

About 1L/hr to the small intestine

220
Q

What is optimal carb replenishment ranges?

A

30-60g (1-2 oz) an hour

221
Q

Do environment & activity conditions interact to influence the rehydration solution’s optimal composition?

A

Yes

222
Q

When does fluid replenishment become significant to health & safety?

A

Intense, aerobic effort in hot, humid weather that’s 30-60 minutes

223
Q

In a hot, humid environment what should the percent of carbs be in a carb-electrolyte beverage?

A

<5%

224
Q

In a cooler weather what should the percent of carbs be in a carb-electrolyte beverage?

A

15%

225
Q

Does this 5-8 carb-electrolyte also maintain glucose metabolism & preserve glycogen during prolonged PA?

A

Yes

226
Q

How much water does the stomach empty each hour?

A

Up to 1700ml even when drinking an 8% carb solution

227
Q

What is the optimal fluid volume for offsetting dehydration?

A

1000ml (1qt) of fluid consumed per hour

228
Q

How much of the US population consume inordinately large quantities of caloric alloy dense food that often exceed daily energy requirements?

A

1/4 of the US population

229
Q

Is food traditional wherever you go?

A

Yes

230
Q

Do food and emotions become
entangled and have good and bad times?

A

Yes

231
Q

Do you have positive & negative associations with food?

A

Yes

232
Q

Are some people afraid of certain foods or trying new foods?

A

Yes

233
Q

How is a meal served? Where does that come from?

A

Different ethnicities

234
Q

Do people eat out of pleasure?

A

Yes

235
Q

What are the 5 basic taste categories?

A
  1. Sweetness
  2. Bitterness
  3. Sourness
  4. Saltiness
  5. Umami
236
Q

Does cost pay a role in determining food choices?

A

Yes

237
Q

Is choosing foods on nutritional value a consciously learned behavior?

A

Yes, choosing foods based on nutritional is a consciously learned behavior, unlike other reasons for choosing foods.

238
Q

Is determining a food’s nutrient density useful information to athletes and others who train on a regular basis?

A

Yes

239
Q

What is INQ stand for?

A

Index of Nutritional Quality, this makes computing food quality practical

240
Q

In essence, no perfect food exists; some foods are just more nutritious for a particular nutrient per amount of food consumed. T/F

A

True

241
Q

What is appetite?

A

The desire to eat that’s affected by external & psychological factors

242
Q

What eight product categories does the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulate?

A
  1. Food
  2. Drugs (e.g., prescription, over-the-counter generics)
  3. Medical devices (e.g., pacemakers, contact lenses, glucose meters, hearing aids)
  4. Biological (e.g., vaccines)
  5. Animal feed and drugs
  6. Cosmetics
  7. Radiation-emitting products (e.g., cellphones, lasers, microwaves)
  8. Combination products
243
Q

What is hunger?

A

It is an internal drive to eat largely based on central & peripheral modulations, increases in hormone glucagon, ghrelin (hormone that stimulates appetite), and thigh “shapers”

244
Q

What does the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994 (DHESSA) require?

A

Requires that the dietary supplement manufacturer assume responsibility to ensure that a supplement meets all safety requirements before marketing it

245
Q

Can the FDA take legal action against any unsafe dietary supplement product before or after it reaches the market?

A

After it reaches the market, not before

246
Q

What are the FDAs post marketing responsibilities?

A

Monitoring safety, such as voluntary dietary supplement adverse event reporting and info

247
Q

Does advertising purposely attempt to create, shape, & alter perceptions about what we eat & how we exercise?

A

Yes

248
Q

What does the FTC do?

A

Regulates food advertising in TV, radio, and newsprint to pursue legal action against manufacturers who advertise unsubstantiated claims or deceptive ads

249
Q

What is the Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition?

A

One of the 6 major FDA agencies

250
Q

What is the FDA part of?

A

One of 13 agencies within the department of health and human services (DHHS)

251
Q

What is the FDAs function?

A

It oversees all domestic & imported food sold in interstate commerce, including shell eggs, but not meat & poultry

252
Q

What is the CDC and prevention function?

A

It oversees all foods; investigates with local, state, & other federal officials sources of food-borne disease outbreaks; develops & advocates public health policies to prevent food-borne diseases; conducts research to help prevent food-borne illness

253
Q

What two agencies are under the IS department of health and human services?

A

FDA
CDC

254
Q

What does the law define a “dietary supplement”?

A

Typically sold as tablets, capsules, soft gels, liquids, powders, and bars, as taken by mouth that contain a “dietary ingredients” intended to supplement the diet. “Dietary ingredients” may include vitamins, minerals, herbs, or botanicals, amino acids, enzymes, organ tissues, glandular material, and metabolites.

255
Q

What are the 4 agencies of the US department of agriculture?

A
  • food safety & inspection service
  • cooperative state research, education, & extension service
  • US environmental protection agency
  • national ag library USDA/FDA food borne illness education info center
256
Q

What is the function of the national oceanic & atmospheric administration (US department of commerce)?

A

It oversees fish & seafood products (through its fee-for-service seafood inspection program; inspects & certifies fishing vessels, seafood processing plants, & retail facilities for federal sanitation standards)

257
Q

What 5 agencies are under the US department of the treasury?

A
  • bureau of Alcohol, tobacco, & firearms
  • US customs service
  • US department of justice
  • Federal trade commission
  • state and local governments
258
Q

What is the function of the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, & firearms?

A

It oversees alcoholic beverages except wine beverages containing less than 7% alcohol (enforces food safety laws governing production & distribution of alcoholic beverages; investigates cases of adulterated alcoholic products, sometimes with help from FDA)

259
Q

What is the function of the US customs service?

A

It oversees imported foods (works with federal regulatory agencies to ensure that all goods entering & exiting the US do so according to US laws & regulations)

260
Q

What are functions of the US department of justice?

A

It oversees all foods (prosecutes companies & individuals suspected of violating food safety laws; through US marshals service, seizes unsafe food products not yet in the marketplace, as ordered by courts)

261
Q

What are functions of the federal trade commission?

A

It oversees all foods (enforces a variety of laws that protect consumers from unfair, deceptive, or fraudulent practices, including deceptive & unsubstantiated advertising)

262
Q

What are functions of state & local governments?

A

Oversees all foods within their jurisdictions (work with FDA & other federal agencies to implement food safety standards for fish, seafood, milk, & other foods produced within state borders; inspect restaurants, grocery stores, & other retail food establishments, as well as dairy farms & milk processing plants, grain mills, & food manufacturing plants within local jurisdictions; embargo unsafe food products made or distributed within state borders)

263
Q

What are functions of the food safety & inspection service?

A

Oversees domestic & imported meat & poultry & related products, such as meat- or poultry-containing stews, pizzas, & frozen foods, processed egg products (generally liquid, frozen, & dried pasteurized egg products)

264
Q

What are functions of the cooperative state research, education, & extension service?

A

Oversees all domestic foods, some imported (with US colleges & universities, develops research & education programs on food safety for farmers & consumers)

265
Q

What are functions of the national ag library USDA/FDA food borne illness education info center?

A

Oversees all foods (maintains a database of computer software, audiovisuals, posters, games, teachers guides, & other educational materials on preventing food-borne illness)

266
Q

What are functions of the US environmental protection agency?

A

Oversees drinking water (regulates toxic substances & wastes to prevent their entry into the environment & food chain, assists states in monitoring quality of drinking water & finding ways to prevent contamination of drinking water, determines safety of new pesticides, sets tolerance levels for pesticide residues in foods, & publishes directions on safe use of pesticides)

267
Q

What is high potency?

A

A nutrient in a food product, including dietary supplements, at 100% or more of the RDI established for that vitamin or mineral. High potency can be used with multi-ingredient products if 2/3s of the product’s nutrients occur at levels exceeding 100% of the RDI

268
Q

What is an antioxidant?

A

Currently defined claims for “good source” & “high” to describe a nutrient for which scientific evidence shows that following sufficient absorption, the nutrient (vitamin C) inactivates free radicals or prevents free radical-initiated chemical rxns

269
Q

What is the ATF?

A

The ATF regulates qualifications and operations of distilleries, breweries, wineries, and importers and whole-sales of alcohol-related products

270
Q

What does the Daily Value (DV) do?

A

Designate both the DRVs and RDIs

271
Q

What 2 sets of reference values report nutrients in nutrition labeling?

A
  1. Daily reference values (DRVs)
  2. Reference daily intakes (RDIs)
272
Q

What does the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) represent?

A

A system of recommendations from the Institute of Medicine of the U.S. National Academy of Sciences

273
Q

What 8 nutrients have established DVRs?

A
  1. Total fat
  2. Saturated fat
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Total carbs
  5. Dietary fiber
  6. Sodium
  7. Potassium
  8. Protein
274
Q

Appendix B

A
275
Q

What does the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) investigate?

A

Created during World War II to investigate issues of nutrition that might impact national defenses

276
Q

Table 9.3 on pg 306

A
277
Q

Table 9.2 and Table 9.3

A
278
Q

What is fat-free?

A

Less than 0.5g of fat per serving, with no added fat or oil

279
Q

What is low fat?

A

3g or less of fat per serving

280
Q

What is less fat?

A

25% or less per day than the comparison food

281
Q

What is saturated fat free?

A

Less than 0.5g of saturated fat & 0.5g of trans fatty acids per serving

282
Q

What is cholesterol free?

A

Less than 2mg of cholesterol per serving, & 2g or less of saturated fat per serving

283
Q

What is low cholesterol?

A

20mg or less of cholesterol per serving & 2g or less of saturated fat per serving

284
Q

What is reduced calorie?

A

At least 25% fewer calories per serving than the comparison food

285
Q

What is low calorie?

A

40 calories or less per serving

286
Q

What is extra lean?

A

Less than 5g of fat, 2g of saturated fat, and 95mg of cholesterol per (100g) serving of meat, poultry, or seafood

287
Q

What is the definition of “fresh”, as dictated by the FDA?

A

The regulation defines “fresh” to suggest that a food is raw or unprocessed. In this context, “fresh” can describe a raw food, a food never frozen or heated, and contains no preservatives.

288
Q

What is lean?

A

Less than 10g of fat, 4.5g of saturated fat, and 95mg of cholesterol per (100g) serving of meat, poultry, or seafood

289
Q

What is light (fat)?

A

50% or less of the fat than in the comparison food (50% less than company’s regular cheese)

290
Q

What is light (calories)?

A

1/3 fewer calories than the comparison food

291
Q

What is high-fiber?

A

5g or more fiber per serving

292
Q

What is sugar-free?

A

Less than 0.5g of sugar per serving

293
Q

What is sodium-free or salt-free?

A

Less than 5 mg of sodium per serving

294
Q

What is low sodium?

A

35mg or less per serving
Or
140 mg or less per serving

295
Q

What is healthy?

A

A good diet low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, & sodium, & contains at least 10% of the daily values for vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or fiber

296
Q

What is “high,” “rich in,” or “excellent source”?

A

20% or more of the daily value for a given nutrient per serving

297
Q

What is “less,” “fewer,” or “reduced”?

A

At least 25% less of a given nutrient or calories than the comparison food

298
Q

What is “low,” “little,” “few,” or “low source of”?

A

An amount that would allow frequent consumption of the food without exceeding the Daily Value for the nutrient; can only make the claim as it applies to all similar foods

299
Q

What is “good source of,” “more,” or “added”?

A

The food provides 10% more of the Daily Value for a given nutrient than the comparison food

300
Q

What is considered “fresh frozen”?

A

Foods that are quickly flash-frozen while still fresh

301
Q

Does strenuous PA, neural-humoral factors increase hormonal output of epinephrine, norepinephrine, & glucagon & decrease insulin release which stimulates glycogen phosphorylase to facilitate glycogen breakdown?

A

Yes

302
Q

What do subcutaneous abdominal adipocytes represent?

A

A particularly active region for lipolysis compared with fat cells in the gluteal-femoral region

303
Q

T/F. Considerable fatty acid oxidation occurs during low-intensity activities. (eg. lipid combustion almost totally powers light effort at 25% of aerobic capacity)

A

True

304
Q

When is a low-fat intake contraindicated?

A

For regular periods of intense resistance workouts

305
Q

Oh 243 other vitamins

A

BOC Prep (16 decks)

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