Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOC Prep > Athletic Performance Nutrition Exam 1 > Flashcards

Athletic Performance Nutrition Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How many different atoms or chemical elements have been identified in nature?

A

118

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the makeup of the human organism?

A

3% nitrogen
10% hydrogen
18% carbon
65% oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is chemical bonding?

A

A common sharing of electrons between atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do atoms in a chain keep their specific form?

A

Chemical bonding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the four categories of carbohydrates?

A

Monosaccharides
Disaccharides
Oligosaccharides
Polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the main source of carbs in the human diet?

A

Plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What atoms are carbohydrates made of?

A

Carbon
H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What two nutrients don’t contain carbon?

A

Water
Minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Almost all substances in the body consist of what compounds?

A

Carbon-containing organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a monosaccharide?

A

It is the basic unit of carbohydrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many monosaccharides exist in nature?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Greek ending -ose represent?

A

Sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3, 6-carbon (hexose) sugars that make up the nutritionally important (examples of) monosaccharides?

A

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which sugar naturally occurs in food?

A

Glucose also called dextrose or blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What process do animals use to produce glucose?

A

Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

It is the creation of sugar from non-carbohydrates.
Ex: protein into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is glucose absorbed?

A

Small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 3 functions of glucose when it’s absorbed in the small intestines?

A
  1. Used directly by cells for energy
  2. Stored as glycogen in muscles & liver for future use
  3. Converted to lipid & stored for energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the liver, what is synthesized via gluconeogenesis to produce glucose?

A

Carbon skeletons of specific amino acids
Glycerol
Pyruvate
Lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which is the sweetest of the simple sugars?

A

Fructose also called levulose or fruit sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where does fructose occur in large amounts?

A

Fruits and Honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How much of the average energy intake in the US does honey account for?

A

9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Does galactose occur freely in nature?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does galactose form and where is this found?

A

It forms milk sugar or lactose & is found in the mammary glands of lactating animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a disaccharide?

A

Two monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What chemical process forms disaccharides?

A

Dehydration synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are mono- & disaccharides known as?

A

Simple sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the names of the simple sugars?

A

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 (examples of) disaccharides of nutritional significance?

A

Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is sucrose composed of?

A

Glucose and Fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common dietary disaccharide?

A

Sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What part of the total caloric intake in the US does sucrose constitute?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are foods that (examples of) sucrose naturally occurs in?

A

Beet sugar
Cane sugar
Brown sugar
Sorghum
Maple syrup
Honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Does honey give an advantage nutritionally or as an energy source?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is lactose composed of?

A

Glucose and Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the only place lactose is found in natural form?

A

Milk sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can lactose be artificially processed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which is the least sweet of the disaccharides?

A

Lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is lactose intolerant?

A

Lacking adequate quantities of the enzyme lactase (small intestine) that splits lactose during digestion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are foods that contain (examples of) lactose?

A

Ice cream
Creams
Cheese
Butter
Chocolate varieties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is maltose composed of?

A

2 Glucose molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What foods is (examples of) maltose in?

A

Beer
Cereals
Germinating seeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is another name for maltose?

A

Malt sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are oligosaccharides?

A

3-9 monosaccharides that combine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What foods are (examples of) oligosaccharides found in?

A

Vegetables
Seed legumes
- peas
- beans (kidney, navy, pinto, Lima, garbanzo, mung)
- peanuts
- lentils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many carbs should be in total daily caloric intake?

A

With regular physical activity: 60% (400-600g)
With moderate/intense training: increase to 70% in energy balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does Type 2 Diabetes occur?

A

It occurs when the pancreas fails to produce sufficient insulin to regulate blood glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When are carbs used as the primary energy source?

A

During intense physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When are glycogen reserves depleted?

A
  1. Starvation and semistarvation
  2. reduced energy intake and low-carb diets
  3. prolonged strenuous physical activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

Abnormally reduced blood sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are saturated fatty acids made of?

A

Single covalent bonds between carbon atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Examples of monounsaturated fatty acid

A
  • canola oil
  • olive oil
  • almonds
  • pecans
  • avocados
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many saturated fats are consumed by Americans every year?

A

50 pounds, or 15% of total caloric intake daily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How much saturated fats should the average young adult male consume?

A

No more than 10% of total energy intake
Or 250 kcal
Or 25-30 g/d
Or less than 30% of total caloric intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How does fish act as a thrombogenic agent?

A
  1. Prevents blood clot formation on arterial walls
  2. Inhibits atherosclerotic plaque growth
  3. Reduces pulse pressure & total vascular resistance (inc. arterial compliance)
  4. Stimulates endothelial-derived nitric oxide to facilitate myocardial perfusion
  5. Lowers triacylglycerol, which may protect against coronary heart disease risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

Contains one or more fatty acid molecules combined with a phosphorus-containing group and a nitrogenous base.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What functions do phospholipids accomplish when interacting with water?

A
  1. Modulate fluid movement across cell membranes
  2. Maintain the cell’s structural integrity
  3. Play an important role in blood clotting
  4. Provide structural integrity to the insulating sheath surrounding nerve fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 3 factors that impact serum LDL concentration?

A
  1. Regular aerobic physical activity
  2. Visceral fat accumulation
  3. Diet’s macronutrient composition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What functions do lipids serve in the body?

A
  1. Energy source & reserve
  2. Vital organ protection
  3. Promote thermal insulation
  4. Transport medium for fat-soluble vitamins
  5. Hunger suppressor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What common foods have histidine?

A

Breast milk, soybeans, fish, chicken breast, beef, wheat germ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What common foods have Leucine?

A

Egg whites, soy, seaweed, spirulina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What common foods have Lysine?

A

Chicken, turkey, tuna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What common foods have Isoleucine?

A

Egg whites, soy, seaweed, spirulina, turkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What common foods have Methionine?

A

Egg white, fish, chicken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What common foods have Phenylalanine?

A

Pork, beef, lamb, veal, fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What common foods have Threonine?

A

Watercress, seaweed, spirulina, game meat, turkey, fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What common foods have Tryptophan?

A

Fatty fish, game meat, seaweed, spirulina, soy protein isolate, spinach, egg white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What common foods have Valine?

A

Egg whites, game meat, seaweed, spirulina, soy protein isolate, watercress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for the average adult?

A

0.8 grams/kg of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which 3 athlete groups need larger than normal protein intake?

A
  1. Growing and maturing adolescent athletes
  2. athletes involved in resistance training and endurance training programs
  3. wrestlers, football players, and other sport categories where participants are subjected to recurring muscle trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What else do amino acids achieve besides synthesizing the building blocks of tissue?

A
  1. incorporate nitrogen into RNA and DNA compounds
  2. incorporate nitrogen into the coenzyme electron carriers NAD and FAD
  3. Incorporate nitrogen into the game components of the oxygen-building hemoglobin and myoglobin compounds
  4. Incorporate nitrogen into the catecholamine hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What happens to deaminated carbon compounds that are not excreted by the kidneys?

A
  1. Synthesized to a new amino acid
  2. Converted to carb or lipid
  3. Catabolized directly for energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is nitrogen balance?

A

When nitrogen intake from protein equals nitrogen excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How much of the total physical activity energy requirement does the alanine-glucose cycle generate during prolonged physical activity?

A

10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do sugars vary in sweetness?

A

On a per gram basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What was added to sailor’s diet to stop scurvy, and why was it added?

A

Lemons and limes, and because they possess vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Why are vitamins considered accessory nutrients?

A

They serve as catalysts to break down energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a provitamin? What is an example?

A

Vitamin A and D. Carotenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the two categories of vitamins?

A

Water-soluble and Fat-soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the water-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamin C, B-complex vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins A, D, E, and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What can Hypervitaminosis A, (vitamin A toxicity), causes what?

A
  1. Nervous System irritability
  2. Bone swelling
  3. Weight loss
  4. Dry, itchy skin
  5. Nausea
  6. Drowsiness
  7. Hair loss
  8. Diarrhea
  9. Bone calcium loss leading to osteoporosis and increased fx risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Dietary Sources of fat-soluble vitamins

A

Table 2.1, pg. 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Dietary Sources of water-soluble vitamins

A
  1. Folate
  2. Vit C
  3. Vit B1
  4. Vit B2
  5. Vit B3
  6. Vit B5
  7. Vit B6
  8. Vit B7
  9. Vit B12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the vitamins in the B-complex?

A
  1. Vitamin B1 (thiamin)
  2. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
  3. Vitamin B3 (niacin-cicotinic acid)
  4. Vitamin B5 (prnothenic acid)
  5. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
  6. Vitamin B7 (biotin)
  7. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why don’t vitamin needs of the physically active exceed those with sedentary lifestyles?

A

Because vitamins are mainly used in metabolic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does DRI stand for?

A

Dietary Reference Intakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are RDAs?

A
  1. EAR
  2. AI
  3. UL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does RDA stand for?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does EAR stand for?

A

Estimated Average Requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does AI stand for?

A

Adequate Intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does ESADDI stand for?

A

Estimated Safe and Adequate Daily Dietary Intakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What do DRI values include?

A

Gender, life stages of growth and development based on age, pregnancy, and lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does EAR include?

A

Average level of daily nutrient intake to meet the requirement of half of the healthy individuals in a particular life-stage and gender group, and what is an inadequate nutrient intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does RDA include?

A

Represents the average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirement of nearly 98% of healthy individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does AI include?

A

Pg 55, bottom right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines Recommendations?

A
  1. Limit saturated fat to 10% daily
  2. Eat a variety of protein that includes seafood, lean meats, poultry, eggs, soy, legumes, nuts, and seeds
  3. Eat fat-free or low-fat dairy, including milk, yogurt, and cheese
  4. Consume <10% of calories daily (about 200 kcal) from added sugars
  5. Limit alcohol intake to one drink a day for women and two drinks a day for men
  6. Limit daily sodium intake <300 mmgs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are the 4 factors that increase the likelihood of promoting oxidative stress?

A
  1. Cellular deterioration associated with advanced aging
  2. Cancer, diabetes, coronary artery disease
  3. Exercise-related oxidative damage
  4. General Decline in central nervous system and immune functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the purpose of antioxidant chemicals?

A

Protect plasma membrane by reacting with and removing free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Approximately, what amount of the body’s mass is minerals?

A

4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How many minerals are essentials to life?

A

7 major minerals and 14 minor minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

How much of the major minerals are required daily?

A

> 100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is a polysaccharide?

A

The glycosidic bonds linkage of 10-thousands of monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much of the minor minerals are required daily?

A

<100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the 7 Major Minerals

A
  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  4. Sulfur
  5. Sodium
  6. Chlorine
  7. Magnesium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What categories do polysaccharides classify into?

A

Plant
Animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are some minor minerals?

A
  1. Iron
  2. Fluorine
  3. Zinc
  4. Copper
  5. Selenium
  6. Iodine
  7. Chromium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are two forms of plant polysaccharides?

A

Starch
Fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What foods are calcium found in?

A

Milk, Cheese, Dark green veg, Dried legumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What foods are phosphorus found in?

A

Milk, cheese, yogurt, meat, poultry, grains, fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What food is potassium found in?

A

pg. 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What 3 roles do minerals serve?

A

pg. 64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What 4 factors affect mineral bioavailability?

A
  1. Food type
  2. Mineral-mineral iteraction
  3. Vitamin-mineral interaction
  4. Fiber-mineral interaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why does food type affect mineral bioavailability?

A

Foods from the animal contain a high mineral concentration, and the small intestine absorbs it better if plant binders are available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Why does mineral-mineral interaction affect mineral bioavailability?

A

When trying to absorb more than one mineral at a time, they can effect the absorption rate of each other due to molecular weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

vitamin-mineral interaction

A

pg 67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Fibre-mineral interaction

A

pg 67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is a key proposition in exercise and nutritional sciences?

A

Food sources in a well-balance diet provide all the body’s mineral requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the 6 important functions of ionized calcium?

A
  1. Muscle action
  2. Blood clotting
  3. Nerve impulse transmission
  4. Enzyme activation
  5. Synthesis of calciferol
  6. Fluid transport across cell membranes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

They perform bone breakdown/reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

They synthesize bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How much calcium do children between 1-3 require?

A

700 milligrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How much calcium do women 51+ require?

A

1200 milligrams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How much calcium do men 50-70 require?

A

1000 milligrams / 4-5 glasses of 8 ounces of milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Which athletes are more prone to calcium dietary insufficiency?

A

Female dancers, gymnasts, and endurance athletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Children and adults require the same amount of calcium per unit body mass - T/F?

A

False, kids require more than adults, but many adults have calcium deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What 2 things does prolonged calcium imbalance cause?

A
  1. Osteopenia
  2. Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is osteopenia?

A

A midway condition of depletion as bones weaken with increased fracture risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Bone density values more than 2.5 SD below normal for the age and sex of the young, non-Hispanic white female reference group, with significantly increased fracture risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the 2 types of bones?

A
  1. Cortical bone (compact bone)
  2. Trabecular bone (cancellous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is cortical bone?

A

Dense, hard outer layer bone (e.g., shafts of the arm and leg, long bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is trabecular bone?

A

Spongy, less dense, and relatively weaker bone most prevalent in the vertebrae and ball of the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

When can calcium deficiency begin?

A

Calcium deficiency can begin at an early age; inadequate dietary calcium affects about 50% of American children under age 5, 65% of teen boys, and 85% of teen girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is hypercalcemia?

A

higher than normal blood calcium concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is hypocalcemia?

A

lower than normal blood calcium concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How many people suffer from osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

~ 200 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What percentage of postmenopausal women in the USA and Europe have osteoporosis? Why?

A

~ 30%
This is due to the absence of estrogen release of the ovaries

138
Q

What percentage of genetics and lifestyle contribute to osteoporosis?

A

60-80% Genetics
20-40% lifestyle

139
Q

How much bone loss does a man lose annually? How much does a women?

A

After 50, men loses aboutt 0.4% of bone yearly.
Women lose twice this amount by the age 35

140
Q

How much calcium does calcium carbonate contain?

A

40% per dose

141
Q

How much calcium does calcium citrate contain?

A

21% per dose

142
Q

How much calcium does calcium gluconate contain?

A

9% per dose

143
Q

What is the upper level of calcium intake per day?

A

2500 milligrams per day

144
Q

What happens if someone exceeds the upper limit of calcium intake?

A

The risk of kidney stones increases dramatically

145
Q

How can someone of any age or gender build bone?

A

Moderate-intense weight-bearing aerobic physical activity

146
Q

What happens to athletes bones during and after seasons?

A

During season, the bone density increases. During off season, it decreases.

147
Q

What is phosphorus used for?

A

It combines with calcium to give rigidity to teeth and bones

148
Q

pg 80-81

A

too much, too fast

149
Q

What are the ten common symptoms of iron deficiency anemia?

A
  1. Persistent fatigue
  2. Pale colour or having yellow, sallow skin
  3. Shortness of breath or chest pain
  4. Unexplained generalized weakness
  5. Rapid heartbeat
  6. Pounding or “whooshing” in the ears
  7. Headache brought on with increased physical activity
  8. Compulsive craving for ice, freezer frost, or iced drinks, or strong urge to eat nonfoods like paper or clay (picophagia)
  9. Sore or smooth tongue
  10. Brittle nails or hair loss
150
Q

Which plasma levels reflect the adequacy of current iron intake?

A

Transferrin

151
Q

What causes an iron absorption decrease?

A
  1. Phytic acid (dietary fibre)
  2. Oxalic acid
  3. Polyphenols (tea/coffee)
  4. Excess of other minerals (Zn, Mg, Ca)
  5. Reduced stomach
  6. Antacid use
152
Q

What 3 factors are needed to absorb 15% of ingested iron?

A
  1. Iron status
  2. Form of ingested iron
  3. Meal composition
153
Q

What causes an iron absorption increase?

A
  1. Stomach acid
  2. Dietary iron in heme form
  3. High body demand for red blood cells (blood loss, high-altitude exposure, exercise training, pregnancy)
  4. Presence of meat protein factor
  5. Vitamin C in small intestine
154
Q

What are sources of heme iron?

A
  1. Tuna
  2. Chicken
  3. Clams
  4. Beef
  5. Oysters
  6. Beef liver
155
Q

What are sources of nonheme iron?

A
  1. Oatmeal
  2. Spinach
  3. Soy protein
  4. Dried figs
  5. Beans
  6. Raisins
  7. Lima benas
  8. Prune juice
  9. Peaches
  10. Apricots
156
Q

Iron Status: a concern to some female vegans

A

The relatively low bioavailability of nonheme iron places women who consume plant-based diets at increased risk for developing iron insufficiency

157
Q

What is sports anemia?

A

Describes reduced Hb levels approaching clinical anemia attributable to intense training

158
Q

What is foot-strike hemolysis?

A

Iron loss from sweat and Hb destruction from increased temperature, spleen activity, circulation rates, and mechanical trauma due to runners intense training

159
Q

Athletes and pseudoanemia

A

pg 84

160
Q

Excess iron intake may augment latent cancer growth and infectious pathogenic organisms - T/F

A

True

161
Q

What does a starch serve as?

A

The storage form of carbs & the most familiar form of plant polysaccharide

162
Q

How much of daily total carb intake in the American diet does plant starch account for?

A

50% of total carb intake

163
Q

What does complex carb refer to?

A

Dietary starch

164
Q

What foods are starches plentiful in?

A

Seeds
Corn
Grains for making (bread, cereal, spaghetti, & pastries)
Peas
Beans
Potatoes
Roots

165
Q

What are the two forms of starch?

A

Amylose
Amylopectin

166
Q

What is amylose?

A

A long, straight chain of glucose twisted into a helical coil
Eg: white bread

167
Q

What is amylopectin?

A

A highly branched monosaccharide linkage
Eg: apple

168
Q

What is fiber?

A

An “unheralded” nutrient that is a nonstarch structural polysaccharide & includes cellulose

169
Q

What is cellulose?

A

The most abundant organic molecule on earth

170
Q

Do fibrous materials have nutrients or available calories?

A

No

171
Q

What do fibrous materials resist?

A

Hydrolysis by human digestive enzymes

172
Q

What do fibers look like?

A

They have thick cell walls & elongated cells with tapering ends

173
Q

Do fibers exist exclusively in plants?

A

Yes

174
Q

What do fibers make up?

A

Structure of leaves, stems, roots, seeds, & fruit coverings

175
Q

Where is fiber normally located?

A

Within the cell wall as cellulose, gums, hemicellulose, pectin, non-carb lignins that govern rigidity to plant cell walls

176
Q

What is the biome?

A

The guts mass of microorganisms consisting of tens of trillions of bacteria

177
Q

What are the 3 main microbe groups?

A

Bacteroidetes
Firmicutes
Actinobacteria

178
Q

What is the biome’s colony of bacteria essential for and do?

A

Facilitate food digestion and optimal food processing

179
Q

What is gut bacteria called?

A

“Digestive hitchhikers”

180
Q

What is the western diet high in?

A

Fiber-free animal foods

181
Q

What is the western diet low in?

A

Natural plant fibers lost through the refining process

182
Q

What does the western diet contribute to?

A

More intestinal disorders compared to countries that consume a diet high in unrefined, complex carbs

183
Q

What is the typical American diet fiber intake compared to African or Indian diets?

A

12-15g compared to 40-150g daily

184
Q

Dietary fiber may aid GI functions in what 3 ways?

A
  1. Exerts a scraping action on the cells of the gut wall
  2. Binds or dilutes harmful chemicals or inhibits their activity
  3. Shortens transit time for food residues (& possibly carcinogenic materials) to pass through the digestive tract
185
Q

What is the result of fiber retaining considerable water?

A

-Gives “bulk” to food residues in large intestines
-Increases stool weight & volume by 40-100%

186
Q

What is the recommended daily fiber intake?

A

Women: 19-50 is 25g
Men: 19-50 is 38 g

187
Q

What do prebiotics do?

A

Feed the gut bacteria that keep the colon healthy

188
Q

What are water-soluble fibers?

A

Mucilaginous pectin & guar gum fibers (oats, rolled oats, oat bran, oat flour)
Legumes
Barley
Brown rice
Peas
Carrots
Psyllium
Various fruits (rich in phytochemicals & antioxidants)

189
Q

What are phytochemicals?

A
190
Q

What are antioxidants?

A
191
Q

Where are water-insoluble fibers found?

A

Wheat bran
Whole wheat products

192
Q

Which type of fiber lowers cholesterol?

A

Water-soluble fibers

193
Q

What is the optimal strategy for obtaining diverse fibers?

A

From food in the daily diet, not from fiber supplements.

194
Q

Look at table 1.1

A
195
Q

What is the general guideline for recommended fiber intake?

A

14g daily per 1000 kcal consumed
- 25g for women
38g for men

196
Q

What is glycogen?

A

The storage polysaccharide found in mammalian muscle and liver

197
Q

What are electrolytes?

A

Sodium, potassium, and collectively

198
Q

What is hypokalemia?

A

Potassium deficiency

199
Q

What do electrolytes do?

A

Modulate fluid exchange within the body’s fluid compartments, allowing exchange of nutrients and waste products. Also, maintains plasma membrane permeability naff regulates acid and base qualities of body fluids

200
Q

What are the benefits of adequate potassium intake?

A

Counters high blood pressure by making the larger blood vessels more flexible, while the smaller vessels are dilated to reduce peripheral resistance

201
Q

When do suboptimal Hb concentrations & hematocrits occur more frequently?

A

Endurance athletes (this supports possibility of exercise-induced anemia)

202
Q

What is the most important function of potassium and sodium?

A

They are able to establish the ideal electrical gradient across cell membranes by way of the Na+/K+ pumps

203
Q

What does excess iron intake augment?

A

Latent cancer growth & infectious microbial pathogenic organisms

204
Q

What steroid hormone is used with low-moderate sodium intake? Where does it come from?

A

Aldosterone, and it is synthesized from cholesterol within the adrenal glands

205
Q

What medical complications will occur from toxic levels of excessive iron?

A

Complications from diabetes, liver disease, heart & joint damage

206
Q

What is the cut off for Hb levels for clinical anemia?

A

Pg 84

207
Q

What are diuretics used for?

A

A drug used to induce water-loss to help lower blood pressure. Also produces losses in other minerals, like potassium

208
Q

What are the 4 health benefits to consuming enough sodium? pg 88

A
  1. Prevent up to 92.000 deaths and 66,000 strokes yearly
  2. Prevent nearly 100,000 Americans from having a heart attack and nearly 120,000 others form acquiring heart disease yearly.
  3. 4.
209
Q

What are antihypertensives?
What do antihypertensives do?

A

Drugs that interfere with aldosterone action
They reduce blood pressure by blocking ACE which leads to lower Aldosterone secretion & action

210
Q

What does ACE stand for?

A

Angiotensin-converting enzyme

211
Q

What influences individual water content?

A

Age, gender, and body composition

212
Q

How many Americans have hypertension?

A

Nearly 50 million

213
Q

How much weight does water account for on average?

A

40-70% of body mass
72% of muscle weight
20-50% of body fat/adipose tissue

214
Q

pg 89

A
215
Q

Why is carb-loading a double-edge sword?

A

additional water storage decreases exercise economy because extra body weight increases energy expenditure

216
Q

What is glycogen’s purpose with water?

A

A glycogen gram joins with 2.7 grams of water as the glucose units link together, thus making glycogen a heavy-energy fuel, and then releases it during catabolism

217
Q

What are the 6 types of intracellular fluid?

A
  1. Lymph
  2. Saliva
  3. Eye fluid
  4. Fluids secreted by glands & the digestive tract
  5. Clear fluid that bathes the brain & spinal cord nerves (cerebrospinal fluid)
    Fluids excreted from skin (water & sweat) & kidneys (filtered fluids & urine)

Pg. 90

218
Q

How much water loss can occur during vomiting or diarrhea?

A

between 1500 and 5000 millilitres

219
Q

What 6 crucial bodily functions does water serve?

A

Pg. 90

220
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine water loss through sweat?

A
  1. Severity of physical activity
  2. Environmental temperature
  3. Relative humidity
221
Q

How does water lose water?

A
  1. In urine
  2. Through skin
  3. As water vapor in air
  4. In feces
222
Q

What is the major physiologic defence against overheating?

A

Evaporation of sweat from the skin’s surface

223
Q

What is relative humidity?

A

Water content of ambient air compared with what the air can contain at that temperature, which impacts the efficiency of the sweating mechanism in temperature regulation

224
Q

What is insensible perspiration?

A

When the skin emits water through skin pores at night at considerably reduced rates

225
Q

When is the ambient air fully saturated with water vapour?

A

100% of relative humidity

226
Q

What happens at 100% of relative humidity?

A

This blocks fluid evaporation from the skin surface to air, minimizing an important avenue for body cooling. This is when sweat beads on the skin and eventually rolls off without generating a cooling effect

227
Q

What is the sweat rate under normal non-sleeping conditions?

A

500-700 ml

228
Q

What are the 4 hormones that regulate digestion?

A
  1. Gastrin
  2. Secretin
  3. Cholecystokinin
  4. Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
229
Q

What is the salivary glands target organ, secretion, and action?

A

TO: mouth
S: saliva
A: breaks down carbs

229
Q

Where does gastrin originate, secretion stimulus, and what’s its action?

A
  1. Pyloric areas of stomach and upper duodenum
  2. Food in stomach; nerve input to spinster, slows gastric emptying
  3. Stimuluates flow of stomach enzymes and acid; stimulates lower esophagus
230
Q

Where does GIP originate, secretion stimulus, and what’s its action?

A
  1. Duodenum, jejunum
  2. Lipids; proteins
  3. Inhibits secretion of stomach
231
Q

What is the gastric glands target organ, secretion, and action?

A

TO: stomach
S: gastric juice
A: mixes with food bolus, hydrochloric acid & enzymes degrade proteins

232
Q

What is the Pancreas target organ, secretion, and action?

A

TO: small intestine
S: pancreatic juice
A: bicarbonate neutralizes acidic gastric juices, pancreatic enzymes degrade carbs, lipids, & proteins

233
Q

What is the livers target organ, secretion, and action?

A

TO: gallbladder
S: bile
A: stored until needed

234
Q

Where does CCK originate, secretion stimulus, and what’s its action?

A

pg. 98

235
Q

What is the gallbladders target organ, secretion, and action?

A

TO: small intestine
S: bile
A:

236
Q

pg 102

A
237
Q

What is the GI tract?

A

Consists of a 7- to 9-metre-long tubular passage that runs from the mouth to the anus; supplies body with water and nutrients

238
Q

What is a sphincter?

A

A circular muscle arrangement acting as a one way valve & regulates the flow of material through the GI tract

239
Q

What does the mouth do?

A

Mixes food with saliva

240
Q

What does the esophagus do?

A

Passes food to stomach

241
Q

What do the salivary glands do?

A

Secret saliva that contains starch-digesting enzymes

242
Q

Table 3.3 on pg 105, know name, location, and what it does

A
243
Q

What does the cardiac sphincter do?

A

Allows passage from esophagus to stomach. Prevents back flow from stomach

244
Q

What does the liver do?

A

Manufactures bile, a detergent-like substance to digest lipids

245
Q

What does the stomach do?

A

Adds acid, enzymes, and fluid. Churns, mixes, and grinds food to a liquid mass

246
Q

What does the pyloric sphincter do?

A

Allows passage from stomach to small intestine. Prevents back flow from small intestine

247
Q

Where is the esophageal sphincter located?

A

At the junction between the esophagus & stomach

248
Q

What does the gallbladder do?

A

Stores bile until needed

249
Q

What does the bile duct do?

A

Conducts bile into the small intestine

250
Q

What does the esophageal sphincter do?

A

Prevents back flow (reflux) of stomach contents into the esophagus
- it only opens when the esophageal muscles contract

251
Q

What does the ileocecal valve (sphincter) do?

A

Allows passage from small to large intestine. Prevents back flow form large intestine

252
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A

Manufactures enzymes to digest food and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid

253
Q

Where is the pyloric sphincter located?

A

At the junction between the stomach & first part of the intestine

254
Q

What does the pancreatic duct do?

A

Conducts pancreatic juice into small intestine

255
Q

What does the pyloric sphincter do?

A

It is under hormonal & nervous system control & prevents back flow of intestinal contents into the stomach

256
Q

What does the small intestine do?

A

Secretes enzymes that digest all food to small nutrient particles. Cells absorb nutrients into blood and lymph

257
Q

What does the large intestine (colon) do?

A

Reabsorbs water and minerals. Passes undigested waste (fibre, bacteria, and some water) to rectum

258
Q

Where is the oddi sphincter located?

A

At the end of the common bile duct

259
Q

What does the appendix do?

A

No digestive function

260
Q

What does the rectum do?

A

Stores waste prior to elimination

261
Q

Where is the ileocecal sphincter located?

A

Terminus of the small intestine

262
Q

What does the anus do?

A

Holds rectum closed

263
Q

Where does 90% of the digestion occur in the small intestine?

A

The first two sections, also know as the small bowel

264
Q

Where is the anal sphincter located?

A
265
Q

What are the three parts of the first section of the small intestine?

A
  1. Jejunum
  2. Ileum
  3. pg 105
266
Q

What does the pancreas secrete? How much?

A
  1. Alkali-containing juice which helps buffer the stomach’s hydrochloric acid remaining in the intestinal chyme
  2. ~1.2 and 1.6 litres
267
Q

How long does it take after consuming food before the GI tract eliminates its residues?

A

1-3 days

268
Q

Where are the salivary glands located? What do the salivary glands secrete?

A
  1. The underside of the jaw
  2. salivary a-amylase
269
Q

What does the gas flatus consist of?

A

Hydrogen (H2), nitrogen (N2), methane (CH4), hydrogen sulfide (H2S), & carbon dioxide (CO2)

270
Q

Figure 3.9

A
271
Q

What may cause excessive flatus?

A

Consuming large amounts of beans or dairy products

272
Q

How much of the 8-12 liter food volume, fluid, and gastric secretions that enter

A

Pg 109

273
Q

What is hepatic portal circulation?

A

regulates circulation transport from the GI tract

274
Q

What breaks down food in the small intestine?

A

Pancreatic Amylase

275
Q

Where does the major breakdown of lipids occur?

A

Small intestines, particularly triacylglycerols containing long-chain 12-18 carbon fatty acids

276
Q

Figure 3.10

A
277
Q

What does CCK regulate in the GI tract?

A
  1. Stomach motility
  2. Stomach secretion
  3. Gallbladder contraction and bile flow
  4. Enzyme secretion by the pancreas
278
Q

What does pepsin breakdown?

A

Digests protein into short-chain polypeptides

279
Q

What are the 5 objectives of the acidification of ingested food?

A
  1. Activate pepsin
  2. Kills pathogenic organisms
  3. Improves iron & calcium absorption
  4. Inactivates hormones of plant & animal origin
  5. Denatures food proteins, making them more vulnerable to enzyme action
280
Q

What controls pepsin?

A

Gastrin

281
Q

How does vitamin absorption occur?

A

By diffusion (passively)

282
Q

Where are calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, and trace minerals mainly absorbed?

A

The small intestine

283
Q

What are the 6 factors of mineral absorption?

A
  1. Bioavailability
  2. Transit time from the dietary source to a specific absorptive site
  3. Quantity of digestive juices
  4. pH of intestinal lumen contents
  5. Receptor sites in the intestine’s mucosal lining & brush border
  6. Availability of substances that combine with minerals during movement from the gut & across cell membranes
284
Q

Is there variation between the mineral absorption of males and females?

A

Yes

285
Q

How much calcium do we normally absorb?

A

Between 25-35%, the other 2/3 is excreted in the feces

286
Q

What does the body’s mineral availability depend on?

A

It’s chemical form

287
Q

What does the body’s osmosis process in the small intestines determine?

A

The body’s major strategy to absorb ingested water & water contained in foods

288
Q

Does the continuous water secretion & absorption within the GI tract make it difficult to quantify the body’s net water uptake?

A

Yes

289
Q

What are two positive GI tract health benefits of a physically active lifestyle?

A
  1. Enhances gut emptying
  2. Reduces incidences of liver disease, gallstones, colon disorders, polyps, & constipation
290
Q

What 3 factors help explain activity-related alterations in nutrient & fluid absorption?

A
  1. Mode of physical activity
  2. Environmental temperature
  3. Type of food/liquid ingested
291
Q

What is constipation?

A

A delay in stool movement through the colon because the large intestine absorbs excessive water, producing hard, dry stools

292
Q

What is the most common cause of constipation?

A

Diets high in lipid & low in water & fiber

293
Q

What are the symptoms of diarrhea?

A

Increased peristalsis, intestinal irritation or damage, medication side effects, intolerance to gluten, & perhaps emotional distress

294
Q

What is gluten?

A

A protein in some wheat products

295
Q

How much water does the intestinal tract, the small intestine absorb, and the large intestine?

A
  1. 9 Litres
  2. 72%
  3. 8%
296
Q

What do high incidences of GI distress pg, 117

A

Interruptions in O2 supply & blood flow including increased parasympathetic nervous system activity during activity

297
Q

What is glucogenesis?

A

Glucose being synthesized into glycogen

298
Q

What is glycogenolysis?

A

Glucose formation from glycogen

299
Q

What is the make up of glycogen?

A

A few 100 to 1000s of glucose molecules linked together like a sausage chain with some branch points for additional glucose linkage

300
Q

What is glucagon?

A

Insulin’s opposing hormone that stimulates liver glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis to raise blood glucose concentration

301
Q

What type of glycogen is the major source of carb energy for active muscles during physical activity?

A

Muscle glycogen

302
Q

What is the body’s upper limit for glycogen storage?

A
  • 15 g/kg of body mass
    = 1050g for avg 70kg man
    = 840g for avg 56kg woman
303
Q

For a typical 80kg person where are the 500g of carbs stored?

A
  • 400g as muscle glycogen
  • 90-110g as liver glycogen
  • 2-3g as blood glucose
304
Q

How many kcals of energy is a gram of glycogen or glucose?

A

4 kcal

305
Q

How much carb energy does the typical person store?

A

1500-2000 kcal
This is enough to power a high-intensity 20-mile run the length of Manhattan plus another 6 miles of running side streets

306
Q

What stimulates glucose synthesis from other nutrients structural components in the body?

A

Depleting liver & muscle glycogen through dietary restrictions or intense physical activity

307
Q

How much of the total calories in the typical American diet do carbs account for?

A

40-50% or
300g daily for a sedentary 70kg person

308
Q

What are the 6 physical activity-related GERD symptoms?

A
  1. Substernal chest pressure
  2. Pain or burning that mimics angina
  3. Sour taste
  4. Eructation (voiding through the mouth of gas or mall quantity of stomach acid fluid)
  5. Nausea
  6. Vomiting
309
Q

What are the lifestyle changes factors of GERD?

A
  1. Attempting sleep within 4 hrs following an evening meal
  2. Postprandial physical activity
  3. Excessive food consuption of chocolate, peppermint, onions, high-fat foods, alcohol, tobacco, coffee, and citrus products, which relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter
310
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Small pouches that bulge outward through tissue weak spots that develops on the colon

311
Q

What are the 8 factors that cause IBS?

A
  1. Increased GI motor reactivity to stress
  2. Foods high in lipid, insoluble fibre, caffeine, coffee, carbonation, alcohol
  3. Dysfunction of the CCK
  4. Impaired bowel gas transit
  5. Visceral hypersensitivity
  6. Impaired reflex control that delays gas transit
  7. Autonomic dysfunction
  8. Altered immune activation
312
Q

What are the 4 most common IBS symptoms?

A
  1. Cramping abdominal pain relieved by defecation
  2. Altered stool frequency
  3. Altered stool form
  4. Abdominal distension especially following meals
313
Q

What portion of older Americans does diverticulitis affect?

A

1/2 of all Americans age 60-80 years
Almost everyone older than age 80

314
Q

What is functional dyspepsia?

A

Chronic pain in the upper abdomen without obvious physical cause

315
Q

What are 4 common methods that provide dietary information?

A
  • 24-hour dietary recall
  • food diary
  • food frequency assessment
  • diet history
316
Q

What does chronic heartburn represent?

A

A serious disorder called GERD

317
Q

What percentage of athletes experience GERD?

A

60%

318
Q

Does GERD happen more frequently during physical activity or at rest?

A

Physical activity

319
Q

What are the 4 lifestyle and dietary modifications that effectively counter IBS?

A
  1. Stress reduction
  2. Consuming daily small meals
  3. Consuming a high-fibre diet
  4. Avoiding foods with lactose and candy that contains sorbitol
320
Q

What is 24-hr Dietary Recall?

A

Usually a qualitative assessment by the individual or another person that involves informal oral questioning about food and beverage intake in the last 24 hrs

321
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of dyspepsia?

A
  1. Peptic ulcer disease
  2. GERD
  3. Gastritis
322
Q

What is gastritis?

A

Inflammation of stomach lining with accompanying pain

323
Q

What is a problem with 24-hr Dietary Recall?

A

An inaccuracy in quantity assessment and method of food preparation. This frequently produces gross underestimation of hidden lipids in such foods as sauces and dressings

324
Q

How long is a food diary maintained?

A

2-7 days

325
Q

What is Food Frequency Assessment?

A

A food frequency questionnaire lists various foods, and the person estimates the frequency of consuming each item

326
Q

Should a food diary include a weekend day?

A

Yes, because most people eat differently on the weekend than during a typical school/work day?

327
Q

What is Diet History?

A

It yields general information about a person’s dietary patterns. Factors include eating habits (# of meals per day, who prepares meals, and patterns of food preparation), food preferences, eating locations, and typical food choices in different situations

328
Q

Does a combination of methods or one method prove more valid in developing a comprehensive dietary assessment?

A

A combination of methods

329
Q

What 4 factors is metabolic syndrome characterized by?

A
  1. Disturbed glucose & insulin metabolism
  2. Overweight & abdominal fat distribution
  3. Mild dyslipidemia
  4. Hypertension
330
Q

What 3 goals do diets with fiber-rich low-glycemic carbs accomplish?

A
  1. Lower blood glucose & insulin response following a meal
  2. Improve blood lipid profile
  3. Increase insulin sensitivity
331
Q

What 4 functions do carbs serve in energy metabolism & exercise performance?

A
  1. Energy source
  2. Affects metabolic mixture & spares protein
  3. Metabolic primer& prevents ketosis
  4. Central nervous system fuel
332
Q

How does the CNS rely on carbs to function optimally?

A

It relies on blood glucose almost exclusively as it’s fuel

333
Q

What maintains normal blood glucose levels at rest & during physical activity?

A

Liver glycogenolysis

334
Q

What level is blood glucose maintained at?

A

100 mg/dL

335
Q

What are examples of simple lipids?

A

Triglycerides
Beeswax

336
Q

What are examples of compound lipids?

A

Lecithins, cephalins, lipositols, cerebrosides, gangliosides, chylomicrons, VLDLS, LDLS, HDLS

337
Q

What are examples of derived lipids?

A

Fatty acids
Steroids
Hydrocarbons

338
Q

What are examples of saturated fatty acids?

A

Animal beef & lamb (50%)
Pork (40%)
Chicken & egg yolk (36%)
Cream, milk, butter (62%)
Cheese

339
Q

What percent of the diet should lipids not exceed?

A

30%, 70% of this should be unsaturated fatty acids

340
Q

What is the recommended amount of cholesterol that shouldn’t be exceeded daily?

A

300 mg or O0.01 oz

BOC Prep (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions