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AS 04 & 05 - Aircraft General Flashcards

1
Q

Review Questions

What type of engine does the CT-142 use?

A

PW 120A

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2
Q

Review Questions

What is the SHP of a PW 120A?

A

1800 SHP which can up trim to 2000 SHP in the event of an engine failure.

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3
Q

What is the certified ceiling and max operating speed of the CT 142?

A

Ceiling: 25 000’

Max operating speed: 242 KIAS from sea level to 14 000’

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3
Q

What is the certified ceiling and max operating speed of the CT 142?

A

Ceiling: 25 000’
Max operating speed: 242 KIAS from sea level to 14 000’
Speed decreases linearly to max speed of 207 KIAS at 25 000’

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4
Q

What are the runway wind limits of the CT-142?

A

Crosswind: 36 kts (assuming hard dry surface, min rwy width of 100’)
Tailwind: 10 kts (up to 20 kts per AFM supplement 6.3.1)

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5
Q

What are the emergency stopping and re-takeoff lengths of the CT-142?

A

Emergency stopping: 1500’ with 2 engines, 1800’ with 1 engine.
Re-takeoff: 3000’

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6
Q

What are the dimensions of the CT-142?

A

24.5’ high
77.6’ long
85’ wingspan

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7
Q

Aircraft Weights (in lbs)

AC basic weight (+/- 250 lbs): 
Galley equipment and pubs: 65
Crew (8 @ 215 lbs each): 1720
Empty tank weight:
Max empty tank weight: 31 000
Max ramp weight:
Max T/O weight: 34500
Max landing weight:
A 
AC basic weight: 25 750
Galley equipment and pubs: 65
Crew (8 @ 215 lbs each): 1720
Empty tank weight: 27 535 
Max empty tank weight: 31 000
Max ramp weight: 34 700
Max T/O weight: 34 500
Max landing weight: 33 900
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8
Q

Useable Fuel (in lbs)

Main tanks: 5678
Auxiliary tanks:
Total useable fuel:
Max fuel with 8 crew:

A

Main tanks: 5678
Auxiliary tanks: 4566
Total useable fuel: 10 244
Max fuel with 8 crew: 6514

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9
Q

How many exits does the CT-142 have, where are they?

A 
4
Air stair door
Mid cabin (port) emergency exit
Forward cabin (starboard) emergency exirt
Flight compartment escape hatch
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10
Q

Which emergency exit is surrounded by a rubber seal charged by a pneumatic de-icing system?

A

The air stair door

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11
Q

What does the landing gear consist of?

A

A tricycle-style, dual wheel configuration.

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12
Q

Where does the landing gear retract?

A

Nose: retracts forward into fuselage

Main (read two): aft into the nacelles

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13
Q

What type of brakes does the main gear have?

A

Disc brakes with anti-skid and emergency/ parking brake systems.

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14
Q

If the pin flags are not installed, where mustn’t you be near?

A

The main gear door, the doors may close if power is applied to system of propellers windmill.

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15
Q

Normal navigation details will have what crew make-up and size?

A

2 pilots, 2 nav instructors and 4 nav students

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16
Q

True of false

The CT-142 can have a total of 12 crew members.

A

True, it requires the use of a flight engineer, flight attendant’s seat and the crew rest area.

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17
Q

Each wing on the CT-142 has what configuration of fuel components?

A

From wing tip towards fuselage: Surge bay, Left main, Collector bay and Left auxiliary

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18
Q

Explain the movement of fuel from each bay.

A

Pumps direct fuel from main bay to collector bay, overflow from collector bay goes back into main.

Auxiliary bays pump fuel into main bay, cannot go directly to C bay or across into the opposite wings

The surge bay provides positive tank venting. Fuel from surge bay is returned to the main tank from a ram air pressure system.

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19
Q

How are fuel imbalances dealt with?

A

Fuel is pumped from one main tank to the other: Main tanks can have 600 lbs of fuel imbalance.

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20
Q

Whats the maximum fuel imbalance for the Aux tanks?

A

1500 lbs.

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21
Q

Where is the refueling/ defueling control panel located?

A

Aft of the No. 2 nacelle

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22
Q

What is the preferred, secondary and tertiary fuels of the Dash 8?

A

Preferred: F-37 (JP-8 + 100)
Secondary: F-34 (US Mil Desig JP-8)
F-35 (Jet-A1)
Tertiary: F-44 (US Mil Desig JP-5)

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23
Q

What are the three separate hydraulic systems?

A

No. 1 engine driven
No. 2 engine driven
Emergency hand driven system

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24
Which engine driven hydraulic systems are backed up by an electronically driven standby pump?
No. 1 and No. 2
25
True of false Each of the three separate system has an emergency shutoff valve and hydraulic quantity indicator.
True
26
Which engines powers which hydraulic system?
The port engine powers the No. 1 | The starboard powers the No. 2
27
Assign each system component to the correct hydraulic system: ``` Main Wheel Brakes Nose Wheel steering Landing gear Rudder actuator (lower) Wing flaps Outboard roll spoilers Rudder actuator (upper) Emergency/ park brake Inboard roll spoilers Anti-skid control valve ```
``` No 1 (WAIRM) Wing flaps Anti-skid control valve Inboard roll spoilers Rudder actuator (lower) Main wheel brakes ``` ``` No. 2 (LONER) Landing gear Outboard roll spoilers Nose wheel steering Emergency/ park brake Rudder actuator (upper) ```
28
If both engine driven and electrical systems fail, how can the main landing gear be lowered?
By using the emergency system hydraulic hand pump located in the cockpit.
29
If the emergency system hydraulic hand pump system is used, does the main landing gear have to be lowered entirely by the hand pump?
No, it will fall to a partially extended position. The handpump will extend them to the locked position.
30
How does the nose gear free fall if the engine and electrical driven systems have failed?
With the aid of the slipstream
31
What does the Power Transfer Unit do?
In the event of a #2 engine failure, it assists the #2 standby pump in raising of the landing gear. When activated, #1 hydraulic system pressure provides power to the PTU hydraulic motor through mechanical connection, which drives the PTU pump and uses #2's hydraulic pressure and gear for retraction/ extension.
32
What does the PTU provide power to?
Just the main gear, not the entire #2 system.
33
Is the PTU activated manually or automatically?
Both, automatically activated by the engine oil pressure switch and by a landing gear up selection.
34
How long should continuous operation of the PTU be limited to?
5 mins
35
How frequently is the PTU tested?
Tested on the first flight of each day during the Pre-taxi Check. You know its working if you hear a loud clunk.
36
True or false Hydraulic fluid, or SKYDROL, is considered a relatively safe aviation material.
False, it is highly irritant to skin, eyes and respiratory tract. Also carcinogenic.
37
Explain the Bleed Air System and its uses.
Ari is bled from the engine compressors and used in: Air conditioning Pressurization Pneumatic de-icing
38
How does the air conditioning work? What does it provide?
Two engine bleeds join into a single duct downstream to the AC unit in the aft fuselage. Provides temperature control, heating & cooling Provides ventilation and pressurization: pressurization is accomplished by limiting the escape of air by means of out flow valves.
39
Once the engines are running, which parts of the AC are sealed?
The flight compartment, cabin, cargo compartment and underfloor.
40
How long after landing will the AC de-pressurize?
1 minute
41
What is the AC pressurized to in feet?
25 000ft
42
How is de-icing is accomplished?
De-icing is accomplished by feeding air into a series of inflatable rubber boots on the leading edges of the air frame.
43
Bleed air is used to de-ice the leading edges of the:
wings nacelle intakes horizontal stabilizer vertical stabilizer
44
What makes up the DC electrical system?
``` DC starter/ generators DC control/ load monitoring panel External DC power Batteries Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU) ```
45
What kind of ground power cart is required for external power?
28V 1500 Amp ground power cart
46
What kind of batteries are used in the Dash 8?
2 x 24 volt DC batteries in the nose compartment
47
What do the batteries power in a Dash 8?
Used for engine and/or APU start. | Also used as a backup emergency power source.
48
Describe the number and purpose of the DC Starter/ Generators
One per engine and used as a starter to crank the engine. Reverts to generators when the engine reaches idle speed. Produces 28V DC, limited to 300 amps.
49
What does the TRU do?
Converts AC to DC power. Also ensures DC power is available even if DC generators fail Can run off one generator through cross-feed bus, max 200 amps.
50
What makes up the AC electrical system?
``` APU AC generators AC control/ load monitoring panel External AC power Inverters ```
51
What can the APU provide regarding voltage and frequency? What can it not do?
It produces 115V 400Hz variable frequency | It cannot start the engines
52
The APU provides power to what/ for what purpose?
Provides AC power for NTS, charging battery and the hydraulic systems
53
Does the APU operate in flight?
No, it operates on the ground only
54
True or false The APU allows the entire AC to be powered though the TRUs.
True, it uses the 3 main inverters to do so.
55
When do the AC generators begin to work?
Once the props are unfeathered.
56
What do the AC generators produce?
3 phase 115V variable frequency AC power
57
What is the variable frequency AC (from the AC generator) used to power?
Connected to prop gearbox on each engine: TRU, Anti-icing equipment and standby Aux fuel pumps. (PPT isnt very clear on this, AS 04-05 slide 44)
58
Where is the AC external hookup located and what is it used for?
Right nacelle, used for de-fuelling.
59
How many inverters for the CT 142 have? What are their applications?
9 identical inverters broken down as follows: 3 for avionics 3 for search radar 3 for NTS inverters
60
Fill in the following acronyms for DC and AC power sources: | BETS & GEIA
B - Batteries x 2 E - External DC T - TRU x 2 S - Starter/ Generator G - Generators x 2 E - External AC I - Inverters x 9 A - APU x 1
61
Provide the voltage of each system component B - Batteries x 2 E - External DC T - TRU x 2 S - Starter/ Generator
B - Batteries x 2 - 24V DC E - External DC - 28V DC cart T - TRU x 2 - converts 115V AC to 28V DC S - Starter/ Generator - 28V DC
62
Provide the voltage of each system component G - Generators x 2 E - External AC I - Inverters x 9 A - APU x 1
G - Generators x 2 - 115V AC E - External AC - 115V AC Cart I - Inverters x 9 - converts 28V DC to 115V AC A - APU x 1 115V AC
63
True or false The CT-142 will incur loss of equipment if one electrical system breaks down.
False, many redundant systems and backups prevents this.
64
What do the circuit breakers detect and prevent?
CBs detect large current draws, such as short circuits, and prevent fires/ damage to the equipment.
65
What is acceptable regarding a tripped circuit breaker?
A one time reset provided that: The AC is on the ground There is no recent history of reported defects with the system or related systems.
66
How is DC power supplied to each NTS station?
The NTS power switches close the circuits to supply the necessary DC power to the NTS computer, console lights and monitors as required.
67
How do the Nav power switches interact with the NTS computers?
They connect/ disconnect the NTS computers to the associated DC bus.
68
How many external lights exist on the CT 142?
19
69
Where are the controls for the air craft lighting?
Main controls are at the flight attendant's control panel | Individual controls are at each NTS and crew rest station
70
What passenger information signs are still used in the CT 142?
Fasten Seat Belt signs
71
Electric de-icing and Anti-icing is powered by what type of current?
Variable frequency AC
72
Electric de-icing and Anti-icing is used on which areas? | this Q mentioned in a review
``` P - prop blades P - pitot tubes P - pilot's side window S - static ports S - stall warning transducers E - engine intakes E - elevator horns W - windshields ```
73
The pilot pitot tube in located where? What does it provide?
Located on port side of fuselage, supplies airspeed indicator and #1 DADC
74
The co-pilot pitot tube in located where? What does it provide?
Located on starboard side of fuselage, supplies airspeed indicator and #2 DADC
75
Where are the static heads located? What do they do?
Located forward and above the pitot tubes. They measure the "still" air pressure
76
How many holes are in a static head? What is special about each hole in the static head?
5 holes, each hole is a separate supply line for the air measurement system.
77
When selected, the static head provides static pressure to the pilot's:
Air speed indicator Vertical speed indicator #1 Air data computer Standby barometric altimeter
78
When selected, the static heads provide static pressure to the co-pilot's:
Air speed indicator Vertical speed indicator #2 Air data computer
79
Which static ports can the pilot choose between?
Pilot static or alternate static port
80
Which static ports can the co-pilot choose between?
Co-pilot static or alternate static port
81
Where is the Stall Warning Transducer located, what does it do?
One of the leading edge of each wing & measures the angle of attack.
82
What feature of the stall warning systems alerts pilot of an impending stall? How does the system recognize this?
Stick shaker Recognizes an impending stall from lift transducer communicating the angle of attack to computers. Computer then combines this info with flap position and internally-generated accelerometer inputs to arrive at predetermined stall speed warning threshold.
83
Review Questions What is the TRU and what does it do?
Converts AC to DC power Ensures DC power available even if both DC generators fail Both can run off one generator through cross-feed bus (max 200 amps)
84
Review Questions What is the APU and what does it do?
Produces 115V 400Hz AC power (var freq) Cannot start engines Provides AC power to the TRUs which power all buses
85
Describe the AC generators
``` Do not work until props are unfeathered Produce 3 phase 115V var freq AC power Each phase output powers different bus Var freq AC used to power Connected to prop gearbox on each engine: TRU, Anti-icing equipment, Standby aux fuel pumps. ```
86
Review Questions How many exits are on the CT 142? Where are they located?
4 Main airstair door Port emergency exit Starboard emergency exit flight compartment escape hatch
87
Review Questions Can the cargo door be opened from the inside?
No
88
Review Questions What type of braking system is used on the CT-`142?
Disc brakes with anti-skid
89
Review Questions What are the crosswind and tailwind limits?
Cross: 36 kts Tail: 10 kts
90
Review Questions What is the maximum ramp weight for the CT 142
34 700 lbs
91
Review Questions Why is there a warning to not enter the main landing gear area without the pins installed?
If someone inadvertently applies power to the system, the doors may snap shut. This may also occur if the #2 prop in wind milling
92
Review Questions What are the minimum runway lengths for emergency stopping and re-takeoff?
1500ft (with 2 engines) / 1800 ft (with 1 engine) / 3000 ft

Aircraft Systems (19 decks)

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