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Aircraft Systems > AS 04 & 05 - Aircraft General > Flashcards

AS 04 & 05 - Aircraft General Flashcards

1
Q

Review Questions

What type of engine does the CT-142 use?

A

PW 120A

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2
Q

Review Questions

What is the SHP of a PW 120A?

A

1800 SHP which can up trim to 2000 SHP in the event of an engine failure.

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3
Q

What is the certified ceiling and max operating speed of the CT 142?

A

Ceiling: 25 000’

Max operating speed: 242 KIAS from sea level to 14 000’

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3
Q

What is the certified ceiling and max operating speed of the CT 142?

A

Ceiling: 25 000’
Max operating speed: 242 KIAS from sea level to 14 000’
Speed decreases linearly to max speed of 207 KIAS at 25 000’

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4
Q

What are the runway wind limits of the CT-142?

A

Crosswind: 36 kts (assuming hard dry surface, min rwy width of 100’)
Tailwind: 10 kts (up to 20 kts per AFM supplement 6.3.1)

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5
Q

What are the emergency stopping and re-takeoff lengths of the CT-142?

A

Emergency stopping: 1500’ with 2 engines, 1800’ with 1 engine.
Re-takeoff: 3000’

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6
Q

What are the dimensions of the CT-142?

A

24.5’ high
77.6’ long
85’ wingspan

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7
Q

Aircraft Weights (in lbs)

AC basic weight (+/- 250 lbs): 
Galley equipment and pubs: 65
Crew (8 @ 215 lbs each): 1720
Empty tank weight:
Max empty tank weight: 31 000
Max ramp weight:
Max T/O weight: 34500
Max landing weight:
A 
AC basic weight: 25 750
Galley equipment and pubs: 65
Crew (8 @ 215 lbs each): 1720
Empty tank weight: 27 535 
Max empty tank weight: 31 000
Max ramp weight: 34 700
Max T/O weight: 34 500
Max landing weight: 33 900
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8
Q

Useable Fuel (in lbs)

Main tanks: 5678
Auxiliary tanks:
Total useable fuel:
Max fuel with 8 crew:

A

Main tanks: 5678
Auxiliary tanks: 4566
Total useable fuel: 10 244
Max fuel with 8 crew: 6514

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9
Q

How many exits does the CT-142 have, where are they?

A 
4
Air stair door
Mid cabin (port) emergency exit
Forward cabin (starboard) emergency exirt
Flight compartment escape hatch
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10
Q

Which emergency exit is surrounded by a rubber seal charged by a pneumatic de-icing system?

A

The air stair door

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11
Q

What does the landing gear consist of?

A

A tricycle-style, dual wheel configuration.

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12
Q

Where does the landing gear retract?

A

Nose: retracts forward into fuselage

Main (read two): aft into the nacelles

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13
Q

What type of brakes does the main gear have?

A

Disc brakes with anti-skid and emergency/ parking brake systems.

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14
Q

If the pin flags are not installed, where mustn’t you be near?

A

The main gear door, the doors may close if power is applied to system of propellers windmill.

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15
Q

Normal navigation details will have what crew make-up and size?

A

2 pilots, 2 nav instructors and 4 nav students

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16
Q

True of false

The CT-142 can have a total of 12 crew members.

A

True, it requires the use of a flight engineer, flight attendant’s seat and the crew rest area.

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17
Q

Each wing on the CT-142 has what configuration of fuel components?

A

From wing tip towards fuselage: Surge bay, Left main, Collector bay and Left auxiliary

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18
Q

Explain the movement of fuel from each bay.

A

Pumps direct fuel from main bay to collector bay, overflow from collector bay goes back into main.

Auxiliary bays pump fuel into main bay, cannot go directly to C bay or across into the opposite wings

The surge bay provides positive tank venting. Fuel from surge bay is returned to the main tank from a ram air pressure system.

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19
Q

How are fuel imbalances dealt with?

A

Fuel is pumped from one main tank to the other: Main tanks can have 600 lbs of fuel imbalance.

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20
Q

Whats the maximum fuel imbalance for the Aux tanks?

A

1500 lbs.

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21
Q

Where is the refueling/ defueling control panel located?

A

Aft of the No. 2 nacelle

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22
Q

What is the preferred, secondary and tertiary fuels of the Dash 8?

A

Preferred: F-37 (JP-8 + 100)
Secondary: F-34 (US Mil Desig JP-8)
F-35 (Jet-A1)
Tertiary: F-44 (US Mil Desig JP-5)

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23
Q

What are the three separate hydraulic systems?

A

No. 1 engine driven
No. 2 engine driven
Emergency hand driven system

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24
Q

Which engine driven hydraulic systems are backed up by an electronically driven standby pump?

A

No. 1 and No. 2

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25
Q

True of false

Each of the three separate system has an emergency shutoff valve and hydraulic quantity indicator.

A

True

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26
Q

Which engines powers which hydraulic system?

A

The port engine powers the No. 1

The starboard powers the No. 2

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27
Q

Assign each system component to the correct hydraulic system:

Main Wheel Brakes
Nose Wheel steering
Landing gear
Rudder actuator (lower)
Wing flaps
Outboard roll spoilers
Rudder actuator (upper)
Emergency/ park brake
Inboard roll spoilers
Anti-skid control valve
A 
No 1 (WAIRM)
Wing flaps
Anti-skid control valve
Inboard roll spoilers
Rudder actuator (lower)
Main wheel brakes
No. 2 (LONER)
Landing gear
Outboard roll spoilers
Nose wheel steering
Emergency/ park brake
Rudder actuator (upper)
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28
Q

If both engine driven and electrical systems fail, how can the main landing gear be lowered?

A

By using the emergency system hydraulic hand pump located in the cockpit.

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29
Q

If the emergency system hydraulic hand pump system is used, does the main landing gear have to be lowered entirely by the hand pump?

A

No, it will fall to a partially extended position. The handpump will extend them to the locked position.

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30
Q

How does the nose gear free fall if the engine and electrical driven systems have failed?

A

With the aid of the slipstream

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31
Q

What does the Power Transfer Unit do?

A

In the event of a #2 engine failure, it assists the #2 standby pump in raising of the landing gear.
When activated, #1 hydraulic system pressure provides power to the PTU hydraulic motor through mechanical connection, which drives the PTU pump and uses #2’s hydraulic pressure and gear for retraction/ extension.

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32
Q

What does the PTU provide power to?

A

Just the main gear, not the entire #2 system.

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33
Q

Is the PTU activated manually or automatically?

A

Both, automatically activated by the engine oil pressure switch and by a landing gear up selection.

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34
Q

How long should continuous operation of the PTU be limited to?

A

5 mins

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35
Q

How frequently is the PTU tested?

A

Tested on the first flight of each day during the Pre-taxi Check. You know its working if you hear a loud clunk.

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36
Q

True or false

Hydraulic fluid, or SKYDROL, is considered a relatively safe aviation material.

A

False, it is highly irritant to skin, eyes and respiratory tract. Also carcinogenic.

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37
Q

Explain the Bleed Air System and its uses.

A

Ari is bled from the engine compressors and used in:

Air conditioning
Pressurization
Pneumatic de-icing

38
Q

How does the air conditioning work? What does it provide?

A

Two engine bleeds join into a single duct downstream to the AC unit in the aft fuselage.
Provides temperature control, heating & cooling
Provides ventilation and pressurization: pressurization is accomplished by limiting the escape of air by means of out flow valves.

39
Q

Once the engines are running, which parts of the AC are sealed?

A

The flight compartment, cabin, cargo compartment and underfloor.

40
Q

How long after landing will the AC de-pressurize?

A

1 minute

41
Q

What is the AC pressurized to in feet?

A

25 000ft

42
Q

How is de-icing is accomplished?

A

De-icing is accomplished by feeding air into a series of inflatable rubber boots on the leading edges of the air frame.

43
Q

Bleed air is used to de-ice the leading edges of the:

A

wings
nacelle intakes
horizontal stabilizer
vertical stabilizer

44
Q

What makes up the DC electrical system?

A 
DC starter/ generators
DC control/ load monitoring panel
External DC power
Batteries
Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
45
Q

What kind of ground power cart is required for external power?

A

28V 1500 Amp ground power cart

46
Q

What kind of batteries are used in the Dash 8?

A

2 x 24 volt DC batteries in the nose compartment

47
Q

What do the batteries power in a Dash 8?

A

Used for engine and/or APU start.

Also used as a backup emergency power source.

48
Q

Describe the number and purpose of the DC Starter/ Generators

A

One per engine and used as a starter to crank the engine.
Reverts to generators when the engine reaches idle speed.
Produces 28V DC, limited to 300 amps.

49
Q

What does the TRU do?

A

Converts AC to DC power.
Also ensures DC power is available even if DC generators fail
Can run off one generator through cross-feed bus, max 200 amps.

50
Q

What makes up the AC electrical system?

A 
APU
AC generators
AC control/ load monitoring panel
External AC power
Inverters
51
Q

What can the APU provide regarding voltage and frequency? What can it not do?

A

It produces 115V 400Hz variable frequency

It cannot start the engines

52
Q

The APU provides power to what/ for what purpose?

A

Provides AC power for NTS, charging battery and the hydraulic systems

53
Q

Does the APU operate in flight?

A

No, it operates on the ground only

54
Q

True or false

The APU allows the entire AC to be powered though the TRUs.

A

True, it uses the 3 main inverters to do so.

55
Q

When do the AC generators begin to work?

A

Once the props are unfeathered.

56
Q

What do the AC generators produce?

A

3 phase 115V variable frequency AC power

57
Q

What is the variable frequency AC (from the AC generator) used to power?

A

Connected to prop gearbox on each engine: TRU, Anti-icing equipment and standby Aux fuel pumps.

(PPT isnt very clear on this, AS 04-05 slide 44)

58
Q

Where is the AC external hookup located and what is it used for?

A

Right nacelle, used for de-fuelling.

59
Q

How many inverters for the CT 142 have? What are their applications?

A

9 identical inverters broken down as follows:
3 for avionics
3 for search radar
3 for NTS inverters

60
Q

Fill in the following acronyms for DC and AC power sources:

BETS & GEIA

A

B - Batteries x 2
E - External DC
T - TRU x 2
S - Starter/ Generator

G - Generators x 2
E - External AC
I - Inverters x 9
A - APU x 1

61
Q

Provide the voltage of each system component

B - Batteries x 2
E - External DC
T - TRU x 2
S - Starter/ Generator

A

B - Batteries x 2 - 24V DC
E - External DC - 28V DC cart
T - TRU x 2 - converts 115V AC to 28V DC
S - Starter/ Generator - 28V DC

62
Q

Provide the voltage of each system component

G - Generators x 2
E - External AC
I - Inverters x 9
A - APU x 1

A

G - Generators x 2 - 115V AC
E - External AC - 115V AC Cart
I - Inverters x 9 - converts 28V DC to 115V AC
A - APU x 1 115V AC

63
Q

True or false

The CT-142 will incur loss of equipment if one electrical system breaks down.

A

False, many redundant systems and backups prevents this.

64
Q

What do the circuit breakers detect and prevent?

A

CBs detect large current draws, such as short circuits, and prevent fires/ damage to the equipment.

65
Q

What is acceptable regarding a tripped circuit breaker?

A

A one time reset provided that:
The AC is on the ground
There is no recent history of reported defects with the system or related systems.

66
Q

How is DC power supplied to each NTS station?

A

The NTS power switches close the circuits to supply the necessary DC power to the NTS computer, console lights and monitors as required.

67
Q

How do the Nav power switches interact with the NTS computers?

A

They connect/ disconnect the NTS computers to the associated DC bus.

68
Q

How many external lights exist on the CT 142?

A

19

69
Q

Where are the controls for the air craft lighting?

A

Main controls are at the flight attendant’s control panel

Individual controls are at each NTS and crew rest station

70
Q

What passenger information signs are still used in the CT 142?

A

Fasten Seat Belt signs

71
Q

Electric de-icing and Anti-icing is powered by what type of current?

A

Variable frequency AC

72
Q

Electric de-icing and Anti-icing is used on which areas?

this Q mentioned in a review

A 
P - prop blades
P - pitot tubes
P - pilot's side window
S - static ports
S - stall warning transducers
E - engine intakes
E - elevator horns
W - windshields
73
Q

The pilot pitot tube in located where? What does it provide?

A

Located on port side of fuselage, supplies airspeed indicator and #1 DADC

74
Q

The co-pilot pitot tube in located where? What does it provide?

A

Located on starboard side of fuselage, supplies airspeed indicator and #2 DADC

75
Q

Where are the static heads located? What do they do?

A

Located forward and above the pitot tubes. They measure the “still” air pressure

76
Q

How many holes are in a static head? What is special about each hole in the static head?

A

5 holes, each hole is a separate supply line for the air measurement system.

77
Q

When selected, the static head provides static pressure to the pilot’s:

A

Air speed indicator
Vertical speed indicator
#1 Air data computer
Standby barometric altimeter

78
Q

When selected, the static heads provide static pressure to the co-pilot’s:

A

Air speed indicator
Vertical speed indicator
#2 Air data computer

79
Q

Which static ports can the pilot choose between?

A

Pilot static or alternate static port

80
Q

Which static ports can the co-pilot choose between?

A

Co-pilot static or alternate static port

81
Q

Where is the Stall Warning Transducer located, what does it do?

A

One of the leading edge of each wing & measures the angle of attack.

82
Q

What feature of the stall warning systems alerts pilot of an impending stall? How does the system recognize this?

A

Stick shaker
Recognizes an impending stall from lift transducer communicating the angle of attack to computers. Computer then combines this info with flap position and internally-generated accelerometer inputs to arrive at predetermined stall speed warning threshold.

83
Q

Review Questions

What is the TRU and what does it do?

A

Converts AC to DC power
Ensures DC power available even if both DC generators fail
Both can run off one generator through cross-feed bus (max 200 amps)

84
Q

Review Questions

What is the APU and what does it do?

A

Produces 115V 400Hz AC power (var freq)
Cannot start engines
Provides AC power to the TRUs which power all buses

85
Q

Describe the AC generators

A 
Do not work until props are unfeathered
Produce 3 phase 115V var freq AC power
Each phase output powers different bus
Var freq AC used to power
Connected to prop gearbox on each engine: TRU, Anti-icing equipment, Standby aux fuel pumps.
86
Q

Review Questions

How many exits are on the CT 142?

Where are they located?

A

4

Main airstair door
Port emergency exit
Starboard emergency exit
flight compartment escape hatch

87
Q

Review Questions

Can the cargo door be opened from the inside?

A

No

88
Q

Review Questions

What type of braking system is used on the CT-`142?

A

Disc brakes with anti-skid

89
Q

Review Questions

What are the crosswind and tailwind limits?

A

Cross: 36 kts
Tail: 10 kts

90
Q

Review Questions

What is the maximum ramp weight for the CT 142

A

34 700 lbs

91
Q

Review Questions

Why is there a warning to not enter the main landing gear area without the pins installed?

A

If someone inadvertently applies power to the system, the doors may snap shut. This may also occur if the #2 prop in wind milling

92
Q

Review Questions

What are the minimum runway lengths for emergency stopping and re-takeoff?

A

1500ft (with 2 engines) / 1800 ft (with 1 engine) / 3000 ft

Aircraft Systems (19 decks)

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