AREA-1 Flashcards

1
Q

Any physical soil manipulation which changes the structure of the soil, kills weeds, and rearranges dead plant materials.

A

Tillage

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2
Q

Designed to plant seeds continuously in rows with row spacing greater than 36 cm.

A

Row-crop drill planter

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3
Q

Designed to plant one or more seeds or plants in rows and in hills.

A

Hill-drop planter

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4
Q

Planters designed to plant seeds or plants in patterns which do not allow subsequent entry of machinery.

A

Solid planters

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5
Q

A criterion that is well accepted in computing the pump capacity.

A

the crop’s highest daily water requirement

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6
Q

According to the National Irrigation Administration (NIA), the water requirement for rice production is

A

10 mm/day

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7
Q

Placement of a single seed in a hill within the row at a uniform depth and at a uniform environment for germination of each seed.

A

Precision planting

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8
Q

The planting of rice seeds on dry land or on saturated soil without covering the seed with water or mud.

A

Aerobic seeding

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9
Q

Similar to aerobic seeding except that it is carried out on land that has not been puddled.

A

Dryland seeding

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10
Q

Ratio of the grain mass to the mass of non-grain material.

A

Grain/non-grain ratio

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11
Q

The rate at which grain or seed is delivered to the threshing cylinder by the combine header or by the manual feeder in the axial-flow thresher.

A

Grain feed rate

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12
Q

The sum of the non-grain feed rate and the grain feed rate.

A

Total feed rate

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13
Q

Threshed grain or seed that are included in the straw and discharged from the rear of the machine.

A

Walker loss

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14
Q

Unthreshed grain coming out from the straw rack or in the cleaning shoe.

A

Cylinder loss

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15
Q

Threshed seed or grain discharge over the rear of the cleaning shoe.

A

Shoe loss

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16
Q

Consist of unthreshed grains and the panicle materials to which they are attached.

A

Tailings

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17
Q

The optimum range of moisture content of palay for harvesting is

A

21% (dry season) to 24% (rainy season)

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18
Q

The angle between the horizontal diameter of the disk face and the direction of travel and is normally ___ to ____.

A

42 to 45 degrees (disk angle)

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19
Q

The angle that the disk is tilted backwards from the vertical usually at an angle from ___ to ___.

A

15 to 25 degrees (tilt angle)

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20
Q

Reciprocal of the radius of curvature of the disk.

A

Concavity of a disk.

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21
Q

In seeding, the recommended proper placement of the seed and fertilizer in the soil:

A

Depth of placement - 2 to 3 cm from the soil surface.

Soil compaction - soil on top is loose, compact around the seed, and slightly compact at the bottom of the seed.

Fertilizer placement - 5 cm to the side and 5 cm deep.

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22
Q

Seeding or planting placed at the bottom or furrow

A

Furrow planting

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23
Q

Seed or plant placed on flat or level surface

A

Flat planting

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24
Q

One row is planted on the ridge of the furrow.

A

Bed planting

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25
Q

Two or more rows are planted on the broad bed top.

A

Broad bed planting

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26
Q

Employed mostly for front-mounted cultivators where raising and lowering of the gang or tool bar result in equal changes in the depths of all shovels and does not change the pitch of the shovels.

A

Parallel link hitches

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27
Q

Rear-mounted with 4 categories with dimensions corresponding to the different ranges of maximum drawbar power.

A

Three-point hitch converging link type

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28
Q

A type of restrained link system in which the depth is automatically adjusted to maintain a pre-selected, constant draft

A

Automatic draft control

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29
Q

A fixed cost if the machine life is determined by obsolescence or if the machine is assumed to have a life span or fully depreciated before it wears out.

A

Depreciation

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30
Q

Estimated arbitrarily by estimate of years to obsolescence or years to wear out.

A

Machine life

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31
Q

Reflects the prevailing interest rates. The interest cost reflects the opportunities foregone for other financial investment with that money because it has been tied up in the purchase of the machine

A

Interest on investment

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32
Q

Repair cost is estimated as ___% of the initial cost.

A

15

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33
Q

Modern method of leveling land using the straightness and non-spreading properties of laser beam to indicate the elevation of an object relative to a benchmark.

A

Laser leveling

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34
Q

Connected at a single hitch point and pulled by the power unit without any other support from it.

A

Pull-type or trailed implement

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35
Q

Attached to the tractor through a hitch linkage, normally by the standard 3-point hitch and is completely supported by the tractor when in raised position.

A

Mounted implement

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35
Q

Attached to the tractor through a horizontal or nearly horizontal hinge axis and is only partially and never completely supported by the tractor.

A

Semi-mounted implement

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35
Q

Has its own built-in propelling power unit

A

Self-propelled machine

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36
Q

Length of time it takes to recover the investment or until the net benefits equal the investment cost.

A

Payback period (PBP)

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37
Q

Level of operation where the investment neither produces a profit nor incurs a loss.

A

Break-even point (BEP)

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38
Q

The time value of money is taken into consideration through the process called discounting.

A

Discounted measure

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39
Q

Ratio of the present worth of the benefit stream over the present worth of cost stream extending over a period of time usually the life of the machine.

A

Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR). Decision rule is to accept projects with BCR >/= 1.

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40
Q

The difference of the present value of the benefit stream and the present value of the cost stream extending over a period of time usually the life of the machine.

A

Net Present Value (NPV). The decision rule is to accept projects with NPV >/= 0.

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41
Q

The maximum interest rate the project can pay for the use of money if the project is to break-even.

A

Internal Rate of Return (IRR). At this point, the NPV = 0 and BCR = 1. The decision rule that the IRR of the project should be higher than the prevailing interest rate of the bank.

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42
Q

Application, use and management of various agricultural machines, tools and equipment used for production and post- production operations.

A

Agricultural machinery

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43
Q

Machinery and equipment for the production, harvesting, processing, storage, manufacture, transportation and distribution of agricultural and fishery products.

A

Agricultural and fisheries machinery

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44
Q

Utilization of hand tools, implements for draft animals, and mechanically-powered machines for agricultural land development, production, harvesting and on-farm processing.

A

Agricultural mechanization

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45
Q

A 9:1 mixture of unleaded gasoline and alcohol is called as

A

gasohol

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46
Q

A device that collects solar radiant energy and transform it to some other useful form of energy.

A

Solar collector

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47
Q

A device used to convert solar energy directly to electricity.

A

Photovoltaic cell

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48
Q

Amount of solar energy received per unit time on a unit area of surface perpendicular to the radiation and at outer limit of earth atmosphere when the earth is at mean distance from the sun.

A

Solar constant (1353 W/m2)

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49
Q

The solar radiation received by the earth’s atmosphere without having been deflected/intercepted or absorbed by the atmosphere.

A

Direct radiation (1000 W/m2)

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50
Q

With more than 32 hp engine.

A

Standard class tractor

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51
Q

With 32 hp or less engine.

A

Compact class tractor

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52
Q

Transmit power from the flywheel, absorbs impact load, for gradual application of load to engine, permits the change in gear without stopping the engine.

A

Clutch

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53
Q

Supply different speed and direction of travel, supply the needed torque for different work applications.

A

Gear box

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54
Q

Supply different speeds for ground wheels when turning. It also functions as second speed reduction point in the power train.

A

Differential

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55
Q

Used to reduce the speed or stop the tractor

A

Brake system

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56
Q

Provides space in w/c the piston operates.

A

Cylinder and cylinder block

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57
Q

Provides pocket or space above the cylinder and piston known as combustion chamber.

A

Cylinder head

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58
Q

A device that is used to draw in fuel, compress, and receive the power impulse of the expanding gas.

A

Piston and piston rings

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59
Q

Are used to retain compression and reduce wall contact to a minimum.

A

Piston rings.

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60
Q

Tubular steel w/c attaches the piston to the upper end of the connecting rod.

A

Piston pin

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61
Q

Transmit the power received from the piston to the crankshaft.

A

Connecting rod

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62
Q

Receives the power from the connecting rod and transforms the reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion.

A

Crankshaft

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63
Q

Acts as balance wheel to make the engine turn evenly.

A

Flywheel

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64
Q

Supports and encloses the crankshaft and camshaft and provides a reservoir for lubricating oil.

A

Crankcase

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65
Q

Provides the engine with openings or gates for the entry of fresh fuel and air, exhaust of the products of combustion.

A

Valve system

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66
Q

Provides for uninterrupted supply of clean and combustible mixture of fuel and air.

A

Fuel supply system

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67
Q

Provides for the supply of low and high voltage electricity needed to operate the spark plugs and produce combustion.

A

Ignition and electrical system

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68
Q

Maintains engine’s operating temperature, it also assists in the rapid engine warm up.

A

Cooling system

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69
Q

Reduce friction and wear on moving engine parts.

A

Lubricating system

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70
Q

Maintains engine speed and power at any operating condition.

A

Governing system

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71
Q

Mixture of fuel when the air is more than what is desired.

A

Lean mixture (ex. 18:1)

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72
Q

Mixture of fuel when air is less than what is desired.

A

Rich mixture (ex. 10:1)

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73
Q

Anti-knock quality of gasoline determined by comparing it with standard reference fuel.

A

Octane rating. (Isooctane + heptane)

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74
Q

Ignition quality of diesel fuel determined by comparing it with standard reference fuel.

A

Cetane rating (cetane + aphamethylnapthalene)

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75
Q

A device added to the exhaust system to reduce hydrocarbon and carbon monoxide pollutants in the exhaust gas.

A

Catalytic converter

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76
Q

A device that forces more air or fuel mixture into the cylinder than would be drawn under normal condition, thus increasing the volumetric efficiency and power output of the engine.

A

Turbocharger/supercharger

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77
Q

Seek to limit the vehicle’s toxic gas in hope to attain a cleaner, breathable air.

A

Euro emission standard

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78
Q

A type of cell that is when fully discharged or dead, can only be restored to its original condition by renewing the materials that had been so changed.

A

Primary cell

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79
Q

A type of cell that can be restored to its original condition by sending and electric current through it in the direction opposite to that of discharge.

A

Secondary cell

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80
Q

A type of battery commonly used on tractors.

A

Lead acid battery (2 volts/cell. 2.2 volts max’m)

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81
Q

Solution used on lead acid batteries. It consists of 2 parts sulfuric acid.

A

Electrolyte

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82
Q

Most common type of battery trouble. It is the formation of lead sulfate at the bottom of the container due to delayed charging.

A

Sulfation

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83
Q

Ignition voltage requirement.

A

25,000 to 40,000 volts

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84
Q

A type of spark plug used on high compression, high speed engines with short heat path for quick heat dissipation.

A

Cold plug

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85
Q

A device connected to the ignition that eliminates arcing of the breaker points.

A

Condenser/capacitor

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86
Q

A device necessary in multi-cylinder ignition system to distribute the secondary voltage to each spark plug.

A

Distributor

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87
Q

A heat sensitive device installed along the flow of coolant. It restricts the flow of coolant depending on water temperature.

A

Thermostat

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88
Q

A semi solid or non-flowing lubricant used on wheel bearings, universal joints, and shackles.

A

Grease

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89
Q

Relatively thin, free flowing oil for engines.

A

Motor oil

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90
Q

Heavier, high viscosity oil for transmission gears and bearings.

A

Gear oil

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91
Q

Most important quality of lubricating oil

A

Viscosity

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92
Q

Viscosity number for lubricating oils.

A

SAE (Society of Automotive Engineers)

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93
Q

Oils with viscosity classification numbers for winter and summer use.

A

Multi-grade oil (SAE 15W-40)

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94
Q

API stands for?

A

American Petroleum Institute

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95
Q

ASTM stands for?

A

American Society for Testing Materials

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96
Q

Oil classification to provide specific quality of oil for different types of engines, various conditions under which engines are operated, and kind and quality of fuel used.

A

API Engine Oil Service Classification

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97
Q

Chemicals added to oil that improve its lubricating properties.

A

Oil additives

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98
Q

Non-naturally occurring product made by chemical reaction of two or more simpler chemical compounds.

A

Synthetic lubricant

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99
Q

The uneven or irregular speed of the engine caused by the governor, quick speed and sudden drop in engine speed.

A

Governor Hunting

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100
Q

The mechanical injection of each fuel charge into the hot compressed air.

A

Direct or solid injection

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101
Q

Used on modern high speed automotive diesel engines

A

CRDI (Common rail direct injection)

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102
Q

Cold weather starting aid. Electrically operated heater placed in the intake manifold or pre-combustion chamber.

A

Glow plugs

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103
Q

Sum of incremental elongation

A

True Strain

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104
Q

Property of the material that enables it to resist permanent deformation, penetration, indenction.

A

Hardness

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105
Q

Property of a material that enables it to be drawn out or elongated to an appreciable extent before rupture occurs.

A

Ductility

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106
Q

Special case of ductility where it can be rolled into thin sheets.

A

Malleability

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107
Q

Opposite of ductility. Little deformation before fracture and failure suddenly occurs without any warning.

A

Brittleness

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108
Q

Property of a material that enables it to resist shock and impact by storing energy.

A

Resilience

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109
Q

Capacity of a material to absorb energy without fracture.

A

Toughness

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110
Q

When a member is subjected to a constant load over a long period of time it undergoes a slow permanent deformation, and this is termed as?

A

Creep

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111
Q

Practice of planting short-term annual crop with long-term annual or biennial crop.

a. Inter-planting
b. Inter-cropping
c. Inter-culture
d. AOTA

A

a. Inter-planting

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112
Q

Practice of growing more than one crop on the same land in one year.

a. Mixed crop
b. Multiple cropping
c. Inter-cropping
d. NOTA

A

b. Multiple cropping

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113
Q

Practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously and intermingled with no row arrangement.

a. Mixed cropping
b. Inter cropping
c. Multiple cropping
d. NOTA

A

a. Mixed cropping

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114
Q

Practice of growing two or more crops in alternate rows.

a. Inter-planting
b. Inter-cropping
c. Inter-culture
d. AOTA

A

b. Inter-cropping

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115
Q

Practice of cultivating one crop underneath a perennial crop.

a. Inter-planting
b. Inter-cropping
c. Inter-culture
d. AOTA

A

c. Inter-culture

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116
Q

Mechanical manipulation of soil for any desired purpose

a. Land grading
b. Tillage
c. Earth moving
d. NOTA

A

b. Tillage

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117
Q

General fragmentation of soil mass resulting from the action of tillage forces.

a. Soil reaction
b. Soil shatter
c. Soil sliding
d. NOTA

A

b. Soil shatter

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118
Q

Which of the following is not basic to tillage operation?

a. Reduction of volume of the soil
b. Cutting of soil
c. Deformation of soil mass
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

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119
Q

Operation that constitutes the initial major soil working operation.

a. Primary tillage
b. Secondary tillage
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

a. Primary tillage

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120
Q

Operation intended to create refined soil conditions.

a. Primary tillage
b. Secondary tillage
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

b. Secondary tillage

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121
Q

Primary tillage operation includes:

a. pulverizing
b. mulching
c. plowing
d. AOTA

A

c. plowing

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122
Q

Secondary tillage operation includes:

a. listing
b. subsoiling
c. harrowing
d. AOTA

A

c. harrowing

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123
Q

Tillage operation traditionally performed in preparing seedbeds for a given crop commonly grown in a given geographical area.

a. Conventional tillage
b. Conservation tillage
c. Strip tillage
d. NOTA

A

a. Conventional tillage

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124
Q

Primary tillage operation that manipulates the soil to a depth greater than 300 mm.

a. Reservoir tillage
b. Deep tillage
c. Ridge tillage
d. NOTA

A

b. Deep tillage

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125
Q

Minimum soil manipulation necessary for crop production or for meeting tillage requirements under existing soil condition.

a. No-tillage planting
b. mulch tillage
c. minimum tillage
d. NOTA

A

c. minimum tillage

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126
Q

Tillage or soil preparation in which plant residues are specifically left on or near the surface.

a. Strip tillage
b. Mulch tillage
c. Optimum tillage
d. NOTA

A

b. mulch tillage

127
Q

Tillage system that operates with fewer or lesser energy compared with that of the conventional tillage.

a. minimum tillage
b. no-till tillage
c. reduce tillage
d. AOTA

A

c. reduce tillage

128
Q

When 30% or less of the soil surface is tilled, the tillage operation employed is _____.

a. minimum tillage
b. strip tillage
c. ridge tillage
d. AOTA

A

b. strip tillage

129
Q

Which of the following affects the energy requirement in tillage operation?

a. type and condition of the soil
b. shape, working depth and speed of the tool
c. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

c. AOTA

130
Q

Equipment, which displaces and shatters soil, used to reduce soil strength and to bury or mix plant materials and fertilizes in the tilled layer.

a. Primary tillage equipment
b. Secondary tillage equipment
c. Seeding and planting equipment
d. NOTA

A

a. Primary tillage equipment

131
Q

Pushing or rolling of soil by a steeply inclined blade.

a. Bulldozing
b. Chiseling
c. Subsoiling
d. NOTA

A

a. Bulldozing

132
Q

Soil-tool reaction in which soil slides along the surface of the tillage tool without significant adhesion.

a. Sliding
b. Scouring
c. Soil cutting
d. NOTA

A

c. Scouring

133
Q

Primary or secondary tillage implement used for broadcast or for strip tillage and also used as a chemical incorporator prior to planning.

a. roller tiller
b. roller harrow
c. packer
d. none of the above.

A

a. roller tiller

134
Q

Secondary tillage implement consisting of one or two in-line gang rollers used for crushing soil clods and for compacting the soil.

a. roller tiller
b. packer
c. roller harrow
d. NOTA

A

c. Packer

135
Q

Tillage and land-forming operation using a tool that splits the soil and turns two furrows laterally in opposite directions, thereby providing a ridge-and-furrow soil configuration.

a. listing
b. harrowing
c. chiseling
d. NOTA

A

a. listing

136
Q

Secondary tillage operation which pulverizes, smoothens and packs the soil during seedbed preparation and also controls weeds.

a. Harrowing
b. Listing
c. Chiseling
d. NOTA

A

a. Harrowing

137
Q

Deep chiseling, below 16 inches, for the purpose of loosening the soil for root growth and/or for water movement.

a. ridging
b. chiseling
c. subsoiling
d. NOTA

A

c. subsoiling

138
Q

Secondary tillage implement used to stir the soil using multiple number of disk blades arranged on a gang.

a. Spike-tooth harrow
b. Disk harrow
c. Disk plow
d. NOTA

A

b. Disk harrow

139
Q

Tillage implement which shatters the soil without complete burial or mixing of surface materials.

a. Chisel plow
b. lister plow
c. disk plow
d. NOTA

A

a. Chisel plow

140
Q

Primary tillage equipment used for small rice fields.

a. moldboard
b. rotary
c. spiral
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

141
Q

Tillage implement consisting of two or four gangs of concave disks.

a. Disk plow
b. Disk harrow
c. Cultivator
d. NOTA

A

b. disk harrow

142
Q

Primary-tillage plow for rice farming that is attached to the power tiller as a replacement for the cage wheel.

a. rotary
b. spiral
c. disk
d. AOTA

A

b. Spiral

143
Q

Tool that cuts plant materials and soil ahead of another tool.

a. Coulter
b. Jointer
c. Injector
d. two of the above.

A

d. Two of the above (Coulter and Jointer)

144
Q

Power requirement of a rotary tiller for primary tillage.

a. 50 kW/m
b. 30 kW/m
c. 70 kW/m
d. AOTA

A

b. 30 kW/m

145
Q

When a material is to be inserted into the soil, the tillage use is _____.

a. jointer
b. coulter
c. injector
d. AOTA

A

c. injector

146
Q

Machine designed for use with small plow or harrow.

a. Puddling-type floating tiller
b. power tiller
c. Hydro tiller
d. AOTA

A

b. Power tiller

147
Q

Secondary tillage implement used to stir the soil using multiple number of disk blades arranged on a gang.

a. Spike tooth harrow
b. Disk harrow
c. two of the above
d. NOTA

A

b. Disk harrow

148
Q

Hand-operated tractor, which is suitable for both primary and secondary tillage, used when the field has been soaked for at least half a day to soften the soil.

a. Power tiller
b. Puddling-type floating tiller
c. Reaper
d. NOTA

A

b. Puddling-type floating tiller

149
Q

Optimum puddler speed for puddling-type floating tiller is _____.

a. 100-150 rpm
b. 200-250 rpm
c. 300-350 rpm
d. NOTA

A

b. 200-250 rpm

150
Q

Tillage implement resembling a double moldboard used to make ridges and beds for planting and trenches for irrigation and drainage purposes.

a. Excavator
b. Trencher
c. Furrower
d. AOTA

A

c. Furrower

151
Q

Special type walking-tractor with front-mounted tilling wheel and equipped with a floatation structure commonly used in tilling water-logged areas.

a. Float-assisted tiller
b. Puddling-type floating tiller
c. Hydro tiller
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

152
Q

Device consisting of a single or a pair of wheels with radially-mounted tilling blades attached to a common shaft and supported and powered by the transmission drive of a float-assisted tiller.

a. Drive wheel
b. Tilling wheel
c. Tines
d. AOTA

A

b. Tilling wheel

153
Q

Minimum peak transmission efficiency for power tillers.

a. 75%
b. 85%
c. 95%
d. NOTA

A

b. 85%

154
Q

The size of the bottom of a furrower is measured from ______.

a. the distance between the plow bottoms.
b. the left and to the right wing of the share of the plow bottom
c. the height of the share tip to the highest tip of the moldboard

A

b. the left and to the right wing of the share of the plow bottom

155
Q

Trench left when the plow bottom cuts and turns the furrow slice.

a. furrow
b. furrow crown
c. furrow depth
d. NOTA

A

a. furrow

156
Q

Unbroken side of the furrow is called _____.

a. dead furrow
b. furrow wall
c. back furrow
d. NOTA

A

b. furrow wall

157
Q

Raise ridge left at the center of the strip of land when plowing is started from center to side.

a. Back furrow
b. Dead furrow
c. Furrow crown
d. NOTA

A

a. Back furrow

158
Q

Open trench left between the adjacent strips of land after plowing.

a. Furrow crown
b. Furrow depth
c. Dead furrow
d. None of the above

A

c. Dead furrow

159
Q

Depth of plowing for common paddy field.

A

10 to 15 cm

160
Q

Depth of cultivated topsoil layer big practiced in modern upland farming

A

20 cm to 30 cm

161
Q

In paddy field plowing operation using a four wheel tractor, which of the following is true:
a. Smaller plots are much efficient to plow than larger plots.
b. Larger plots are much efficient to plow than smaller plots.
c. Smaller or larger plots have the same plowing efficiency.
d. None of the above

A

b. Larger plots are much efficient to plow than smaller plots.

162
Q

It is a wheel-less cultivator that is used for domestic gardening.

A

Motor tiller

163
Q

It is the percentage ratio of the time a machine is effectively operating to the total time the machine is committed to the operation.

A

Time efficiency

164
Q

Machine performance is determined by _____________

A

the rate and quality at which the operations are accomplished

165
Q

The rate of machine performance is usually expressed in terms of _______.

A

quantity per unit time

166
Q

It is the time spent by the machine in the field to replace or renew parts that have become inoperative

A

Repair time

167
Q

It is the time used in refueling, lubricating, tightening of chain, etc of the machine.

A

Maintenance time

168
Q

Which of the following statement is true?
a. Theoretical field capacity is less than effective field capacity.
b. Effective field capacity is more than effective field capacity.
c. Theoretical field capacity is equal to the effective field capacity.
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

169
Q

Which of the following statement is true?
a. Field efficiency decreases with the increase in theoretical field capacity.
b. Field efficiency decreases with the increase in effective field capacity.
c. Field efficiency does not increase with the increase in theoretical field
capacity.
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

170
Q

It is the radius of the circle within which the implement can make its shortest run in the field.

A

Turning radius

171
Q

It is the travel of the machine across or around a field from a selected starting point adjacent to the first.

A

Round

172
Q

One half of the travel from one end of the field to the other.

A

Trip

173
Q

It describes the practice of dividing the field into sub-areas and operating on these sub-areas individually.

A

Operating in lands

174
Q

__________ unprocessed area that provide room for making turns.

A

Turn strips

175
Q
A
176
Q

Field operating pattern where it has a trips that parallel with each other, are
incremented successively by the operating width of the implement, and initiated at
one boundary and terminated at the opposite.

A

Headland pattern

177
Q

It describes the operation of the implement operation paralleling each land’s
boundaries and is commonly describes as “going around the field.”

A

Circuitous pattern

178
Q

It is sometimes used in processing established row crops and a modification of
continuous pattern.

A

Alternation pattern

179
Q

Pattern efficiency of headland pattern in a square field.

A

93.0%

180
Q

Which of the following is not a source of energy for farming?
a. Solar energy
b. Wind energy
c. Biomass energy
d. All of the
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

181
Q

A conventional source of energy.
a. Human power
b. Draft Animal
c. Fossil fuel
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

182
Q

A non-conventional sources of energy
a. Biomass
b. Solar
c. Wind
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

183
Q

A steam engine is an example of ______________.

A

an external combustion engine

184
Q

A constant volume cycle engine

A

Gasoline engine

185
Q

A constant pressure cycle

A

Diesel engine

186
Q

A fuel commonly used for external combustion engine.

A

Biomass

187
Q

An internal combustion engine that produces two power stroke in two revolution
of the crankshaft.

A

Two-stroke cycle engine

188
Q

Fuel used for constant volume cycle internal combustion engine.

A

Gasoline

189
Q

Fuel used for constant pressure cycle internal combustion engine

A

Diesel

190
Q

How many fuel injection pump are there in 4 cylinder four stroke cycle diesel
engine?

A

1

191
Q

How many fuel injection pump are there in 4 cylinder four stroke cycle gasoline
engine?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

192
Q

Which of the following do belong to crop maintenance equipment?
a. Plow and harrow
b. Weeder
c. Sprayer
d. All of the above

A

a. Plow and harrow

193
Q

Compression ring is usually located ____________ .

A

on top of the oil ring

194
Q

Engine piston displacement will increase if the ____________ .
a. piston diameter is increased
b. piston stroke is increased
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

c. All of the above

195
Q

Increasing the engine clearance volume will _____________ .
a. increase the compression ratio
b. decrease the compression ratio
c. have the same compression ratio
d. None of the above

A

b. decrease the compression ratio

196
Q

A 16-valve diesel engine usually have ___________ .
a. a single-piston cylinders
b. a six-piston cylinders
c. an eight-piston cylinders
d. None of the above

A

c. an eight-piston cylinders

197
Q

Ignition of fuel in a gasoline fuel engine usually starts when the piston is
__________ .
a. at the top dead center
b. moving downward the bottom dead center
c. approaching the top dead center
d. None of the above

A

c. approaching the top dead center

198
Q

At the downward stroke of a two-stroke cycle gasoline engine, which of the
following events takes place?
a. Power, Exhaust, and Intake
b. Compression, Exhaust, and Power
c. Compression, Power, and Intake

A

Power, Exhaust, and Intake

199
Q

Compression pressure for small gasoline engine.
a. 40 to 70 psi
b. 75 to 125 psi
c. 150 to 410 psi
d. None of the above

A

75 to 125 psi

200
Q

A process of providing the engine with additional amount of air and fuel using a
small turbine propelled by engine exhaust gas to increase power by about 30%.
a. Turbo charging
b. Supercharging
c. Air and fuel injecting
d. None of the above

A

Turbo charging

201
Q

Which of the following engine requires frequent maintenance?
a. Compression ignition engine
b. Spark-ignition engine
c. Air cooled compression ignition engine
d. All of the above

A

Spark-ignition engine

202
Q

The direction of a crawler-type tractor can be maneuvered by __________
a. stopping the engine
b. stopping one of its wheels
c. using the stirring wheel
d. None of the above

A

stopping one of its wheels

203
Q

A crawler-type tractor of the same weight provides __________ soil compacting
pressure than wheel type tractor.
a. higher
b. lower
c. the same
d. None of the above

A

lower

204
Q

Turbo charging tractor engine will increase the power output approximately by
_____ .
a. 10 – 20 %
b. 20 - 30 %
c. 30 – 40 %
d. None of the above

A

20 - 30 %

205
Q

Power implements are usually connected to the ________ of the tractor.
a. wheel axle drive
b. power take-off drive
c. front wheel drive
d. None of the above

A

b. power take-off drive

206
Q

Integral mounted implement are usually attached to the tractor through a ______.
a. single point hitch system of the tractor
b. double-hitch system of the tractor
c. three-point hitch system of the tractor
d. None of the above

A

c. three-point hitch system of the tractor

207
Q

A semi-integral mounted type implements are usually attached to the tractor
through a _________ .
a. single point hitch system of the tractor
b. double-hitch system of the tractor
c. three-point hitch system of the tractor
d. None of the above

A

c. three-point hitch system of the tractor

208
Q

A trailing-type implements are usually attached to the tractor through a
_________ .
a. single point hitch system of the tractor
b. double-hitch system of the tractor
c. three-point hitch system of the tractor
d. None of the above

A

single point hitch system of the tractor

209
Q

Seed produced by the Seed Production and Health Division form UP ad certified
100% pure by the Seed Quality Control Services of the Bureau of Plant Industry.
a. Certified Seeds
b. Registered Seeds
c. Foundation Seeds
d. Breeder Seeds
e. None of the above

A

Breeder Seeds

210
Q

Seed produced from breeder seeds and distributed to all members of the Seed Net
and selected seed producers in every province for further multiplication.
a. Certified Seeds
b. Registered Seeds
c. Foundation Seeds
d. Breeder Seeds
e. None of the above

A

Foundation Seeds

211
Q

Seed produced from Foundation Seed and being distributed to all accredited seed
producers for mass production.
a. Certified Seeds
b. Registered Seeds
c. Foundation Seeds
d. Breeder Seeds
e. None of the above

A

b. Registered Seeds

212
Q

Seed produced from the Registered Seed by accredited seed producers and
distributed to farmers for commercial production.
a. Certified Seeds
b. Registered Seeds
c. Foundation Seeds
d. Breeder Seeds
e. None of the above

A

a. Certified Seeds

213
Q

Machine operation in which there are two or more machines performing their own
respective operation in sequence.
a. Individual operation
b. Parallel operation
c. Series operation
d. None of the above

A

c. Series operation

214
Q

Machine operation in which one or more similar machines are operated as one
unit.
a. Individual operation
b. Parallel operation
c. Series operation
d. None of the above

A

a. Individual operation

215
Q

It is the amount paid for hiring equipment and operator services to perform a
certain task.
a. Machine fixed cost
b. Machine variable cost
c. Machine custom cost
d. None of the above

A

c. Machine custom cost

216
Q

It is the useful service life of the machine before it becomes unprofitable for its
original purpose due to obsolescence or wear.
a. Machine economic life
b. Machine life span
c. Machine service life
d. None of the above

A

a. Machine economic life

217
Q

A kilogram fuel consumed by an engine per hr per amount of brake power is the
_______.
a. fuel consumption rate
b. specific fuel consumption rate
c. specific fuel
d. None of the above

A

b. specific fuel consumption rate

218
Q

A tractor type designed for operation with advantage under trees.
a. Standard tractor
b. All-purpose row crop tractor
c. Orchard tractor
d. All of the above

A

c. Orchard tractor

219
Q

Tractor size is determined by _______________________.
a. weight, horsepower, and size and number of wheels
b. implement capacity, weight, and size and number of wheels
c. weight, horsepower, and implement capacity
d. All of the above

A

c. weight, horsepower, and implement capacity

220
Q

Which of the following is not driven by PTO shaft?
a. Rotary tiller
b. Power harrow
c. Moldboard plow
d. All of the above

A

c. Moldboard plow

221
Q

A three-bottom disc plow is to be connected to a tractor, what tractor hitch system
would your recommend for the plow?
a. Drawn bar hitch type
b. Semi-mounted type
c. Direct mounted type
d. None of the above

A

c. Direct mounted type

222
Q

It is a circular flat tool placed ahead of a plow used to cut plant material and soil.
a. Jointer
b. Pinion plow
c. Coulter
d. None of the above

A

c. Coulter

223
Q

It is the minimum vertical distance between the soil surface and a potentially
obstructing machine element.
a. Vertical clearance
b. Machine height
c. Ground clearance
d. All of the above

A

c. Ground clearance

224
Q

Angle in vertical plane perpendicular to the direction of travel between the tool
axis and the soil surface.
a. Tilt angle
b. Side angle
c. Lift angle
d. None of the above

A

a. Tilt angle

225
Q

Angle in the soil surface plane perpendicular to the direction of travel between the
tool axis and the line which is perpendicular to the direction of travel.
a. Tilt angle
b. Side angle
c. Lift angle
d. None of the above

A

b. Side angle

226
Q

Angle in vertical plane parallel to the direction of travel between a tool axis and
the soil surface.
a. Tilt angle
b. Side angle
c. Lift angle
d. None of the above

A

c. Lift angle

227
Q

A trench left when the plow bottom cuts and turns the furrow slice.
a. Back furrow
b. Dead furrow
c. Furrow
d. All of the above

A

c. Furrow

228
Q

A raised ridge left at the center of the strip of land when plowing started center to
center.
a. Back furrow
b. Dead furrow
c. Furrow
d. All of the above

A

a. Back furrow

229
Q

An open trench left between the adjacent strips of land after finishing the plowing
operation.
a. Back furrow
b. Dead furrow
c. Furrow
d. All of the above

A

b. Dead furrow

230
Q

It is the peak of the turned furrow slice.
a. Furrow crown
b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow wall
d. None of the above

A

a. Furrow crown

231
Q

A soil mass cut, lifted , pulverized, inverted, and thrown to one side of the plow
bottom.
a. Furrow crown
b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow wall
d. None of the above

A

b. Furrow slice

232
Q

It is the undisturbed or broken side of the furrow.
a. Furrow crown
b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow wall
d. None of the above

A

c. Furrow wall

233
Q

It refers to the arrangement of soil particles in the soil layer.
a. Soil texture
b. Soil structure
c. Soil moisture
d. All of the above

A

b. Soil structure

234
Q

It refers to the relative proportion of the soil separates in a given soil.
a. Soil texture
b. Soil structure
c. Soil moisture
d. All of the above

A

a. Soil texture

235
Q

Which of the following do not belong to seeder parts.
a. Furrow opener
b. Metering device
c. Covering device
d. Seed tube
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

A

e. None of the above

236
Q

Which of the following statement is true?
a. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity.
b. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is slower than its forward velocity.
c. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is the same with the forward
velocity.
d. None of the above
e. all of the above

A

The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity.

237
Q

Which of the following statement is true?
a. The velocity of the knife of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity.
b. The velocity of the knife of a reaper is slower than its forward velocity.
c. The velocity of the knife of a reaper is the same with the forward velocity.
d. None of the above

A

a. The velocity of the knife of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity.

238
Q

The difference between a stripper and a reaper is that __________________.
a. the stripper cuts the panicle during harvesting
b. the reaper detach the grain during harvesting
c. the stripper detach the grains while the reaper cuts the panicle during
harvesting
d. None of the above

A

c. the stripper detach the grains while the reaper cuts the panicle during
harvesting

239
Q

A drum seeder is highly suitable for rice seeds that was _______________ .
a. freshly stored before planting
b. pre-germinated before planting
c. milled before planting
d. All of the above

A

b. pre-germinated before planting

240
Q

During seeding and planting, which of the crop production activities is
simultaneously in operation?
a. Weeding
b. Irrigating
c. Fertilizing
d. Spraying
e. None of the above

A

c. Fertilizing

241
Q

The metering device of a seeder basically is used to uniformly feed the seed into
the _______________ .
a. covering device
b. seed tube
c. furrow opener
d. None of the above

A

b. seed tube

242
Q

Part of a rice transplanter that places the seedlings into the prepared paddy field.
a. Feed tray
b. Picker
c. Handle
d. None of the above

A

b. Picker

243
Q

If you are an engineer to mechanize a lowland rice farm that is usually flooded,
what primary tillage implement would you recommend?
a. Spiral-type tiller
b. Disc-type tiller
c. Puddling-type tiller
d. None of the above

A

c. Puddling-type tiller

244
Q

Which of the following primary tillage equipment for small rice farm with higher
field capacity?
a. Disc plow
b. Spiral plow
c. Puddling-type tiller
d. Comb harrow
e. None of the above

A

c. Puddling-type tiller

245
Q

Heavy-duty type power tiller basically consists of _______ axles?
a. single
b. double
c. triple
d. None of the above

A

b. double

246
Q

A type of disk harrow that is not directly parallel in position with the tractor
during operation.
a. Single action disk harrow
b. Double action disk harrow
c. Offset disk harrow
d. All of the above

A

c. Offset disk harrow

247
Q

The power that is required in pulling an implement.
a. Brake horsepower
b. Drawbar horsepower
c. Power takeoff horsepower
d. All of the above

A

b. Drawbar horsepower

248
Q

The power that is required in driving a pump shaft.
a. Brake horsepower
b. Drawbar horsepower
c. Power takeoff horsepower
d. All of the above

A

a. Brake horsepower

249
Q

The power required in driving power harrows, rotary tiller, and other related
equipment.
a. Brake horsepower
b. Drawbar horsepower
c. Power takeoff horsepower
d. All of the above

A

c. Power takeoff horsepower

250
Q

Variables affecting the drawbar horsepower::
a. Implement speed and width
b. Implement width and pulling force
c. Implement pulling force and speed
d. None of the above

A

c. Implement pulling force and speed

251
Q

PS is a German acronym for ________________ .
a. Pferdestark
b. Pferdstark
c. Pferdestarke
d. None of the above

A

c. Pferdestarke

252
Q

cv is a French acronym for ____________ .
a. Cheval-vapeur
b. Chevapeur
c. Chevalvapour
d. None of the abov

A

a. Cheval-vapeur

253
Q

pk is Dutch acronym for ____________ .
a. Paardekracht
b. Pardkract
c. Padkracht
d. None of the above

A

a. Paardekracht

254
Q

1 PS is equal to _________ watts
a. 735.49
b. 740.12
c. 760.00
d. None of the above

A

a. 735.49

255
Q

1 pk is equal to ____________ watts
a. 735.49
b. 740.12
c. 760.00
d. None of the above

A

a. 735.49

256
Q

1 cv is equal to _________ watts
a. 735.50
b. 740.12
c. 760.00
d. None of the above

A

a. 735.50

257
Q

A farm is planed be planted with corn at a spacing of 30 cm x 60 cm. As
engineer in-charge of the mechanization program of the farm which of the
following equipment would you recommend?
a. Drill
b. Row Crop Planter
c. Broadcaster
d. None of the above

A

b. Row Crop Planter

258
Q

Which of the following are the basic functions of a seeder and planter?
a. Open the seed furrow
b. Meter the seeds
c. Deposit the seeds
d. Cover the seeds
e. None of the above
f. All of the above

A

f. All of the above

259
Q

Instrument for measuring the speed of a shaft.
a. Odometer
b. Anemometer
c. Tachometer
d. All of the above

A

c. Tachometer

260
Q

Instrument for measuring low-pressure head.
a. Dial type pressure gauge
b. Manometer
c. Orifice
d. None of the above

A

b. Manometer

261
Q

Instrument for measuring furnace temperature.
a. Glass bulb thermometer
b. Dial type bimetallic thermometer
c. Thermocouple wire thermometer
d. All of the above

A

c. Thermocouple wire thermometer

262
Q

It is a set of concave discs.
a. Gang
b. Disc set
c. Disc frame
d. None of the above

A

a. Gang

263
Q

It is a set of sprinkler nozzles.
a. Boom
b. Sprinkler laterals
c. Sprayer nozzle set
d. None of the above

A

a. Boom

264
Q

A central part of a plow where the share, moldboard, and landside are attached.
a. Frame
b. Frog
c. Shank
d. None of the above

A

b. Frog

265
Q

It is an auxiliary plow-working element, mounted above the shin which deposits
the upper edge of the furrow in the furrow bottom.
a. Tail piece
b. Thrash board
c. Coulter
d. None of the above

A

b. Thrash board

266
Q

The size of a moldboard plow is determined ________________ .
a. from the wing of the share to the landside
b. from tip of the moldboard to the landside
c. from the top of the moldboard to the point of the share
d. None of the above

A

a. from the wing of the share to the landside

267
Q

Component parts of a seeder that is used to calibrate the seed metering device.
a. Furrow wheel
b. Ground wheel
c. Support wheel
d. All of the above

A

b. Ground wheel

268
Q

It is a part of the plow that connects the plow bottom and the frame.
a. Upper hitch point
b. Boom
c. Shank
d. None of the above

A

c. Shank

269
Q

A six-bottom moldboard plow is to be used to plow a heavy soil. How many
scrapers are there in the plow?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

270
Q

Material recommended by PAES for use as implement frame.
a. Mild steel
b. Cold rolled steel
c. Spring steel
d. None of the above

A

a. Mild steel

271
Q

Material recommended by PAES in the manufacture of disk blade.
a. Mild steel
b. Carbon steel
c. Cast iron
d. None of the above

A

b. Carbon steel

272
Q

When a disk harrow consists of a front and rear gangs and is centrally positioned
with the tractor, it is classified as _________ ?
a. Single action harrow
b. Double action harrow
c. Offset harrow
d. None of the above

A

b. Double action harrow

273
Q

When a disk harrow consists of a front gangs only and is centrally positioned with
the tractor, it is classified as _________ ?
a. Single action harrow
b. Double action harrow
c. Offset harrow
d. None of the above

A

a. Single action harrow

274
Q

When a disk harrow consists of a front and/or rear gangs and is not centrally
positioned with the tractor, it is classified as _________ ?
a. Single action harrow
b. Double action harrow
c. Offset harrow
d. None of the above

A

c. Offset harrow

275
Q

It is the traverse distance between two adjacent discs.
a. Disk distance
b. Disk clearance
c. Disk spacing
d. None of the above

A

c. Disk spacing

276
Q

The angle between the axis of the set of disks and the line perpendicular to the
direction of the implement.
a. Disk angle
b. Gang angle
c. Implement angle
d. None of the above

A

b. Gang angle

277
Q

It is a self-propelled machine having a single axle designed primarily to pull and
propel trailed or mounted agricultural implement and machinery.
a. Walking-type tractor
b. Pedestrian tractor
c. Hand tractor
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

278
Q

Warranty period for hand tractor from the purchase of the machine.
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 12 months
d. All of the above

A

b. 6 months

279
Q

Engine cooling method.
a. air cooled
b. water cooled
c. air and water cooled
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

280
Q

Engine whose piston that requires two movements to complete one cycle.
a. Single-cycle
b. Two-cycle
c. Four-cycle
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above (two-stroke engine)

281
Q

An engine valve arrangement wherein the intake and exhaust valves are located in
the cylinder head.
a. I - head arrangement
b. L- head arrangement
c. X- head arrangement
d. None of the above

A

a. I - head arrangement

282
Q

An engine valve arrangement wherein the intake and exhaust valves are located
on one side of the cylinder block.
a. I - head arrangement
b. L- head arrangement
c. X- head arrangement
d. None of the above

A

b. L- head arrangement

283
Q

Percentage engine output to be attained when testing based on the maximum rated
power output.
a. 60%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. All of the above

A

b. 80%

284
Q

Basic hand tools for engine maintenance:
a. Open wrench
b. Adjustable wrench
c. Screw driver (Philip and Flat)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

285
Q

It is an articulated connection between a link and the implement.
a. Hitch point
b. Link point
c. Implement point
d. All of the above

A

a. Hitch point

286
Q

It is an articulated connection between a link and the tractor.
a. Hitch point
b. Link point
c. Implement point
d. All of the above

A

b. Link point

287
Q

It is the center to center distance between two front or rear wheels.
a. Wheel clearance
b. Wheel tread
c. Wheel distance
d. None of the above

A

b. Wheel tread

288
Q

A type of four-wheel tractor where power is transmitted to all wheels of the tractor.
a. Two-wheel drive tractor
b. Four-wheel drive tractor
c. Hydraulic drive tractor
d. None of the above

A

b. Four-wheel drive tractor

289
Q

A type of four-wheel tractor where power is transmitted to rear wheels with small
front wheels being pushed along.
a. Two-wheel drive tractor
b. Four-wheel drive tractor
c. Hydraulic drive tractor
d. None of the above

A

a. Two-wheel drive tractor

290
Q

Auxiliary gear shift lever of a tractor is usually located at the ____________.
a. right side of the operator seat
b. left side of the operator seat
c. front of the operator seat
d. None of the above

A

a. right side of the operator seat

291
Q

Hydraulic control level of a tractor are usually located at the ____________ .
a. right side of the operator seat
b. left side of the operator seat
c. front of the operator seat
d. None of the above

A

b. left side of the operator seat

292
Q

Drawbar types:
a. Fixed drawbar
b. Swinging drawbar
c. Link drawbar
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

293
Q

PAES recommended thickness of drawbar for four-wheel agricultural tractor.
a. Not more than 32 mm
b. 32 mm
c. More than 32 mm
d. None of the above

A

a. Not more than 32 mm

294
Q

PAES recommended diameter of hole in the drawbar for four-wheel agricultural
tractor.
a. 30 mm
b. 33 mm
c. 36 mm
d. None of the above

A

b. 33 mm

295
Q

Front tread of four-wheel agricultural tractor is usually adjusted by ______ .
a. changing bolt position of the front axle
b. changing the size of wheel
c. changing the front axle
d. None of the above

A

a. changing bolt position of the front axle

296
Q

The rear wheel for two-wheel and four wheel drive tractors are adjusted by
_____ .
a. inverting the wheel disc
b. changing the rear axle
c. changing the position of the bolt of the rear axle
d. None of the above

A

a. inverting the wheel disc

297
Q

Types of brake system for agricultural tractors:
a. Internal expansion type
b. External expansion type
c. Disk type
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

298
Q

Acceptable level wheel slip for two-wheel drive tractor on a firm soil.
a. 7 - 11%
b. 10 - 15%
c. 16 - 20%
d. None of the above

A

a. 7 - 11%

299
Q

Acceptable level wheel slip for two-wheel drive tractor on a tilled or soft soil.
a. 7 - 11%
b. 10 - 15%
c. 16 - 20%
d. None of the above

A

b. 10 - 15%

300
Q

It is a single or pair of wheels with radially mounted tilling blades attached to a
common shaft or axle of a puddling-type floating tiller.
a. Cage wheel
b. Tilling wheel
c. Hydro wheel
d. None of the above

A

b. Tilling wheel

301
Q

Common designs of floatation structure for puddling-type floating tiller.
a. Elliptical-shaped
b. Boat type
c. Saucer type
d. Pontoon type
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

A

e. All of the above

302
Q

Another term for puddling-type floating tiller
a. Rotary tiller
b. Float-assist tiller
c. Garden tiller
d. None of the above

A

b. Float-assist tiller

303
Q

Manufacturer’ specification for float assisted tiller field capacity based on PAES
Standard.
a. 1.0 to 2.5 kph
b. 2.5 to 4.0 kph
c. 4.0 to 6.5 kph
d. None of the above

A

b. 2.5 to 4.0 kph

304
Q

Recommended chain and sprocket drive for tractor powered by 3.73 to 5.22 kW
gasoline engine.
a. ANSI chain number 50
b. ANSI chain number 60
c. ANSI chain number 70
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

a. ANSI chain number 50

305
Q

Recommended chain and sprocket drive for tractor powered by 5.22 kW and
above gasoline engine.
a. ANSI chain number 50
b. ANSI chain number 60
c. ANSI chain number 70
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

b. ANSI chain number 60

306
Q

When heat alone is used to melt and flow metal together, the process is know as
_______.
a. Soldering
b. Pressure welding
c. Fusion Welding
d. None of the above

A

c. Fusion Welding

307
Q

The most common form of gas welding uses the gases _______ .
a. Acetylene and air
b. Acetylene and hydrogen
c. Acetylene and oxygen
d. All of the above

A

c. Acetylene and oxygen

308
Q

Welding by heating and then forcing the pieces together is called ______ .
a. Fusion welding
b. Pressure welding
c. Inertia Welding
d. All of the above

A

b. Pressure welding

309
Q

Spot welding is a form of welding known as ________ .
a. Flow welding
b. Resistance welding
c. Forge welding
d. None of the above

A

b. Resistance welding

310
Q

The metal that is melted from a piece being joined is called the _________ .
a. Filler metal
b. Weld metal
c. Base metal
d. None of the above

A

a. Filler metal

311
Q

A form of resistance welding used for welding sheet metal is ________ .
a. Arc welding
b. Gas welding
c. Spot Welding
d. None of the above

A

c. Spot Welding

312
Q

The size of screw driver is measured by ___________ .
a. the length of the blade
b. its overall length
c. its diameter
d. None of the above

A

a. the length of the blade

313
Q

What type of fastener is used to fasten a metal part to wood?
a. Machine bolt
b. Lag screw
c. Carriage bolt
d. None of the above

A

c. Carriage bolt

314
Q

What property of metal refers to its ability to resist penetration?
a. Hardness
b. Toughness
c. Strength
d. All of the above

A

a. Hardness

315
Q

Metals high in weldability are usually high in __________ .
a. Fusibility
b. Malleability
c. Ductility
d. All of the above

A

a. Fusibility

316
Q

Ferrous metals are metals that contain __________ .
a. Copper
b. Aluminum
c. Iron
d. All of the above

A

c. Iron