Antiretroviral Drugs- Protease Inhibitors Flashcards

1
Q

How are gag-pol gene propeptide products processed?

A

by HIV encoded viral aspartyl protease

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2
Q

PI’s are not indicated for what therapy?

A

monotherapy- due to resistance

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3
Q

Chronic use of PI’s may be associated with what adverse effects?

A

Redistribution/ accumulation of body fat resulting in:

1) central obesity
2) dorsocervical fat enlargement (buffalo hump)
3) peripheral and facial wasting
4) breast enlargement
5) cushingold appearance

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4
Q

PI’s are metabolized how?

A

by CYP3A4

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5
Q

List the 10 PI’s:

A

1) Amprenavir
2) Atazanavir
3) Fosamprinavir
4) Indinavir
5) Lopinavir + Ritonavir
6) Nelfinavir
7) Saquinavir
8) Ritonavir
9) TIpranavir
10) Darunavir

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6
Q

Amprenavir is what % plasma bound?

A

> 90%

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7
Q

Amprenavir is metab’d by what?

A

CYP3A4- caution used in hepatic insufficiency

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8
Q

Amprenavir resistance is due to…

A

mutations of 150V

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9
Q

Amprenavir AE:

A

n/v/d, perioral parasthesias, depression and rash

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10
Q

Oral solution of Amprenavir contains what and is CI’d in what population?

A

propylene glycol and vit. E- so it’s CI’d in children, pregnant women, and in combo with disulfiram or metronidazole

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11
Q

Atazanivir is metabolized by

A

CYP3A4

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12
Q

Atazanivir’s half life is increased via what drug?

A

Ritonavir (CYP3A4 inhib) increases t1/2 to 11 hours

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13
Q

Atazanivir may cause…

A

hyper-bilirubinemia, ECG abnormalities at high doses

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14
Q

Atazanivir does not cause…

A

fat redistribution or dyslipidemias

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15
Q

Atazanavir inhibits

A

CYP3A4 and CYP2C9

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16
Q

Fosamprenavir is a prodrug of…

A

amprenavir, which is hydrolyzed in the intestinal epithelium

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17
Q

Indinavir is increased by co-admin of…

A

ritonavir (pharmacokinetic enhancer), which inhibits CYP3A4 metabolism

18
Q

Indinavir must be taken how?

A

on an empty stomach- 65% oral bio

19
Q

Indinavir is an inhibitor of what?

A

CYP3A4

20
Q

Indinavir resistance is due to mutations at what positions?

A

46 and 82

21
Q

Indinavir adverse reations:

A

hyperbilirubinemia & nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) due to drug crystallization to cause renal failure

22
Q

Lopinavir/ Ritonavir (kaletra) is used how/ MOA?

A

Subtherapeutic dose of ritonavir is sufficient to increase t1/2 of lopinavir by inhibiting CYP3A4 metab of lopinavir (pharmacokinetic enhancer)

23
Q

AE of Lopinavir:

A

n/v/d, abdominal pain, asthenia (loss of strength)

24
Q

Nelfinavir (viracept) is metab’d by…elim?

A

CYP3A4 and undergoes fecal elimn

25
Q

AE of nelfinavir?

A

diarrhea and flatulence

26
Q

Nelfinavir is an inhibitor of what enzyme?

A

CYP3A4

27
Q

Saquinavir plasma protein %?

A

> 98%

28
Q

Saquinavir is avail in what dosage form?

A

Hard gel capsule (Invirase)

Soft gel capsule (Fortovase)- better oral avail.

29
Q

Invirase (Saquinavir) with what drug increases oral bio?

A

ritonavir (CYP3A4 inhibitor)

30
Q

How is Saquinavir metab’d?

A

CYP3A4 and subject to EXTENSIVE FIRST PASS EFFECT

31
Q

How does ritonavir effect saquinivir?

A

Ritonavir reduces 1st pass effect of saquinavir- and increases bioavail.

32
Q

Saquinavir is an inhibitor of

A

CYP3A4

33
Q

LFT monitored with Saquinivir when used in combo with

A

delarvirdine

34
Q

Saquinavir resistance due to mutation of

A

G48V

35
Q

Saquinivir AE:

A

n/v/abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, rhinitis

36
Q

Ritonavir is metab’d by what enzymes?

A

CYP3A4 and CYP2D6

37
Q

Ritonavir is a substrate and inhibitor of what?

A

CYP3A4

38
Q

Ritonavir is exploited to increase bio of what drugs?

A

Saquinavir and Lopinavir

39
Q

Tipranavir must be taken with what drug?

A

Ritonavir to increase efficacy of poor absorption

40
Q

Tipranvir is CI’d in:

A

hepatic insuff and sulfa allergy