antimicrobial resistance&water Flashcards

1
Q

when did Fleming discover penicillin

A

1928

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when were sulfonamides introduced and by who

A

1935; ehrlich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when was MRSA first noted

A

1968

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are some resistant bacteria

A

multi-drug resistant mycobacterium tuberculosis; penicillin resistant stretococcus pneumoniae; vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE); carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaciae (CRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 4 important principles of antimicrobial resistance

A
  1. antimicrobial use SELECTS for resistant populations; 2. organisms resistant to one antimicrobial often become resistant to MULTIPLE drugs; 3. antimicrobial resistance in one area will eventually appear in OTHER areas; 4. once antimicrobial resistance appears, it is UNLIKELY to decline spontaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 2 main issues for antimicrobial resistance

A

preservation of antimicrobials for human medicine/health; preservation of antimicrobials for vet med and animal health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the driving force for antimicrobial resistance

A

imprudent use of antimicrobials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is imprudent use of antimicrobials

A

use of antimicrobials when not needed; use of wrong antimicrobial; use of broadspectrum antimicrobial when a narrowspectrum will work; wrong dosage or dosing interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is imprudent use of antimicrobials

A

use of antimicrobials when not needed; use of wrong antimicrobial; use of broadspectrum antimicrobial when a narrowspectrum will work; wrong dosage or dosing interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 uses of antimicrobials in veterinary medicine

A

therapy, metaphylaxis, prophylaxis, growth promotion/feed efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does therapy consist of

A

injection, in-feed, in-water, individual or group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does metaphylaxis consist of

A

same as therapy but is done when one animal is sick to pre-emptively treat the others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does prophylaxis consist of

A

in-feed, GROUP; treating entire group pre-emptively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which obligations must veterinarians balance?

A

oath to protect animal health and promote public health at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which obligations must veterinarians balance?

A

oath to protect animal health and promote public health at the same time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are current activities for reducing AMR

A

chief veterinary officers (prescription only, surveillance/data collection), senate hearings, user pay initiatives, phasing out growth promotants, targeted reduction of use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the Canadian experience with emerging antimicrobial resistance

A

salmonella heidelberg resistant to 3rd generation ceftiofur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is S. heidelberg resistance a problem

A

frequent pathogen in humans that can be invasive (causing sepsis); limited treatment options for children and pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why are the treatment options limited for children and pregnant women if they are infected with ceftiofur resistant S. heidelberg

A

can’t use fluoroquinolones in them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is one of the single biggest drivers of infectious disease

A

water quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what types of diseases are related to water

A

water-borne, water-washed, water-based, water-vector/related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

water-borne diseases

A

disease caused by ingestion of water contaminated by human or animal excrement that contains pathogenic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

water-washed diseases

A

disease caused by poor personal hygiene, skin and eye contact with contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

water-based diseases

A

disease caused by parasites found in intermediate organisms living in contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
water-vector/related diseases
disease caused by insect vectors that breed or feed near contaminated water
26
some important water-borne pathogens
E. coli, campylobacter, vibrio cholera, cryptosporidium
27
factors in re-emergence of zoonotic pathogens
changing patterns of water use, population factors, increased travel/recreational activities, water scarcity, climate change, severe weather events, conflicts/disasters, increased urbinization, increased demand for animal protein and fresh vegetables, increased antibiotic use, increasingly concentrated animal husbandry practices, density of domestic pets, international trade patterns, ecosystem disturbance
28
factors in re-emergence of zoonotic pathogens
changing patterns of water use, population factors, increased travel/recreational activities, water scarcity, climate change, severe weather events, conflicts/disasters, increased urbinization, increased demand for animal protein and fresh vegetables, increased antibiotic use, increasingly concentrated animal husbandry practices, density of domestic pets, international trade patterns, ecosystem disturbance
29
what was the water contaminated with in Walkerton
E.coli (VTEC) and campylobacter
30
what is pulsenet canada used for
food and waterborne disease outbreaks
31
how long can E. coli 0157 survive in soil
56-130 days
32
how long does E. coli 0157 survive in a slurry of manure
10 days
33
how can you minimize risk from animal waste
farm biosecurity; vaccination; waste treatment before release
34
what are examples of waste treatment that can be done on farm
composting, air drying, lagoon/storage, digestion (anaerobic or aerobic)
35
what are examples of waste treatment that can be done on farm
composting, air drying, lagoon/storage, digestion (anaerobic or aerobic)
36
how is cryptosporidium parvum (bovine) transmitted
from human to cattle and cattle to human
37
how is cryptosporidium hominus transmitted
human to human (NOT human to cattle)
38
how is cryptosporidium spread
water contaminated with feces of infected person or animal feces; contact with infected person
39
what is the primary means to remove cryptosporidium from water
physical removal by filtration
40
why can cryptosporidium only be removed by physical filtration
oocysts are resistant to chemical disinfection
41
why can cryptosporidium only be removed by physical filtration
oocysts are resistant to chemical disinfection
42
what does cryptosporidium cause
asymptomatic infections and symptomatic infection (profuse watery diarrhea, cramping, abdominal pain)
43
how long does cryptosporidiosis last
self-limiting and usually lasts 3-4 days (no longer than 30d)
44
infective dose of cryptosporidium
10 oocysts
45
when are crypto oocysts infectious
immediately upon excretion
46
when does shedding of crypto oocysts stop
usually 2 weeks after symptoms end
47
how long do crypto oocysts remain infective outside the body
2 to 6 months in a moist environment
48
most common sources of crypto infection
recreational water (ex. water parks), contact with livestock, drinking water, and person to person transmission
49
factors that contribute to risks of crypto water-borne outbreaks
small oocyst size, wide range of host specificity, close associations between animals/humans, large numbers of oocysts excreted, low infective dose, oocyst resistance to chlorine, infectious upon excretion
50
what are characteristics of water-borne outbreaks
high proportion of population affected, illness experienced through all age groups, affected persons have epidemiological link to one community/water source
51
general water-outbreak causes
inadequate disinfection, cross-connections, inadequate control over treatment process (esp. filtration), interruption in treatment, disruption in service, infiltration of polluted water/sewage
52
general water-outbreak causes
inadequate disinfection, cross-connections, inadequate control over treatment process (esp. filtration), interruption in treatment, disruption in service, infiltration of polluted water/sewage
53
information for waterborne outbreak investigation
water plant process monitoring data, public health and clinical lab results, physician visits for gastroenteritis, school/daycare absences, nursing home diarrheal rates, sales of anti-diarrheal drugs
54
what is the indicator organism used for water testing
E. coli
55
why is E. coli used as an indicator organism
present in large numbers in mammal feces, readily detectable, doesn't grown in natural water, persistence and removal from water are similar to other pathogens
56
criteria for water testing
E. coli must not be detectable in any 100mL sample
57
what does water testing frequency depend on
population size
58
what indicator organism is used in marine water
enterococci
59
what indicator organism is used in marine water
enterococci
60
which infectious organisms are not routinely tested for
giardia and crypto