Antimicrobial Chemotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

State the indications for antimicrobials

A

Therapy or prophylaxis

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2
Q

What is emperic therapy

A

Without microbiology results

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3
Q

What is directed therapy

A

Based on microbiology results

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4
Q

What is primary prophylaxis

A

Anti-malarials, immunocompromised patients, pre-operative surgical, post-exposure

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5
Q

What is secondary prophylaxis

A

to prevent a second episode of infection

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6
Q

List the patient characteristics that should be considered when prescribing antimicrobials

A

Age, renal function, liver function, immunocompromised, pregnancy, known allergies

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7
Q

State the possible causative organisms of soft-tissue infections

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus group C or G, E.coli, pseudomonas aeruginosa, clostridium species

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8
Q

State the possible causative agents of pneumonia

A
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae 
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumonia
Moraxella catarrhalis
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Legionella pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumonia
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9
Q

Describe the action of bacteriacidal antiobiotics

A

They act on the cell wall of the bacteria and kill the organisms.

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10
Q

State the indications for the use of bacteriacidal antibiotics

A

Neutropenia, meningitis and endocarditis

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11
Q

State the type of antibiotics which are cidal

A

beta-lactams

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12
Q

State the type of antibiotics that are bacteriastatic

A

Macrolides

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13
Q

State the action of bacteriostatic drugs

A

They inhibit protein synthesis and prevent colony growth. They require the host immune system to mop up residual infection

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14
Q

When is combination therapy used

A

HIV and TB therapy, severe sepsis, mixed organisms (faecal peritonitis)

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15
Q

What is oral bio-availability

A

Ratio of drug level when given orally compared with level when given IV

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16
Q

State the oral bio-availability of flucloxacillin

A

50-70%

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17
Q

State the oral-bioavailability of linezolid

A

100%

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18
Q

When should the oral route be used

A

If not vomiting, normal GI function, no shock and no organ dysfunction

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19
Q

When should the IV route be used

A

For severe or deep-seated infection, and when the oral route is not reliable.

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20
Q

State the symptoms of immediate hypersensitivity to antibiotics

A

anaphylactic shock

21
Q

State the symptoms of delayed hypersensitivity to antibiotics

A

Rash, drug fever, serum sickness, erythema nodosum, SJS

22
Q

Allergic reactions tend to occur with which antibiotic

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

23
Q

State the GI adverse effects

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, C.diff

24
Q

Which drugs can result in liver damage

A

Tetracyclines and TB drugs

25
Q

State the drugs which can cause kidney damage

A

Gentamicin and vancomycin

26
Q

Which drugs can result in ototoxicity

A

Gentamicin and vancomycin

27
Q

Which drugs can result in optic neuropathy

A

Ethambutol

28
Q

Which drugs can result in convulsions and encephalopahty

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins

29
Q

Which drugs can result in peripheral neuropathy

A

Isoniazid and metronidazole

30
Q

State the possible haematological adverse side effects

A

marrow toxicity, megaloblastic anaemia

31
Q

State the members of the antimicrobial management team

A

Antibiotic Pharmacists, Infectious Diseases, Acute Medicine, Medical Microbiology, Infection Prevention and Control, General Practice.

32
Q

State the 4C’s which can cause C.diff

A

Ceftriaxone, co-amoxiclav, clindamycin, cirpofloxacin

33
Q

State the 10 antimicrobial classes

A
Penicillins (β-lactams)
Cephalosporins (β-lactams)
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
Quinolones
Glycopeptides
Other antibiotics 
Antifungals
Antivirals
Immunoglobulin
34
Q

State the common glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

35
Q

What is the action of glycopeptides

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

36
Q

State the common aminoglycoside

A

Gentamicin

37
Q

What is the action of aminoglycosides

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis

38
Q

State a macrolide

A

Clarithromycin

39
Q

State the action of macrolide

A

inhibition of protein synthesis

40
Q

State a tetracycline

A

Doxycycline

41
Q

Tetracycline action

A

Inhibition of protein syntehsis

42
Q

Give an example of Oxazolidnones

A

Linezolid

43
Q

Linezolid action

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis

44
Q

State the action of trimethoprim

A

Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis

45
Q

Give an example of sulphonamides

A

Sulphamethoxazole

46
Q

State the action of sulphonamides

A

Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

47
Q

Give an example of Quinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin

48
Q

State the action of Quinolones

A

Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis