Anti inflammatory Flashcards

1
Q

H1 activation leads to

A
  1. Increase capillary dilation via NO leading to Decrease BP
  2. Increase capillary permeability leading to edema
  3. Increased bronchiolar smooth muscle contraction
  4. Increas activation of peripheral nociceptive receptors increase pain and pruritis
  5. Decrease AV nodal conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

H2 activation leads to

A
  1. Increas gastic acid secretion leading to ulcers
  2. Increase SA nodal rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diphenhydramine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Antagonist

  • M Block: +++
  • Sedation: +++
  • Antimotion: +++
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Promethazine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Blocker

  • M Block: +++
  • Sedation: +++
  • Antimotion: +++
  • Some alpha block and local anesthetic action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chlorpheniramine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Blocker

  • M Block: ++
  • Sedation: ++
  • Antimotion: ++
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Meclizine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Block

  • M Block: ++
  • Sedation: ++
  • Antimotion: +++
  • Highly effective for motion sickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cetirizine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Blocker

  • M Block: +/-
  • Sedation: +
  • Antimotion: 0
  • Only sedation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Loratadine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Blocker

  • M Block: +/-
  • Sedation : 0
  • Antimotion: 0
  • No CNS entry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fexofenadine M block, Sedaiton, Antimotion

A

H1 Blocker

  • M Block: +/-
  • Sedation: 0
  • Antimotion: 0
  • No CNS entry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

H2 antagonist drugs

A
  1. Cimetidine
  2. Ranitidine
  3. Famotidine
  4. -TIDINE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

H2 antagonist used for

A

Peptic Ulcer Disease, GERD, and Zolwinger by suppressing secretory response to food stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cimetidine adverse affects

A
  1. Major P450 inhibitor
  2. Decrease androgens leading to gynecomastia and decrease libido
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Omeprazole (-Prazole) mechanism of action

A
  • Irreversible proton pump in gastric parietal cells
  • K/H antiport inhibitor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Misoprostol mechanism of action

A

PGE1 analog that is cytoprotective by increasing mucus and bicarbonate secretion and decrease HCL secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sucralfate mechanism of action

A
  1. Polymerizes on GI luminal surface to form a protective gel-like coating of ulcer bed
  2. Requires acid pH to activated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ondansteron (-steron) mechanism of action and use

A

5HT3 antagonist that prevents Nausea and vomiting in Cancer Pts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DA antagonists

A
  1. Prochlorperazine
  2. Meoclopramide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DA antagonists used for

A

Prevent Nausea and vomiting in Cancer Pt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aprepitant mechanism of action

A

NK1 receptor antagonist

(receptor for substance P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Buspirone mechanism of action

A

5HT1a partial agonist used for GAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

-TRIPTANS mechanism of action

A

Agonist at 5HT1d receptors in cerebral vessels leading to decrease migraine pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

-Triptan adverse affects

A
  1. Asthenia
  2. Chest or throat pressure or pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

5HT1(a-h) found in

A
  • CNS (inhibitory)
  • Smooth muscle (excitatory or inhibitory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5HT2(a-c) found in

A

CNS (excitatory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cyproheptadine mechanism of action

A

5HT2 antagonised used in carcinoid, GI tumors, and Anorexia nervosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

5HT3 found in

A
  1. Area prostrema
  2. Peripheral sensory
  3. Enteric nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ergotamine mechanism of action

A
  • Partial agonist at both alpha and 5HT2 receptors in the vasculature and possibly in the CNS
  • Vasoconstrictive action to decrease pulsation in cerebral vessels may prevent acute action of Ergotamine during migration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ergotamine used for

A

Accute attacks of migraine headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ergotamine adverse affects

A
  1. GI distress
  2. Prolonged vasoconstriction leading to ischemia and gangrene
  3. Abortions near term
30
Q

Glucocorticoids inhibit

A

Phopholipase A2 decreasing conversion of Membrane phospholipds to Arachidonic acid inhibiting production of both Prostaglandins and Leukotrines

31
Q

Zileuton inhibits

A

Lipoxygenase preveting the converstion of Arachidonic acid to hydroperoxides preventing leukotrienes

32
Q

-Lukast inhibit

A

Leukotriene receptors

33
Q

NSAIDs inhibit

A

Cyclooxgynases preventing converstion of Arachidonic acid to Endoperoxides

34
Q

Alprostadil mechanism of action and use

A
  1. PGE1 analog
  2. Maintains patency of ductus arteriosus
  3. Vasodilation used in male impotence
35
Q

Dinoprostone mechanism of action

A

PGE2 analog that causes contraction of Uterine smooth muscle

36
Q

Dinoprostone used for

A
  1. Cervical ripening
  2. abortifacient
37
Q

Carboprost mechanism of action

A

PGF2alpha analog

38
Q

Latanoprost mechanism of action

A

PGF2alpha​ analog

39
Q

Carboprost used for

A

Abortifacient

40
Q

Latanoprost used for

A

Treatment of glaucoma by decreasing interocular pressure

41
Q

Epoprostenol mechanism of action

A

PGI2 (Prostacyclin) analog cuasing platelet stabilization and vasodilation

42
Q

Asprin mechanism of action

A

Covalent bond via acetylation of a serine hydroxyl group near the active site of COX

43
Q

Asprin adverse affects

A

Salicylism: Tinnitus, vertigo, decrease hearing

Bronchoconstriction

HS: Triad of Asthma, nasal polyps, rhinitis

Reye syndrome: Enchephalopathy

Increase BT (antiplatelet)

Renal dysfunction with chronic use

44
Q

Reversible COX 1 and COX 2 inhibitors

A
  1. Ibuprofen
  2. Naproxen
  3. Indomethacin
  4. Ketorolac
  5. Sulindac
45
Q

Indomethacin adverse affect

A

Thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis

46
Q

Drugs used for RA

A
  1. Hydroxychloroquine
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Sulfasalazine
  4. Glucocorticoids
  5. Leflunomide
  6. Etanercept
  7. Infliximad
  8. Anakinra
47
Q

Hydroxychloroquine mechanism of action

A

Stabilizes lysosomes and decrease chemotaxis

48
Q

Hydroxychloroquine adverse affects

A
  1. GI distress
  2. Visual dysfunction
  3. Hemolysis in G6PD
49
Q

Methotrexate mechanism of action

A

Cytotoxic to lymphocytes

50
Q

Methotrexate adverse affects

A

Hematotoxicity

51
Q

Sulfasalazine mechanism of action

A

Sulfapyridine causes decrease in B-cell function

52
Q

Sulfasalazine adverse affect

A

Hemolysis in G6PD

53
Q

Glucocorticoids adverse affect

A
  1. ACTH suppression
  2. Cushingoid state
  3. Osteoporosis
  4. GI distress
  5. Glaucoma
54
Q

Leflunomide mechanism of action

A

Inhibit dihydro-orotic acid dehydrogenase cuasing a decrease in UMP and decrease ribonucleotides causing arrested lymphocytes in G1

55
Q

Leflunomide adverse affects

A
  1. Alopecia
  2. Rash
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Hepatotoxicity
56
Q

Etanercept mechanism of action

A

Binds to TNF and inhibits it

57
Q

Infliximad mechanism of action

A

Monoclonal AB to TNF

58
Q

Anakinra mechanism of action

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist

59
Q

Colchicine mechanism of actioin

A

Binds to tubulin and decreases microtubular polymerization decreasing migration

60
Q

Treatment of acute gout

A
  1. Colchicine
  2. Indomethacin
61
Q

Colchicine adverse affect

A

ACUTE:

  1. Diarrhea
  2. GI pain

CHRONIC:

  1. Hematuria
  2. Alopecia
  3. Myelosuppression
  4. Gastritis
  5. Peripheral neuropathy
62
Q

Allopurinol mechanism of action

A

Converted by xanthine oxidase

Then inhibits xanthing oxidase decreasing purine metabolixm and decreasing Uric acid

63
Q

Allopurinol adverse affects

A
  1. Rash
  2. Xanthine stones
64
Q

Prophylaxis of Chronic Gout

A
  1. Allopurinol
  2. Probenecid
65
Q

Probenecid mechanism of action

A

Inhibits proximal tubular reasborption of urate

66
Q

Probenecid adverse affects

A

Crystallization of high excretion of uric acid

67
Q

Glucocotricoids

A
  1. Prednisone
  2. Triamcinolone
  3. Betamethasone
  4. Dexamethasone
68
Q

Theophylline mechanism of action

A

Bronchodilates via inhibition of phosphodiesterase causing and increase of cAMP

Antagonism of Adenosine (bronchoconstrictor)

69
Q

Theophylline adverse affects

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Increase HR
  4. CNS
70
Q

Theophylline toxicity increased by

A
  1. Erythromycin
  2. Cimetidine
  3. Fluoroquinolones
71
Q

Cromolyn mechanism of action

A

Prevent degranulation of mast cells causing a decrease release of histamine

72
Q

Nedocromil mechanism of action

A

Prevents degranulation of pulmonary mast cells causing a decrease in release of histamine