ANS Flashcards

0
Q

SANS

A

Thoracolumbar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Branches of ANS

A

SANS
PSANS
ENS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PSANS

A

Craniosacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sympa effect on blood vessels of skeletal muscles

A

Vasodilation (suntok!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sympa effect on penis

A

Ejaculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Alpha 1 are found where

A

Pupils, peripheral bv (nasal mucosa, gi, splanchnic, skin), urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alpha 1 is paired with what metabotrope

A

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alpha 2 is paired with what G

A

Gi (presynaptic)

Gq (postsynaptic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

M2 are found where

A

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

M3 are found where

A

All over the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Nicotinic ganglionic receptors are found where

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nicotinic muscular are found where

A

Skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Beta 1 are found

A

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Beta 2 are found

A

Bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta 3 are found

A

Adipose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Direct acting cholinergic agonist, Nonselective choline ester, with shortest duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Choline ester with shortest DOA

A

Acetylcholine (easily degraded by acetylcholinesterase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

M selective choline esters

A

Betanechol

Metacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Betanechol

A

Most m selective choline ester; direct cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nonselective choline esters

A

Acetylcholine

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Choline esters not affected by acetylcholinesterases

A

Betanechol
Metacholine
Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acetylcholine, Betanechol, Metacholine, Carbachol
Nicotine, Lobeline, Muscarine, Pilocarpine
are what?

A

Direct cholinergic agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Alkaloid direct cholinergic agonists

A

Nicotine
Lobeline
Muscarine
Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

More n selective direct acting cholinergic agonists

A

Nicotine

Lobeline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lobeline comes from?

A

Lobelia inflata (Indian tobacco)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most commonly used alkaloid direct cholinergic agonist

A

Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do indirect cholinergic agonists work?

A

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Indirect cholinergic agonists

A

E - edrophonium
C - carbamates
O - organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indirect cholinergic agonists with longest DOA

A

Organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Used for Dx of Myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Used for Myasthenia gravis

A

Carbamates

Organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Carbamates

A

Physostigmine
Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine
Carbaryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Physostigmine comes from?

A

Physostigma venenosum (calabar bean)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Irreversible indirect cholinergic agonists

A

Organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indirect cholinergic agonists with electrostatic bonds

A

Edrophonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Organophosphates

A

Echothiopate
Malathion
Parathion
Soman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Only organophosphate used pharmaceutically

A

Echothiopate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Malathion and parathion are used as what?

A

Insecticides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pilocarpine category and use

A

Direct cholinergic agonist

Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Physostigmine

A

Carbamate, indirect cholinergic agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Neostigmine

A

Carbamates, indirect cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Carbaryl

A

Carbamates, indirect cholinergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Betanechol and Neostigmine are mainly used for?

A

Ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

-TROP

A

Cholinergic antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Prototype cholinergic antagonist

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Longest acting cholinergic antagonist

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Highest CNS penetration cholinergic antagonist

A

Scopolamine (with sedation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cyclopentolate

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tropicamide

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tiotropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist

51
Q

Scopolamine is also known as?

A

Hyoscine

52
Q

Atropine is also known as?

A

Hyoscyamine

53
Q

M3 selective antagonists (spares the heart)

A

Solifenacin
Darifenacin
Oxybutynin

54
Q

Solifenacin

A

M3 antagonist

55
Q

Darifenacin

A

M3 antagonist

56
Q

Oxybutynin

A

M3 antagonist

57
Q

Trimetaphan

A

Ng antagonist for HTN emergency

58
Q

Mecamylamine

A

Ng antagonist for nicotine cessation

59
Q

Ng antagonist for HTN emergency

A

Trimetaphan

60
Q

Ng antagonist for nicotine cessation

A

Mecamylamine

61
Q

Ng antagonists

A

Trimetaphan
Mecamylamine
Hexamethonium
Triethylammonium

62
Q

-CUR

A

Neuromuscular blockers

63
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

64
Q

Nondepolarizing Nm blockers

A

-CUR (curare derivatives)

65
Q

Curare was once used anciently as?

A

Arrow poison

66
Q

Nm blocker that has active metabolite that can cross BBB

A

Atracurium -> Laudanosine

67
Q

Succinylcholine + Gen. Anesthetic

A

Malignant Hyperthermia ( Hyperthermia and Paralysis)

68
Q

Treatment of Malignant Hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene (skel. muscle relaxant)

69
Q

Non-selective adrenergic agonists

A

Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Isoproterenol

70
Q

Epinephrine

A

Non-selective adrenergic agonist

71
Q

Epinephrine uses

A

Asystole
Anaphylactic shock
Local anes adjunct (inc. DOA by vasoconstriction)

72
Q

Isoproterenol main use

A

Asthma

73
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Non-selective adrenergic agonist (more on beta receptors)

74
Q

Alpha 1 selective agonists

A

Phenylephrine

Midodrine

75
Q

Alpha 1 receptors are found where?

A

Pupils
Peripheral blood vessels (nose, GI, skin, splanchnic)
Urinary bladder

76
Q

Main use of phenylephrine

A

Nasal decongestant

77
Q

Main use of midodrine

A

Tx of orthostatic hypotension

78
Q

Alpha 2 selective agonists

A

Clonidine
Methyldopa
Guanfacine
Guanabenz

79
Q

Methyldopa

A

Alpha 2 selective agonist

80
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha 2 selective agonist

81
Q

Clonidine use

A

Hypertension emergency (not for mgt.)

82
Q

Methyldopa use

A

Tx of pregnancy htn

83
Q

Drugs for htn of pregnant women

A

Hydralazine

Methyldopa

84
Q

ADR of clonidine and methyldopa

A

Sedation, drowsiness (because they can cross BBB)

85
Q

Alpha selective agonists

A

Oxymetazoline

Xylometazoline

86
Q

Beta 1 selective agonists

A

Dobutamine

Prenalterol

87
Q

Beta 1 acts on?

A

Heart

88
Q

Only -terol beta 1 agonist

A

Prenalterol

89
Q

Dobutamine

A

Beta 1 agonists

90
Q

Prenalterol

A

Only -terol beta 1 agonist

91
Q

-TEROL

A

Beta 2 agonists except Prenalterol

92
Q

Beta 2 acts on?

A

Bronchioles

93
Q

Beta 2 agonist indication

A

Asthma and COPD

94
Q

SABA

A

Albuterol (Salbutamol)

Terbutaline

95
Q

LABA

A

Formoterol

Salmeterol

96
Q

ADR of beta 2 agonists

A

Tremors

Palpitations

97
Q

Used for cardiogenic shock

A

Dobutamine

Prenalterol

98
Q

Adrenergic antagonists causes?

A

Para response

99
Q

Alpha nonselective antagonists

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Phentolamine

100
Q

Irreversible alpha nonselective antagonist

A

Phenoxybenzamine

101
Q

PHEPHEPHE means?

A

Phenoxybenzamine and Phentolamine are for Pheochromocytoma

102
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumor in adrenal gland than increases NE releases = BP fluctuations

103
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Alpha nonselective antagonist

104
Q

Phentolamine

A

Alpha nonselective antagonist

105
Q

ADR of alpha blockers

A

Hypotension, Reflex tachycardia

106
Q

Alpha 1 blockers

A

Prazocin
Terazocin
Doxazocin

107
Q

-AZOCIN

A

Alpha 1 blockers

108
Q

Alpha 1 blocker with shortest DOA

A

Prazocin

109
Q

Alpha 1 blocker with longest DOA

A

Doxazocin

110
Q

Alpha 1 blockers are mainly used for?

A

Hypertension

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

111
Q

Mixed alpha and beta blockers

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

112
Q

Beta nonselective blockers

A

NSTP (except nebivolol)

113
Q

Most beta 1 selective blocker

A

Nebivolol

114
Q

Beta 1 blockers

A

BEAM

115
Q

Beta blocker with shortest DOA

A

Esmolol

116
Q

Beta blocker with longest DOA

A

Nadolol

117
Q

Give me an ACE PINpoint PEN, I’ll do CARTwheels for you. This refers to?

A

Beta blockers with intrinsic sympa effect, thus less bradycardia

118
Q

ADR of beta blockers

A

Bradycardia

119
Q

Beta nonselective blockers are Cx in?

A

Asthmatic px

Px with Depression (some can cross BBB)

120
Q

Beta blockers uses

A
Arrhythmia (class 2)
HTN
Cardiac failure
Glaucoma
Hyperthyroidism adjunct
Stage freight
121
Q

Beta blockers are antiarrhymthmics belonging to what class?

A

Class II

122
Q

Indirect adrenergic antagonists

A

Reserpine

Guanethedine

123
Q

What indirect antagonist replaces NE in exocytosis?

A

Guanethidine

124
Q

Pharmacological sympathectomy agent

A

Guanethedine

125
Q

Reserpine comes from?

A

Rauwolfia serpentina

126
Q

Amino acid involved in synthesis of NE

A

Tyrosine