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Another One Flashcards

1
Q

Enzyme raised in mumps

A

Amylase

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2
Q

Impaired oxidative killing is in what condition

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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3
Q

What test? Low aldosterone

A

SynACTHen test

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4
Q

What test? Raised plasma glucose

A

Fasting glucose, oral glucose tolerance test

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5
Q
  1. Primary Hyperparathyroidism
  2. Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
  3. Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism
  4. Hypoparathyroidism
  5. Osteomalacia
  6. Paget’s
  7. Osteoporosis
  8. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
  9. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism
  10. Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcaemia
A
  1. Raised PTH due to an adenoma
  2. Secondary to low calcium (kidney disease)
  3. Chronic secondary hyperparathyroidism causes hyperplasia of the parathyroid gland
  4. Primary is due to parathyroid gland defect so not enough PTH secreted. Can be secondary to surgery
  5. Vit D deficiency, so raised PTH and ALP
  6. Raised ALP, defective bone mineralisation
  7. Normal, due to reduced bone density
  8. Resistance to PTH, so PTH levels are up and calcium is low
  9. Normal bone biochehmistry
  10. Raised calcium because of mutation which means calcium level estimation is inaccurate so PTH is released more
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6
Q
  1. Raised TSH, Low T4
  2. Raised TSH Normal T4
  3. Raised TSH, Raised T4
  4. Low TSH, Raised T4
  5. Low TSH, Low T4
  6. Raised TSH, Normal T4 in severely sick patient
A
  1. Primary hypothyroidism
  2. Subclinical hypothyroidism
  3. Secondary hyperthyroidism (TSH tumour OR thyroid hormone resistance)
  4. Primary hyperthyroidisim
  5. Secondary hypothyroidism
  6. Sick euthyroid
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7
Q

Conn’s Syndrome aldosterone:renin ratio

A

High

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8
Q

Mechanism of non functioning adenoma

A

Stalk obstructed, so dopamine can’t inhibit prolactin function. Symptoms are amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia

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9
Q

Macroadenoma signs and symptoms

A

Low levels of TSH, GH, ACTH and bitemporal hemianopia

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10
Q

Calcitonin is produced by…and is elevated in what tumour

A

Parafollcular cells and acts on reducing Ca levels in the blood. Elevated in medullary thyroid tumour. Congo red stain can be used because of deposition

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11
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Night blindness

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12
Q

Vitamin E deficiency

A

Neuropathy, anaemia, ataxia

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13
Q

Vitamin D deficiency

A

Osteomalacia

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14
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

A

Defective clotting

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15
Q

Beri Beri or Wernicke’s

A

Thiamine, B1, red cell transketolase

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16
Q

Glossitis, Angular Stomatitis, corneal ulceration

A

Riboflavin, B2, glutathione reductase

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17
Q

Dementia, Diarrhoea, Dermatitis (Casal’s necklace)

A

Niacin, B3

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18
Q

Dermatitis and anaemia, neuropathy if high

A

Pyridoxine, B6, red cell AST activation

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19
Q

megaloblastic anaemia

A

B12, serum b12

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20
Q

Bleeding gums, if high, causes stones

A

Vitamin C

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21
Q

hypothyroidism and goitre, deficiency

A

Iodine

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22
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

raised copper, low ceruloplasmin

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23
Q

dental caries

A

fluoride

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24
Q

Hypoinsulinaemia and hypoglycaemia without ketones

A

inerhited metabolic disorder

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25
Q

Enzyme raised in rhabdomyolysis

A

Creatinine kinase

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26
Q

A condition that causes hepatic cirrhosis and portal hypertension in some and cardiomyopathy in others

A

Haemochromatosis

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27
Q

present with joint pain, splenomegaly, skin rash, nerve and kidney involvement – Ig precipitate at low temperatures.

A

Hepatitis C Cryoglublinaemia

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28
Q

megakarycotes dominate BM, 50% JAK-2, platelet count > 600 x 109, see DVT or PEs or haemorrhage (as platelets dysfunctional), erythromelalgia, splenomegaly, dizziness, headache, visual disturbances

A

Essential Thrombocythaemia

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29
Q

– where haemoglobin in urine due to viral infection then on rewarming they get complement mediated haemolysis – see Donath-Landsteiner antibodies, it is self-limiting, transfusion if severe anaemia.

A

Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria

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30
Q

TTP

A 
MAHA
Fever
Renal failure
CNS signs
Haematuria
Low platelets
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31
Q

antibodies against GpIIb/IIIa on platelets; self-limiting in children, chronic in adults

A

ITP

32
Q

<37*C, IgM, positive DAT, spherocytes, often with Raynaud’s, causes = primary idiopathic, lymphoma, infections – EBV and mycoplasma, treat underlying condition, avoid cold and give chlorambucil.

A

Cold Agglutinins Cold AIHA

33
Q

Low ferritin anaemia

A

IDA

34
Q

Raised ferritin anaemia

A

Anaemia of chronic disease

35
Q

Normal ferritin anaemia

A

Thalassaemia

36
Q

When is TIBC low rather than high?

A

Haemochromatosis and chronic haemolysis

37
Q

Anti-Xa assay

A

Monitor heparin

38
Q

Fibrinogen is low in

A

Liver disease and DIC

39
Q

D-dimer is to rule out

A

PE

40
Q

Physiological changes in pregnancy

A 
Mild anaemia but RBC mass rises
Plasma volume also rises so net dilution
Macrocytosis
Neutrophilia
Less platelets, but bigger size
41
Q

Pre-eclampsia, low platelet + abnormal clotting

A

DIC

42
Q

Haedache and Seizures, signs of MAHA

A

TTP

43
Q

After transfusion, temperature is over 40

A

Bacterial infection

44
Q

Recurrent hypoglycaemic attacks

A

Insulinoma

45
Q

Recurrent ulcers

A

Zollinger Ellison Syndrome

46
Q

Prolonged watery diarrhoea tumour of pancreas

A

VIPoma

47
Q

Tumour of alpha cells of pancreas, necrolytic migratory erythema, raised glucose, lots of gluconeogenesis

A

Glucagonoma

48
Q

fat necrosis tumour, lots of non specific symptoms

A

Acinar cell carcinoma

49
Q

multiparous, poorly defined palpable periareolar mass with thick, white nipple secretions, may cause pain and nipple retraction and little blood, granulomatous inflammation and dilation of large breast ducts as acini secretions

A

Duct ectasia

50
Q

mobile lump

A

fibroadenoma

51
Q

bloody discharge, lump not seen

A

duct papilloma

52
Q

Non-smokers cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

53
Q

Responds to chemo lung cancer

A

small lung cell carcinoma

54
Q

Guy being hit on the side of his head + lucid interval, which artery did her burst

A

middle meningeal for extradural

55
Q

CATCH 22

A 
cardiac problems
atresia
thymus aplasia
cleft palate
hypocalcaemia
22q11 deletion
56
Q

E Coli 0157, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and renal damage

A

HUS

57
Q

Tinea capitis

A

scalp affected

58
Q

Tinea corporis

A

ring worm on rest of body

59
Q

Tricophyton Rubrum

A

Athletes foot

60
Q

old people meningitis gram positive rod or bacilli

A

Listeria

61
Q

What sexually transmitted bacteria can transmit to baby via placenta, esp in late pregnancy

A

Syphillis

62
Q

What protozoa infection in pregnancy can be passed on to baby

A

Toxoplasmosis

63
Q

Neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

64
Q

Causes hydrops fetalis if caught in first 20 weeks

A

Parvovirus B19

65
Q

Disease that require C-section if mother has an outbreak at 34wks or later due to risk of transmission vaginally

A

Genital Herpes

66
Q

Disease which if transmitted to baby: they can initially be symptomless but then come down with problems - long term sequelae.

A

CMV maybe

67
Q

Broad spec, no pseudomonal activity usually given with a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

Amoxicillin

68
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitor used to treat Pseudomonal infections but bad against anaerobes

A

Ciprofloxacin

69
Q

Macrolide/lincosamide/streptogrammin group used to treat some atypical pneumonias

A

Erythromycin

70
Q

Vaccine prevents Lockjaw symptom

A

Tetanus

71
Q

Appendix that is full of neutrophils and is enlarged touching the peritoneum

A

Inflammation

72
Q

What material is seen in the vessel of a patient with an MI due to burst atheroma

A

plaque

73
Q

Patient had an appendectomy 1 week ago. What would you see in their scar

A

Granulation tissue

74
Q

Radiosensitive cancer of the testicle in a young man with a white/smooth appearence?

A

Seminoma

75
Q

Patient with a cancer in their bladder following chronic

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

76
Q

Myeloma like patient but has lymphadenopathy, hyperviscosity and hepatosplenomegaly IgM involved

A

Waldenstroms Macroglobulinaemia

77
Q

70-something year old, overweight patient with diabetes presents with chronic back pain and mildly raised creatinine. GFR was 55? Paraprotein at 12g/dl

A

MGUS consider possible Amyloidosis

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