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MicroBio Lab > Animal Physiology > Flashcards

Animal Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is another name for the fed state that occurs after a meal is consumed?

A

Absorptive state

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2
Q

What happens to good glucose in the body?

A

it is used for lipogenesis

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3
Q

When the level of the glucose pool falls below​ normal, which of the following tissues is still able to access glucose from the​ plasma?

A

Brain

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4
Q

What are the main molecules used for​ gluconeogenesis?

A

Amino acids

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5
Q

Which pathway is the opposite of​ gluconeogenesis?

A

Glycolysis

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6
Q

Question content area
Part A
A patient has a gene mutation that does not allow hormones to stimulate the activity of enzymes in the fed state. Based on​ push-pull control, which do you​ expect?

A

More glucose and less​ glycogen, because insulin cannot activate enzymes

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7
Q

A student is fasting for religious reasons. Which would you​ expect?

A

Increased glycogenolysis and increased lipolysis

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8
Q

What is the ultimate fate of proteins in the fasted​ state?

A

Deamination of amino acids in the liver

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9
Q

target cells do not respond normally to insulin.

A

type 2

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10
Q

no insulin is produced

A

type one

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11
Q

glucose levels remain higher than normal

A

both type one and type two

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12
Q

Insulin is produced by the​ __________ cells of the pancreas.

A

beta

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13
Q

Why is glucose present in the urine of people with diabetes​ mellitus?

A

Insulin target cells are not able to take in the glucose from the​ blood, resulting in hyperglycemia and saturation of kidney glucose transporters.

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14
Q

in the fasted​ state, which hormone combination would​ occur?

A

Higher glucagon and lower insulin

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15
Q

How does the binding of insulin to its receptor stimulate glucose uptake from the​ bloodstream?

A

It stimulates insertion of GLUT4 transporters in the cell membrane.

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16
Q

Which is a difference between the reflex loops for insulin and​ glucagon?

A

One stimulates installation of glucose carriers in target cell​ membranes, and the other does not.

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17
Q

What causes most cases of type 1 diabetes​ mellitus?

A

Antibodies and leukocytes destroy beta cells.

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18
Q

Information coming into the central nervous system is transmitted along​ ________ neurons.

A

afferent and sensory

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19
Q

Exocrine​ glands, smooth​ muscles, and cardiac muscles are controlled by the

A

autonomic division

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20
Q

the enteric nervous system is a network of neurons that functions in controlling

A

digestion

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21
Q

in general the nervous system is made of which two cells
1. motor
2. neurons
3. sensory
4. glia
5. associative

A

2 and 4

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22
Q

Arrange the following events in the proper​ sequence:
1. Efferent neuron graded potential reaches threshold and fires an action potential.
2. Afferent neuron graded potential reaches threshold and fires an action potential.
3. Target organ responds.
4. CNS reaches decision about response.
5. Sensory receptor detects change in the environment.

A

5,2,4,1,3

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23
Q

The region where the axon terminal meets its target cell is called the

A

synapse

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24
Q

Where do most action potentials​ originate?

A

Initial segment

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25
Q

What opens first in response to a threshold​ stimulus?

A

​Voltage-gated Na Superscript ​+ channels

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26
Q

What characterizes​ depolarization, the first phase of the action​ potential?

A

The membrane potential changes from a negative value to a positive value.

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27
Q

What characterizes​ repolarization, the second phase of the action​ potential?

A

Once the membrane depolarizes to a peak value of​ +30 mV, it repolarizes to its negative resting value of​ -70 mV.

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28
Q

What event triggers the generation of an action​ potential?

A

The membrane potential must depolarize from the resting voltage of​ -70 mV to a threshold value of​ -55 mV.

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29
Q

What is the first change to occur in response to a threshold​ stimulus?

A

​Voltage-gated Na Superscript ​+ channels change​ shape, and their activation gates open.

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30
Q

What type of conduction takes place in unmyelinated​ axons?

A

Continuous conduction

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31
Q

An action potential is​ self-regenerating because​ __________.

A

depolarizing currents established by the influx of Na Superscript ​+​‎ flow down the axon and trigger an action potential at the next segment

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32
Q

Why does regeneration of the action potential occur in one​ direction, rather than in two​ directions?

A

The inactivation gates of​ voltage-gated Na Superscript ​+​‎ channels close in the​ node, or​ segment, that has just fired an action potential.

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33
Q

What is the function of the myelin​ sheath?

A

The myelin sheath increases the speed of action potential conduction from the initial segment to the axon terminals.

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34
Q

What changes occur to​ voltage-gated Na Superscript ​+ and K Superscript ​+ channels at the peak of​ depolarization?

A

Inactivation gates of​ voltage-gated Na Superscript ​+​‎ channels​ close, while activation gates of​ voltage-gated K Superscript ​+​‎ channels open.

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35
Q

In which type of axon will velocity of action potential conduction be the​ fastest?

A

Myelinated axons with the largest diameter

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36
Q

What does the​ Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation take into account that the Nernst equation does​ NOT?

A

the permeabilities of the ions

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37
Q

Which is the correctly written Nernst​ equation?

A

​61/z × log ​[ion] Subscript out​ / ​[ion] Subscript in

38
Q

The resting membrane potential results from

A

uneven distribution of ions across the cell membrane and differences in membrane permeability to ions.

39
Q

he rising phase of the action potential is due to

A

Na Superscript ​+ flow into the cell only.

40
Q

The falling phase of the action potential is due mainly to

A

K Superscript ​+ flow out of the cell only.

41
Q

Choose the items that are correctly matched.

A

activation gate​ - opens during depolarization

42
Q

The absolute refractory period of an action potential

A

ensures​ one-way travel down an​ axon, allows a neuron to ignore a second signal sent that closely follows the​ first, and prevents summation of action potentials.

43
Q

In the membrane of a resting nerve​ cell, when chemically gated Cl Superscript ​- channels​ open,

A

Cl Superscript ​- ions enter the cell.

44
Q

Which will best increase the conduction rate of action​ potentials?

A

Increase the diameter of the​ axon, increase the resistance of the axon membrane to ion leakage.

45
Q

Which does NOT influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be conducted by a​ neuron?

A

whether axon is sensory or motor

46
Q

If the resting​ axon’s membrane becomes more permeable to potassium​ ions,

A

it will take a stimulus of larger magnitude to initiate an action potential.

47
Q

How would the absolute refractory period be affected if​ voltage-gated sodium channels remained​ inactivated?

A

longer than normal

48
Q

When comparing action potentials to graded​ potentials, an/two important distinguishing​ characteristic/s is/are

A

graded potentials can undergo summation and the rate of action potentials is limited by the refractory period.

49
Q

The primary problem in hyperkalemia is that

A

neurons are easier to excite because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.

50
Q

What would happen to the membrane potential if a resting cell suddenly became more permeable to Ca Superscript ​++​?

A

it would depolarize

51
Q

What triggers exocytosis of synaptic vesicle contents from an axon​ terminal?

A

The opening of​ voltage-gated Ca Superscript ​2+ channels

52
Q

Which is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the​ brain?

A

GABA

53
Q

The inhibitory neurotransmitters of the CNS act by opening​ ________ channels.

A

only Cl Superscript ​-

54
Q

Which is NOT a known drug effect on synaptic​ function?

A

change the type of neurotransmitter found in the synaptic vesicle

55
Q

When more action potentials arrive at the axon​ terminal, how are neurotransmitters​ affected?

A

More molecules are released into the synapse.

56
Q

The following are steps involved in transmission at the cholinergic​ synapse:
1. Chemically gated ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane are opened.
2. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal.
3. An action potential depolarizes the axon terminal at the presynaptic membrane.
4. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis.
5. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
The correct sequence for these events is

A

3,2,4,5,1

57
Q

Which type of receptor would bind acetylcholine and be found in skeletal​ muscle?

A

Nicotinic cholinergic

58
Q

An excitatory postsynaptic potential​ (EPSP)

A

depolarizes a​ neuron, increasing the likelihood of an action potential.

59
Q

A patient had a trauma that damaged an endocrine​ gland, causing decreased hormone secretion. Which of the following would you​ expect?

A

Decreased negative feedback and decreased cellular responses

60
Q

Which of the following is the best example of negative​ feedback?

A

Thyroid hormone​ (TH) released into the bloodstream causes increased cellular metabolism and increased body​ temperature, inhibiting TH release.

61
Q

Endocrine pathologies can occur through excess​ secretion, inadequate​ secretion, and what other​ mechanism?

A

Abnormal target cell response

62
Q

The endocrine gland that is modified sympathetic ganglia is the

A

adrenal medulla.

63
Q

Cholesterol is the starting material for the synthesis of

A

progesterone, aldosterone, and estradiol.

64
Q

Cortisol has which​ effects?

A

suppresses the immune system and influences brain function

65
Q

Without​ cortisol’s permissive effect on​ ________, an animal would die.

A

glucagon

66
Q

Melanocortins includes one or more of the following

A

ACTH and MSH

67
Q

Increased cortisol would NOT cause which of the​ following?

A

increased ACTH levels

68
Q

The common precursor for all steroid hormones is​ __________.

A

cholesterol

69
Q

Which of these following would be a cause of secondary​ hypercortisolism?

A

A cancerous tumor secreting ACTH

70
Q

A patient has a disease that destroys cells that secrete cortisol. Which of the following would you expect to​ find?

A

Increased CRH and increased ACTH

71
Q

The effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissue include

A

increased adrenergic effects in the heart

72
Q

C cells of the thyroid gland secrete​ __________.

A

calcitonin

73
Q

Which of the following is the site of dysfunction in someone who has excessive TSH and excessive thyroid hormones but low​ TRH?

A

Anterior pituitary

74
Q

Parathyroid hormone

increases the level of calcium ion in the blood.
stimulates osteoclast activity.
increases the rate of calcium absorption.
decreases the rate of calcium excretion.
All of these answers are correct.

A

all of the above

75
Q

Which of the following is an action of growth​ hormone?

A

Increased​ insulin-like growth factor secretion

76
Q

Which statement most accurately describes how the sex of a human embryo is​ determined?

A

Embryos with the SRY gene become​ male; embryos without the gene become female.

77
Q

A baby is born with female external genitalia but has male internal genitalia. After running a few​ tests, you discover that the levels of​ 5-a reductase are normal. Which of the following statements best describes a condition that might have caused​ this?

A

The developing testis produced too little testosterone during development.

78
Q

Which statement is true about gamete​ formation?

A

Human females are thought to be born with all the primary gametes they will ever have.

79
Q

Which hormone released from the hypothalamus regulates gonad​ function?

A

​Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

80
Q

What is unique about GnRH secretion patterns from the​ hypothalamus?

A

GnRH is secreted in a pulsatile manner.

81
Q

Testosterone are produced by the​ __________in testes

A

interstitial cells of Leydig

82
Q

In​ males, what is the target of​ FSH, and what effect does it​ have?

A

Sertoli​ cells; production of paracrine factors

83
Q

The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the​ __________ phase.

A

follicular

84
Q

What is the third phase of the ovarian cycle​ called, and what occurs during this​ time?

A

Luteal​ phase; transformation of a ruptured follicle into a corpus luteum

85
Q

Which hormone is the most important regulator of endometrium proliferation during the follicular​ phase?

A

estrogen

86
Q

What causes the LH surge that occurs during the late follicular​ phase?

A

Increasing progesterone and high estrogen increase pituitary responsiveness to GnRH.

87
Q

The role of the corpus luteum is to secrete​ __________.

A

progesterone and estrogen

88
Q

In the follicular phase of the ovarian​ cycle, the ovary is

A

maturing a follicle.

89
Q

In the late follicular phase of the ovarian​ cycle, the level of LH secretion is​ ________ the level of FSH secretion.

A

greater than

90
Q

The enzyme responsible for converting androgens to estrogens is

A

aromatase

91
Q

To which method of contraception does a contraceptive sponge​ belong?

A

barrier

MicroBio Lab (14 decks)

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