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MODULE 3 - Gastrointestinal System > ANIMAL HUSBANDRY - Equine Husbandry > Flashcards

ANIMAL HUSBANDRY - Equine Husbandry Flashcards

- Passport legislation - Methods of Equine Identification

1
Q

What are the five methods that can be used for horse identification?

A

Markings and colours
Microchip
Tattoos
Branding
Iris scanning

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2
Q

What are the two types of branding used for equids?

A

Freeze branding
Hot branding

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3
Q

What are the two main benefits of equine branding?

A

Identification
Deter theft

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4
Q

What does the ‘loss of use’ brand indicate? Ⓛ

A

The ‘loss of use’ brand shows that a horse has been deemed unfit for purpose Ⓛ

The owner of the horse will be compensated for this by their insurance company

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5
Q

Is equine tattooing legal in the UK?

A

NO, equine tattooing is illegal in the UK

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6
Q

In which horse industry is tattooing most commonly used?

A

Race horses are commonly tattooed

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7
Q

Where on their bodies are race horses tattooed?

A

Race horses are tattooed on the inside of their upper lip

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8
Q

What are the laws for equid identification?

A

Foals must be microchipped and have a passport by 6 months of age or by the 31st of December in the year of birth

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9
Q

(T/F) It is illegal to keep a horse without a passport

A

TRUE

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10
Q

Who is responsible for providing a horse with a passport?

A

It is the keepers responsibility to provide their horse with a passport

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11
Q

What are the laws regarding the transportation/moving of horses?

A

During the transportation of horses, it is mandatory that the passport should accompany the horse at all times

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12
Q

Where should a microchip be implanted into an equid?

A

A microchip should be implanted into the Nuchal ligament

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13
Q

What should vets always check before administering or supplying medications for an equid?

A

Vets should always check the passport before administering or suppling medications to an equid

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14
Q

Give four examples of markings that can be used to identify an equid

A

White markings
Whorls
Congenital abnormalities
Acquired markings (scars, brands etc.)

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15
Q

Why are there so few truly white horses?

A

The phenotype leading to a truly white horse is associated with an autosomal genetic disorder known as Lethal White Foal Syndrome

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16
Q

What is a Filly?

A

A Filly is a female equid up to four years old

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17
Q

What is a Colt?

A

A Colt is a male equid up to four years old

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18
Q

What is a Gelding?

A

A Gelding is a castrated male equid

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19
Q

What is a Stallion?

A

A Stallion in an intact male equid over four years old

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20
Q

What is a Mare?

A

A Mare is a female equid over four years old

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21
Q

What is a Weanling?

A

A Weanling is a weaned foal usually between six months and one year of age

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22
Q

What is a Yearling?

A

A Yearling is a one year old foal

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23
Q

What are three methods that can be used to estimate a horse’s weight?

A

Estimation by eye
Estimation by weigh tape
Estimation by formulae

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24
Q

Which piece of equipment provides an accurate value of a horse’s weight?

A

A platform scale

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25
Q

Give five examples of things that equine body condition scoring can be used to assess?

A

General health
Fertility in mares
Monitoring responses to medical treatment
Monitoring changes in feed intake
Ensuring adequate nutrition

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26
Q

What are the two equine body condition scoring methods?

A

0 to 5 point scale
1 to 9 point scale

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27
Q

Using the 0 to 5 point scale, what body condition score should a healthy equid be?

A

A healthy equid would have a body condition score of between 2 and 4

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28
Q

Using the 1 to 9 point scale, what body condition score should a healthy equid be?

A

A health equid would have a body condition score of between 4 and 6

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29
Q

What is the main benefit of the 1 to 9 point body condition scale?

A

The 1 to 9 point scale allows for considerable variation in the fat deposition seen in individual horses

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30
Q

What are the three main horse management premises?

A

Private premises
Riding stable
Livery yard

31
Q

What is required for an establishment to be officially regarded as a riding stable?

A

A riding stable must follow the riding establishment legislation

32
Q

Give five reasons why people may house their horses in stables

A

Limited grazing availability
Prevent over-grazing
Monitor health
For convenience
Avoid bullying from other horses

33
Q

What is the main disadvantage of housing horses in stables?

A

Horses are social animals so housing them in stables isolates them and prevents them from exhibiting natural behaviours

34
Q

What are the four main types of equid housing?

A

Stalls
Loose boxes
American barns
loose housing

35
Q

What are the stable size requirements for horses?

A

3.65m x 3.65m

36
Q

What are the stable size requirements for ponies?

A

3.05m x 3.05m

37
Q

What are the stable size requirements for a foaling box?

A

5m x 5m

38
Q

How much water should a horse consume daily?

A

60ml/kg per day

39
Q

How much dry matter should a horse be fed?

A

2% of their body weight should be fed in dry matter

40
Q

At what age do the first deciduous incisors erupt in foals?

A

0-2 weeks old

41
Q

At what age do the second deciduous incisors erupt in foals?

A

2-6 weeks old

42
Q

At what age do the third deciduous incisors erupt in foals?

A

6-9 months

43
Q

At what age do the first incisors erupt in equids?

A

2.5 years

44
Q

At what age do the first incisors begin to wear in equids?

A

3 years

45
Q

At what age do the second incisors erupt in equids?

A

3.5 years

46
Q

At what age do the second incisors begin to wear in equids?

A

4 years

47
Q

At what age do the third incisors erupt in equids?

A

4.5 years

48
Q

At what age do the third incisors begin to wear in equids?

A

5 years

49
Q

How often should you do an equine dental check?

A

Annually

50
Q

How often should a horses’ feet be trimmed and re-shoed?

A

A horses’ feet should be trimmed and re-shoed every 4-8 weeks

51
Q

What is a common cause of bilateral lameness in horses?

A

Laminitis

52
Q

What is laminitis?

A

Laminitis is inflammation of the laminae leading to detachment of the inner hoof wall to the pedal bone

53
Q

Which two conditions are pre-disposing factors to laminitis?

A

Obesity
Equine metabolic syndrome (EMS)

54
Q

What is severe equine asthma?

A

Severe equine asthma is a hypersensitivity reaction to respirable organic particles

55
Q

How would you reduce the quantity of respirable dust particles that the hay would release while a horse is eating it to reduce the effects of severe equine asthma?

A

Soak the hay by full emersion for 30 to 60 minutes

56
Q

When horses arrive to a new yard, what are the three biosecurity requirements?

A

Isolation for at least two weeks
Deworming
Screening for infection

57
Q

What is the first thing that should be done if there is an equine disease outbreak?

A

The suspected clinical cases of the disease should be isolated and tested

58
Q

What are the two horse vaccinations recommended in the UK?

A

Equine influenza vaccine
Tetanus vaccine

59
Q

Which vaccination does the British Horse racing Authority require race horses to have had?

A

Race horses require the equine influenza vaccine

60
Q

What is the equine influenza vaccination regimen according to the British Horse racing authority?

A

First and second influenza vaccines one month apart
Third influenza vaccine five months after the second
Six monthly boosters

61
Q

What is the tetanus vaccination regimen according to the British Horse racing authority?

A

First and second tetanus vaccines one month apart
Booster every two-three years

62
Q

What is the largest equine ascarid?

A

Parascaris equorum (P. equorum)

63
Q

Why is Parascaris equorum (P. equorum) mainly seen in foals, weanlings and yearlings?

A

Adult horses have developed an immunity against P. equorum

64
Q

How do Parascaris equorum (P. equorum) cause harm to the host?

A

Parascaris equorum (P. equorum) larvae cause tissue damage during migration, and adult Parascaris equorum (P. equorum) compete with the host for nutrition and can cause obstruction of the intestine leading to colic

65
Q

What is a large strongyle often seen in horses?

A

Strongylus vulgaris (S. vulgaris)

66
Q

Where in the horse gastrointestinal system do Strongylus vulgaris (S. vulgaris) adults reside?

A

Strongylus vulgaris (S. vulgaris) attach to the mucosa of the caecum and the colon

67
Q

How do Strongylus vulgaris (S. vulgaris) cause harm to the host?

A

Strongylus vulgaris (S. vulgaris) larvae migrate via arterioles causing thromboembolic colic and ischaemia

68
Q

What is a family of small strongyles often seen in horses?

A

Cyathostomins

69
Q

Where in the horse gastrointestinal system do Cyathostomin adults reside?

A

Cyathostomin adults reside in the caecum and the colon

70
Q

What are the two ways Cyathostomin larvae can cause harm to the host?

A

L3 larvae encysts in the colon mucosa and can either develop into L4 larvae and rupture the mucosa or enter hyperbiosis leading to the eventual synchronised eruption of thousands of larvae causing severe inflammation and life threatening colitis

71
Q

What are the most common equine cestodes?

A

Anoplocephala perfoliata (A. perfoliata)

72
Q

Where in the horse gastrointestinal tract Anoplocephala perfoliata (A. perfoliata) adults reside?

A

Anoplocephala perfoliata (A. perfoliata) adults reside at the ileocaecal orifice

73
Q

What is colic?

A

The collective term used to describe clinical signs of abdominal pain

74
Q

What are three pre-disposing factors to equine gastric ulceration syndrome?

A

Thoroughbreds
High intensity exercise
High starch/grain intake

MODULE 3 - Gastrointestinal System (17 decks)

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