Anaesthesia 2 Flashcards

1
Q

TIDAL VOLUME

A

Volume of air breathed in or out in ONE respiratory cycle

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2
Q

RESIDUAL VOLUME:

A

Air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration

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3
Q

MINUTE VOLUME

A

The air that’s moved in and out of the lungs in 1minute
Tidal volume x respiratory rate

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4
Q

TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY

A

Total amount of air in the lungs in one breath

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5
Q

EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME (ERV):

A

Is the total volume of air that can be voluntarily expired in normal
breathing

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6
Q

INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME (IRV):

A

Is the volume of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume

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7
Q

VITAL CAPACITY:

A

Is the maximum amount of air that a person can expel from the
lungs after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent

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8
Q

FUNCTIONAL RESIDUE CAPACITY (FRC):

A

Air left in lungs after a quiet respiration (Normal out after a normal breath in!)

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9
Q

Define Compliance in Anaesthesia

A

Measurement of pressure in breathing system
Affects the tidal volume of gas the patient receives
Increases in compliance can decrease tidal volume

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10
Q

Narcotic

A

dulls the senses, relieves pain, and induces profound sleep

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11
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia

A

tranquilising drug and an analgesic

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12
Q

Anaesthetic sparing effect

A

Some medical agents have the ability to reduce the need for the full anaesthetic agent dose e.g. pre-meds, N2O

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13
Q

Second gas effect

A

Occurs when a soluble first gas is delivered increases the alveolar concentrations of other gases present, accelerating their uptake.

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14
Q

Triad of Balanced Anaesthesia

A

Loss of concentration
Muscle relaxation
Analgesia

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15
Q

Antiepileptics

A

Phenobarbitone
Diazepam
Potassium Bromide

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16
Q

Sedative and tranquillisers

A

Phenothiazines
A2 agonist
Ketamine
Benzodiazepines
Anticholinergics/Parasympatholytics

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17
Q

Opioids (analgesics)

A

Morphine
Methadone
Pethidine
Fentanyl
Alfentanyl
Butorphanol
Buprenorphine
Naloxone

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18
Q

Phenothiazines

A

Acepromazine

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19
Q

A2 agonist

A

Medetomidine
Dexmedetomidine

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20
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam
Midazolam

21
Q

Anticholinergics/
Parasympatholytics

A

Atropine
Glycopyrrolate

22
Q

Common Sedative and an opiate
analgesic combinations for pre med

A
  • Benzodiazepine and opiate
  • Phenothiazine and opiate
  • Alpha-2 agonist and opiate
23
Q

Dissociative Anaesthetics

A

Drugs in this group induce CNS depression characterised by
feeling dissociated from surroundings

24
Q

TIVA

A

“Total intravenous anaesthesia”

25
Q

PIVA

A

“Partial intravenous anaesthesia”

26
Q

Benefits of TIVA

A

good when inhalant agent hard to give, e.g. Bronchoscopy
* Triad of balanced anaesthesia

27
Q

Benefits of PIVA

A

Often need syringe driver, and more complex protocol
* Anaesthetic machine needed

28
Q

What drug groups are used for anaesthesia lasting long enough to perform a short procedure without the need for a maintenance agent

A

Alpha-2 agonist sedatives
Opiates
Ketamine

29
Q

nitrous oxide is a gas that is

A

liquid at room temperature

30
Q

How does anaesthesia effect the body to induce unconsciousness

A

1.Inhaled into the lungs
2.Cross the alveolar membrane and
pulmonary capillary endothelium
3.Dissolve in the blood and taken via pulmonary circulation to LHS heart and to all body tissues
4.Cross the blood-brain barrier
5.Exert effect= unconsciousness

31
Q

Oxygen should be administered at concentrations between

A

33-100%

32
Q

how does N2O effect cardiovascular and respiratory function

A

Minimal effect on cardiovascular and respiratory system

33
Q

Highest concentration of N20 that can be used

A

70%

34
Q

Which circuits cannot be used with N20

A

Not suitable for circle or “to and fro” circuits

35
Q

Contraindications of N20

A

pneumothorax,
bowel obstruction,
middle ear surgery
retinal surgeries

36
Q

What is Saturated Vapour Pressure

A

is the pressure of a vapour
when it is in equilibrium with the liquid phase

37
Q

How to Limit Pollution?

A

Vaporisers should be filled at the end of the day
Scavenging
Charcoal canisters do not absorb nitrous oxide
Correct ET tube size/cuff
inflated

38
Q

Dorsal recumbency can impair ventilation by…

A

Pressure on diaphragm from abdominal contents

39
Q

NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKING AGENTS provides

A

1.full body relaxation
2.Less inhalent

40
Q

When Would You Use A NMBA?

A

INTRAOCULAR SURGERY
IPPV
LAPAROTOMY
THORACIC SURGERY
CV UNSTABLE/HIGH RISK PATIENTS
OESOPHAGEAL FB’s

41
Q

NMBA Mode of Action

A

Act on neuromuscular junction
* Stopping transmission of motor nerve impulses to striated
muscle

42
Q

Depolarising NMBA’s drug example

A

Suxamethonium

43
Q

how does a Depolarising NMBA’s work

A

depolarises a muscle without a further contraction
-Can leave patients muscles sore.

44
Q

Non-depolarising NMBA drug example

A

vecuronium and atricurium

45
Q

how does Non-depolarising NMBA work

A

Do not open channels
Do not contract the muscle

46
Q

How to monitor patient given NMBA’s

A

accelerometer
observation
Palpation of muscle twitch

47
Q

how does an accelerometer work

A

electrically stimulating superficial peripheral nerve, and measuring responsive muscle contraction

48
Q

How To Reverse NMBA

A

Non-depolarising agents are reversed by Antiacetylcholinesterase