AN(HK)O Flashcards

0
Q

Members of Flight Crew - requirement of licences

A

(1) not act as flight crew on HK a/c unless holder of appropriate license granted of validated here under
(4) except for training and testing if
(a) no other person carried except crew, witness or authorised by CE, trainee
(b) acting pilot either
(1) qualified pilot HM Forces within 6 months
(2) holds license granted or validated here under and purpose is to qualify for grant of licence or additional type rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Composition of Crew

A

(1) crew no. and description as req. by law of country of registration.
(2) HK: adequate in no. and description to ensure safety, at least as in C of A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Grant, renewal, effect of licenses

A

20 (1) (a)
CE may grant licence of class spec. in sched 9A,
authorising holder to act as flight crew in HK a/c, if satisfied applicant is fit and qualified by
Knowledge, experience, competence, skill, language ability, physical/mental fitness.
Candidate to furnish evidence and undergo examinations, undertake training as required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Validity of aircraft rating

A

20 (4) (a)

Not exercise privilege of AR unless bearing valid C of T/C of E appropriate to function (except balloons and airships).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Approvals, authorisations

A
20 (11)
CE may grant without prejudice
(a) training course/instruction approval
(b) authorise examiner
(c) approve instructor
(d) approve person to furnish reports/accept reports
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Personal Flying Logbook - Simulator tests

A
22 (4)
Particulars of exam undertaken in sim recorded
(a) date
(b) type of sim
(c) capacity holder acted in
(d) nature of exam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Instruction in Flying

A

23
(1) not give instruction in flying unless
(a) license entitles to be pilot in command
(b) license includes flying instructor’s/assistant FI’s rating
(2) Applies to instruction for grant of license/rating.
Except if instruction given for aircraft rating to person previously entitled under order or in HM Forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Operations Manual

A

25
(2)(a)
Operator shall
(i) make available to each member of his operating staff an Ops Manual
(ii) ensure copies of manual are kept up to date
(iii) ensure each crew member has access to every relevant part on the flight
Schedule 11 A contains required inclusions in operations manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Training Manual

A

26 (1)
Operator of aircraft for public transport shall
(a) make training manual to every person appointed for training/examining.
(b) ensure copy of manual kept up to date
Schedule 11 C contents of Training Manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Operator’s Responsibilities - Training and Testing

A

27 (2)
Operator not permit person part of crew for public transport (except sole purpose training flight) unless person has had training, experience, practice, and periodical tests specified in Schedule 11 B; operator satisfied person is competent; operator maintains, preserves, produces, furnishes records in acc. Schedule 11 B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Operator’s Responsibilities - Emergency Maneuvers

A

27 (3)

Operator shall not permit simulating emergency manoeuvres and procedures during public transport flights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Aerodrome Operating Minima

A

30
(1)(a) Operator requiring OM shall establish and include aerodrome operating minima for all origins, destinations, alternates, or provide in writing minima calculated acc. to specified method, retain for 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Approach Ban

A

30 (5)
If OM required, when making instrument approach
(a) if relevant RVR less than minimum, NOT continue below 1000’ AAL.
(b) if VIS or controlling RVR falls below minima after passing 1000’ AAL, may continue to DA(H)/ MDA(H).
(5A) Unless specified visual references acquired may NOT continue below min altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fatigue of Crew - Responsibility of Crew

A

55

(1) person shall NOT act as member of crew if knows or reasonably suspects that is or will be suffering from such fatigue as may endanger safety of flight.
(2) person shall NOT act as crew member unless ensured that operator is aware of flight times last 28 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Appeal Procedure - Flight crew licenses

A

96
(1) Appeal to Court of First Instance, court may reverse decision, provided not for decision that person is not qualified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Radio and Navigation Eqt to be carried

A

Schedule 6
Y: IFR, R/T, ILS, ALT, Public Transport IFR/ME VFR - SE VFR, Turbine
X: COM, NAV, MET, APR, SSR, VDA, ILS, VDAM, ACAS

16
Q

License Requirements - CPL ATPL age limit

A

Schedule 9 A
CPL 18 years - max 10 years valid
ATPL 21 years - max 10 years valid

17
Q

Ratings

A
Schedule 9 B
Aircraft: Act as pilot of types specified
Instrument: Act as pilot in controlled airspace under IFR.
PPL night
Towing
FI
AFI
FE
18
Q

C of T Requirements

A

Schedule 9 C
Remunerated carriage of passengers: C of T
Public Transport: C of T
Aerial work, PPL or within privilege thereof: C of T or E.

19
Q

PT - crew tests

A

Schedule 11 B
1 (1) The Crew
(a) Tested within relevant period on use of life saving and emergency equipment
(b) Tested on emergency duties

20
Q

PT Pilot Tests

A

Schedule 11 B

(2) Every pilot tested when
(a) IFR
(i) competence performing normal manoeuvres (in flight)
(ii) competence executing emergency manoeuvres and procedures (in flight or sim)
(b) Non-IFR
(i) (ii) competence executing normal and emergency manoeuvres and procedures (in flight)
(c) every pilot seated at controls during TO/LDG
(i) tested on proficiency using instrument approach-to-land types used at airports of intended landing and alternates (flight or sim).
(ii) 3 TO/LDG
(d) Helicopters

21
Q

Commander’s requirements

A

Aircraft commanders
(a) demonstrated knowledge of route
(i - iv) terrain, seasonal meteo, comms/ATC, SAR/NAV
(b) factors affecting determination of sufficient knowledge

22
Q

Relevant periods

A

Schedule 11 B
(6)
(a) Landing recency: 3 months
(b) Pilot emergency manoeuvres, IAL: 6 months
(c) Crew emergency Eqt, duties, pilot normal manoeuvres, Commander’s knowledge: 13 months
Provided that:
(i) Pilot emergency manoeuvres: 13 months if 2 tests separated by not less than 4 months.
(ii) Commander’s knowledge complied with if operated on route within 13 months.

23
Q

Records

A

Schedule 11 B 2

(1) maintained to show on any date 2 years immediately preceeding
(a) date and particulars of all tests
(b) date of emergency duty practice
(c) conclusion as to competence
(d) date and particulars of decision on Commander’s knowledge

24
Q

Training Manual

A

Schedule 11 C

(i) manner in which tests are carried out
(ii) min qualification, training given to, types authorised for trainers/examiners
(iii) min. qualification/experience of trainees
(iv) syllabus
(v) manner of simulating IMC and OEI in flight
(vi) extent training/testing permitted on public transport flights.
(vii) use of training apparatus

25
Q

Documents to be carried

A

Schedule 12
Public Transport
Radio station license, C of A (AFM not needed if OM contains LIM, ABN, PER), flight crew licenses, load sheet copy, CMR, Tech Log, OM
plus … For external air navigation