Allergy and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Role for IV epi in anaphylaxis

A
  • after repeated doses of IM epi
  • persistent hypotension despite fluid resuscitation wtih 20mL/kg of NS

concentration 0.1mg/mL (1:10,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Biphasic reaction

A
  • most are in first 4-6 hrs (range 1-72 hrs)

- higher risk if delayed epi, more than 1 epi doses, more severe sx (b-agonist given, wide pulse pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

25kg epipen

A

0.3mg IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Skin prick testing pros:

A
  • results within 15 minutes
  • more sensitive
  • high negative predictive value
  • cost effective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Skin prick testing cons:

A
  • false positives
  • affected by use of antihistamines and corticosteroids
  • low risk of having a systemic reaction
  • cannot perform if skin disease at testing site (e.g. eczema)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

High risk for food allergy (CPS)

A
  • personal history of atopy

- first degree relative with an allergic condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Food protein induced proctitis onset

A

2-8 weeks of age

by age 9 months, 95% tolerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome onset and features

A

1-4 weeks after intro of the food
- vomiting 1-3hrs after ingestion
- hypotension in 15%
(generally resolve by 3 yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Test to look for systemic mastocytosis

A

serum tryptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Erythema multiforme

A
  • target lesions
  • +/- mucosal membrane
  • cna be infections OR medications
  • tx with topical corticosteroids, antihistamines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SJS/TEN onset and features

A

1-3 weeks of drug exposure

  • fever, sore throat
  • mucus membranes
  • blistering lesions with skin detachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DRESS onset and features

A

1-8 weeks of drug exposure

- rash, eosinophilia, hepatic dysfunction, fever, facial angioedema, lymphadenopahty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Serum sickness onset and features

A

1-3 weeks of drug exposure

  • rash, arthralgia, arthritis, renal disease, fever
  • low complement
  • e.g. ATG, monoclonal antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Serum sickness -like

A

1-3 weeks of drug exposure

  • rash, fever, arthralgia, arthritis
  • NO renal disease
  • normal complement
  • e.g. cefaclor, penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Treatment for SJS/TEN

A
  • discontinue med
  • supportive therapy
  • steroids + IVIG = controversial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Treatment for DRESS

A
  • discontinue med

- steroids if severe

18
Q

Treatment for serum sickness

A
  • discontinue meds
  • NSAIDS, analgesics
  • steroids, PLEX if severe
19
Q

Treatment for serum-sickness-like

A
  • discontinue med
  • NSAIDS, analgesics
  • steroids if severe
20
Q

Hereditary angioedema

  • genetics
  • test
  • triggers
A
  • autosomal dominant
  • C1 esterase inhibitor (will be low)
  • triggers by trauma, infection, estrogen
21
Q

Treatment allergic rhinitis

A
  1. allergen avoidance
  2. 2nd gen oral antihistamines (cetirizine, loratadine)
  3. intranasal steroids
  4. leukotriene receptor antagonist
  5. immunotherapy
22
Q

Humoral deficiencies (B-cell)

A
  • X linked agammaglobulinemia

- common variable immunodeficiency

23
Q

Combined immunodeficiencies (T and B cell)

A
  • SCID
  • Wiskott-Aldrich
  • ataxia - telangiectasia
  • DiGeorge
24
Q

Phagocyte defects

A
  • CGD

- leukocyte adhesion deficiency

25
B-cell immunodeficiency features
> 6 months - encapsulated, enterovirus, giardia, - AOM, sinopulmonary, arthitis, meningoencephalitis
26
Phagocytic immunodeficiency features
- early onset - staph, pseudomonas, serratia - abscesses, gingivitis, osteomyelitis, skin
27
Complement immunodeficiency features
- any age - pneumococcus, meningococcus - septicemia, meningitis
28
10 warning signs of PID
1. 2+ serious sinus infections /yr 2. 2+ months on abx 3. 2+ pneumonias /yr 4. 2+ deep seated infections (e.g. septicemia) 5. 4+ AOM/yr 6. recurrent deep skin or organ abscesses 7. persistent thrush or fungal infection 8. FTT 9. need for IV abx 10. family history of PID
29
Humoral (B-cell) assessment
Quantitative: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, lymphocyte subsets (CD19+cells) by flow cytometry Qualitative: specific antibodies e.g. diphtheria, tetanus, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella titres, isohemagglutinins,
30
Cellular assessment (T-cells)
Quantitative: total lymphocyte counts, lymphocyte subsets by flow cytometry Qualitative: in vitro lymphocyte proliferation in response to mitogens and antigens, enzyme levels, TRECs, Vbeta
31
Phagocytic assessment
Quantitative: Neutrophil counts Qualitative: neutrophil oxidative burst index (or nitroblue test) , measumrent of adhesion markers (for LAD)
32
Complement assessment
Quantitative: C1 esterase inhibitor levels, specfici complement levels Qualitative: CH50, AH50, C1 esterase inhibitor fxn (for HAE)
33
SCID
- presents 2-6 months - most common = X-linked SCID - die in infancy unless treated - severe, recurrent, persistent opportunistic infections and failure to thrive
34
Ataxia telangiectasia features
- AR - ataxia (cerebellar) starts as toddler and progresses - progressive neurodegenerations - telangiectasia (appear at 4-5 yrs) - immune deficiency - abnormal DNA repair - 25% develop malignancy (esp lymphoma)
35
Ataxia Telangiectasia screen test
- increase alpha fetoprotein | - absent IgA in 80%
36
CGD susceptibilities
Catalase positive pathogens: | - s. aureus, aspergillus, serratia, nocardia, brukhorderia, salmonella
37
HyperIgE features
AD - recurrent abscesses (cold boils) - scoliosis, fractures, - eczema - dealyed shedding of teeth - facial features
38
complement infection susceptibilities
- neisseria
39
4 types hypersensitivity reaction
Type I = IgE (<2hrs) Type II = cytotoxic e.g. anemia, thrombocytopenia (10hrs to weeks) Type III = immune complex e.g. serum sickness (1-3 weeks) Type IV = T-cell mediated e.g. SJS (2-14 days)
40
When is penicillin drug challenge contraindicated?
If history is consistent with anaphylaxis or systemic, non-immediate immune reaction e.g. serum sickness, SJS, dRESS or drug-induced hemolytic anemia
41
Stinging allergy and tryptase
- baseline level of tryptase if hx severe anaphylaxis - high levels means higher risk for systemic reactions and higher failure rate to VIT - >20ng/mL may indicate comorbid systemic mastocytosis
42
IgE reactions to stinging insects
1. large local reactions - no epipen 2. systemic reaction - carry epipen (exception = urticaria alone, low risk for anaphylaxis)