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Semester 1- ToB > Alex's ToB Notes Qs > Flashcards

Alex's ToB Notes Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Give the two broad categories of muscle

A

Striated and smooth

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2
Q

Give the two types of striated muscle

A

Cardiac

Skeletal

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3
Q

Describe the layers of a muscle muscle bundle

A

Epimysium
Perimysium
Endomysium

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4
Q

Where are the nuclei found in skeletal muscle?

A

Peripherally

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5
Q

Where are the nuclei found in cardiac muscle?

A

Centrally

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6
Q

What is the gap between cells called in cardiac muscle?

A

Intercalated disks

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7
Q

What formation does cardiac muscle lie in?

A

Diad- one T tubule is associated with two sarcoplasmic reticulums

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8
Q

What formation does skeletal muscle lie in?

A

Triad- one T-tubule is associated with 2 sarcoplasmic reticulums

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9
Q

Where do the muscle filaments lie in smooth muscle?

A

Around the edges

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10
Q

Describe the process of contraction of striated muscle

A
  1. Calcium binds to the troponin complex and moves tropomyosin away from the myosin binding site on the actin filament
  2. The myosin head binds to the actin filament at an acute angle
  3. ATP on the myosin head is hydrolysed to ADP and causes the myosin head to flex
  4. ADP is phosphorylated and the myosin head returns to its normal position, dragging the actin filament with it
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11
Q

Give the 3 types of cartilage

A

Elastic
Hyaline
Fibrocartilage

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12
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A

Costal cartilage
Articular cartilage
Template for ossification of bone

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13
Q

Describe the process of endochondrial ossification

A
  1. Arterial supply established in the hyaline cartilage
  2. Primary ossification centre develops in this area as calcification occurs
  3. After birth, secondary ossification centres infiltrate the two poles of the bone and calcification occurs at the poles
  4. After calcification of the external bone, the bones grow from the epiphyseal growth plates
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14
Q

Describe the process of bone growth

A
  1. Hyaline cartilage in the epiphyseal growth plates calcifies and extends into the metaphyses
  2. Below the calcified columns are the zones of reabsorption where the bone is modified by osteoblast and osteoclast activity
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15
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Thickening of existing cartilage template with no associated lengthening (appositional growth)

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16
Q

Where is intramembranous ossification found?

A

Flat bones

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17
Q

Where is endochondral ossification found?

A

Long bones

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18
Q

Which hormone is responsible for bone growth?

A

Growth hormone

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19
Q

What disease occurs if excessive growth hormone is released after puberty?

A

Acromegaly

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20
Q

How is cartilage formed?

A

Fibroblasts migrate from the periostium to the inner extracellular matrix. They differentiate into chondroblasts and then chondrocytes
This causes growth of cartilage

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21
Q

What is the function of a chondrocyte?

A

Secrete type II collagen and extracellular matrix

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22
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

Eustachian tube
Epiglottis
Pinna of the ear

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23
Q

How is elastic cartilage different from hyaline cartilage?

A

Does not undergo calcification

Allows for distention

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24
Q

Where is fibrocartilage found?

A

Joints

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25
Q

What are the two types of structures found in long bones?

A

Cancellous

Cortical

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26
Q

Where can cortical bone be found?

A

Periphery of long bones

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27
Q

What microstructural pattern can be seen in cortical bone?

A

Osteons- vertical concentric rings

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28
Q

What are the canals which run in cortical bone called?

A

Haversian

Volkmann’s

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29
Q

Which orientation do Volkmann’s canals lie in bone?

A

Horizontally

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30
Q

Which orientation do Haversian canals lie in bone?

A

Vertical

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31
Q

Describe the cutting cone in bone

A

As osteoclasts bore a hole in bone, osteoblasts lay down new bone directly behind the hole forming a cone shape

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32
Q

Describe the process of bone fracture healing

A
  1. Haematoma formation- arteries split and leak blood into the cancellous bone. Phagocytic cells remove dead tissues
  2. Soft callus forms from fibrocartilage and hyaline cartilage. Angiogenesis occurs
  3. Hard callus forms as hyaline cartilage is ossified in a sleeve formation to connect the two portions of bone
  4. Bone remodelling occurs to restore it to its normal shape
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33
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

Gland which releases its contents into the surrounding tissue for immediate action

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34
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

Gland which releases its contents into the bloodstream

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35
Q

Give the two categories of exocrine glands?

A

Mucous

Serous

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36
Q

What occurs in the acinar cells of exocrine glands?

A

Secretion of substances

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37
Q

What occurs in the ductal cells of exocrine glands?

A

Alter substance

Transport substance

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38
Q

Give the 3 methods for excretion of substances by exocrine glands

A

Apocrine
Merocrine
Holocrine

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39
Q

What is apocrine secretion?

A

Substance formed in the cell and packaged by the golgi so leaves the cell as a membrane-bound vesicle

40
Q

What is merocrine secretion?

A

Substance packaged as a vesicle in the cell and then substance released externally to the cell as the membranes fuse

41
Q

What is holocrine secretion?

A

Cell disintegrates so contents are released into the external environment

42
Q

What is white matter in the spinal cord?

A

Myelinated axons found at the periphery of the spinal cord

43
Q

What is grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

Synaptic junctions and cell bodies found in the centre of the spinal cord

44
Q

What is the generalised function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Fight or flight

45
Q

What is the generalised function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Rest and digest

46
Q

Where can the sympathetic fibres be found?

A

Thoraco-lumbar region extending from T1 to L2

47
Q

Where can the parasympathetic fibres be found?

A

Cervical and sacral regions

48
Q

Describe the length of the fibres in the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Long preganglionic

Short postganglionic

49
Q

Describe the length of the fibres in the sympathetic nervous system

A

Short preganglionic

Long postganglionic

50
Q

What is the role of an astrocyte?

A

Maintain BBB

51
Q

What is the role of a Schwann cell?

A

Myelinate axons in the PNS

52
Q

What is the role of an oligodendrocyte?

A

Myelinate axons in the CNS

53
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Impulses jump between Nodes of Ranvier which are areas not surrounded by myelin sheath

54
Q

Describe the layers of a nerve bundle

A

Epineurium
Perineurium
Endoneurium

55
Q

Describe how a nerve regenerates if it is servered

A

Distal portion undergoes wallerian degeneration where macrophages break it down. The endoneurium is preserved
The proximal nerve forms a cap to prevent leakage of cell material (chromatolysis)

56
Q

How fast can an axon regenerate?

A

1-2mm/day in small nerves

5mm/day in large nerves

57
Q

What is the dermis?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue where the blood supply, sweat glands, nerves and erector pilli muscles are found

58
Q

Name the 4 layers of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale

59
Q

Which layer of the epidermis does keratinocyte mitosis mainly occur?

A

Stratum basale

60
Q

Which layer of the epidermis does differentiation of the keratin proteins occur?

A

Stratum spinosum

61
Q

In which layer of the epidermis do the cells become corneocytes?

A

Stratum corneum

62
Q

Which cells provide pigment for the skin?

A

Melanocytes

63
Q

What is the function of a Langerhan cell?

A

Specialised to present antigens to T lymphocytes. Found in the stratum granulosum

64
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

Excessive proliferation of cells at the stratum basale

65
Q

What is allergic dermatitis?

A

Hypersensitivity of the Langerhans cells to a specific antigen causing reddening of the skin

66
Q

What is malignant melanoma?

A

Cancerous state of the melanocytes and presents with a localised region of hyperpigmentation on the surface of the skin

67
Q

Why is malignant melanoma likely to metastasise?

A

Sits on the border of two structures so can easily penetrate to underlying tissues

68
Q

What are the functions of conective tissue?

A 
Provide substance and form to the body
Defend against infection
Provide a medium for diffusion 
Aid in injury repair
Attach muscles and bones together
69
Q

What is extracellular matrix made up of?

A

Ground substance- hyalouronic acid and proteoglycan aggregates
Fibres- collagen and elastin

70
Q

Give the 3 types of connective tissue structures

A

Loose
Dense irregular
Dense regular

71
Q

Give 3 types of specialised connective tissue

A

Blood
Cartilage
Adipose tissue

72
Q

Which molecules attach to proteoglycan molecules in extracellular matrix?

A

GAGs

73
Q

What is the function of a GAG in extracellular matrix?

A

Negatively charged so attract water to form a hydrated gel

74
Q

Where is type I collagen most commonly found?

A

Bone
Tendons
Capsules of organs

75
Q

Where is type II collagen found?

A

Cartilage

76
Q

Where is type III collagen found?

A

Supporting structure in lymph nodes

77
Q

Where is type IV collagen found?

A

Basement membrane

78
Q

Describe the structure of type I collagen

A

Three alpha chains forming a triple helix

Glycine is the recurring third amino acid in each strand

79
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Defective function of type I collagen

Presents with multiple fractures, varus deformity, hearing loss, and blue sclera

80
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Bone density 2.5 standard deviations below the normal

81
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Congenital defect resulting in dwarfism. The calcified columns from the epiphyseal growth plates are not reabsorbed and bone growth is stunted

82
Q

What are rickets and osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficincy
Rickets- children
Osteomalacia- adults

83
Q

Give the layers that make up the alimentary tract wall

A

Mucosa:
Epithelium
Lamina propria
Muscularis mucosae

Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Outer serosa

84
Q

What is found in the lamina propria of the allimentary tract?

A

Loose connective tissue
Blood
Lymph
Immune cells in Peyer’s patches

85
Q

What is the diameter of an erthrocyte?

A

7.2nm

86
Q

What is the limit of resolution?

A

Minimum distance at which two separate entities can be distinguished

87
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

Lipoproteins expressed on the surface of the cell to aid communication, adherance to other tissues and regulate uptake

88
Q

Describe the process of fixing a biopsy sample

A 
Formaldehyde to cross link proteins
Dehydrate with ethanol
Add xylene and toluene
Embed in wax
Stain
89
Q

What is the most commonly used stain?

A

Haematoxylin and Eosin

90
Q

What part of the cell does haematoxylin stain?

A

Acidic components- nucleus

91
Q

What part of the cell does eosin stain?

A

Basic components- proteins

92
Q

What colour does haematoxylin stain?

A

Purple

93
Q

What colour does eosin stain?

A

Pink

94
Q

What stain is used for acid-fast bacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelson stain

95
Q

What stain is used for connective tissue?

A

Masson’s trichrome

96
Q

In what diseases is the Masson’s trichrome stain used?

A

Liver cirrhosis

Semester 1- ToB (17 decks)

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